Missed Questions

Front 1

In order to perform an evaluation, it is necessary that the data or information collected be ____ and ____.

Back 1

Valid and reliable

Front 2

The agency's general administrative plan provides the basis for _________.

Back 2

An administrative warrant

Front 3

Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable, and _____.

Back 3

Enforceable

Front 4

The terms "goals" and "objectives" are sometimes used interchangeably, however, objectives should be considered __________.

Back 4

The realistically attainable ends

Front 5

A standard for dishwashing that states that the "total bacteria count should not exceed 100 per utensil surface" is an example of what type of objective?

Back 5

Performance

Front 6

T or F: The numerical rating obtained per year is less important than the relative change from year to year.

Back 6

True

Front 7

Administrative hearings can be useful because they _________, ____________, and ________.

Back 7

Get the attention of the CEO, educate the organization about the law, and avoid media attention.

Front 8

One piece of refuse-compaction and earth-moving equipment is needed at the landfill site for approximately each ____ loads per ____.

Back 8

80 loads per day

Front 9

The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is the ___________.

Back 9

Area or ramp method

Front 10

The spread of _______, _______, and _______ are encouraged when undercooked garbage is fed to hogs.

Back 10

Trichinosis to humans, hog cholera, and vesicular exanthema

Front 11

Shredding reduces the volume of wastes to about ___% or less of the original bulk.

Back 11

40%

Front 12

The National Safety Council reported that solid waste collection workers have an injury frequency approximately ___ times the national average for all industry.

Back 12

10 times

Front 13

The most common problems associated with the disposal of hazardous waste are __________, ________, and ________.

Back 13

Public opposition and spills, groundwater pollution from lagoons and unauthorized dumping, and leachate from landfills, dumps, sludge disposal, and other land disposal systems.

Front 14

Added moisture used in maceration _____ the handling and haul costs of waste.

Back 14

Increases

Front 15

Depending on the size of the community, there should be a minimum of 1 man at a landfill site and __ men per 1000 cubic yards of waste dumped per day that the site is open.

Back 15

6 men

Front 16

The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1976 _____________.

Back 16

Regulates the production and use of chemical substances that may present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or environment.

Front 17

Additional fuel is needed to incinerate refuse with ___% less rubbish and __% more moisture.

Back 17

30% less rubbish and 50% more moisture

Front 18

After a landfill site is closed, it should be covered with at least ___ inches of compacted soil having low permeability and graded to shed rainwater, melting snow, and surface water.

Back 18

24 inches

Front 19

The valley or ravine landfill method utilizes lifts from the bottom-up with depths usually of ____ feet.

Back 19

8-10 feet

Front 20

____ and ____ allows for 95% or more volume reduction of municipal solid wastes.

Back 20

Pyrolysis and high-temperature incineration

Front 21

Pasteurization does not eliminate _____, _____, or _____.

Back 21

Toxins, anthrax spores, or pesticides.

Front 22

_____ bacteria typically contains the most of the pathogenic bacteria.

Back 22

Mesophilic

Front 23

Vegetative forms of clostridium botulinum spores are killed in ____ minutes at ___ degrees F.

Back 23

10-15 minutes at 176 degrees F

Front 24

Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminates shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to PHS certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment.

Back 24

Typhoid fever

Front 25

Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by ____.

Back 25

NSSP

Front 26

The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as ____.

Back 26

IMS

Front 27

A mold control program should not include ______________.

Back 27

Spraying with 1000 mg/L of quaternary ammonium compound

Front 28

In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of ____.

Back 28

10-foot candles

Front 29

Oyster shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ____ or more fecal coliform per 100 g of shellfish.

Back 29

230

Front 30

Equipment can be disinfected by being in contact with a chlorine solution for at least _____.

Back 30

10 seconds

Front 31

In case of emergency, raw milk may be rendered safe for drinking if _________.

Back 31

Heated in a water bath to 165 degrees F

Front 32

When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria examinations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be ______.

Back 32

the resazurin test and the methylene blue reduction test

Front 33

Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ____ of exposure to purified seawater.

Back 33

12-24 hours

Front 34

To prepare a solution of 100 mg/L available chlorine, _____ of 5.25% bleach with 1 gallon water should be used.

Back 34

0.25 oz

Front 35

____ is not typically a member of the infection control committee.

Back 35

A hospital CEO

Front 36

Vent gases combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form _____.

Back 36

Sulfuric acid

Front 37

The biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment is ______.

Back 37

Biosafety level 2

Front 38

The release of genetically engineered materials into the environment is regulated by _____ and ____.

Back 38

USDA and EPA

Front 39

The biological safety containment (BSC) national performance standard has been developed by the _____.

Back 39

National Science Foundation (NSF)

Front 40

Short term exposure to formaldehyde levels above ___ can cause serious health or life threatening reactions such as pulmonary edema and pneumontitis.

Back 40

50 ppm

Front 41

Office space should provide at least ____ per minute per occupant of clean outside air at a minimum where smoking is not permitted.

Back 41

20 cubic feet

Front 42

The 4 biosafety containment levels consist of a combination of ____, ____, and ____.

Back 42

Laboratory practices, safety equipment, and facilities.

Front 43

The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) recommend minimal thermal standard for dwelling is ___ degrees F at ___% humidity and an air circulation rate of __ fpm.

Back 43

76 degrees F, 40% humidity, and 45 fpm.

Front 44

A minimum of ___ of sleeping area per person is required in the American Public Health Association (APHA) appraisal method.

Back 44

40 square feet

Front 45

In children, blood lead levels (BLL) more than ___ are associated with decreased intellectual performance and other adverse health effects.

Back 45

10 ug/L

Front 46

____, ___, and ___ cannot reduce radon levels.

Back 46

Humidifiers, electrostatic precipitators, and ionizers

Front 47

Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds __%.

Back 47

60%

Front 48

___, ____, and ____ are not composting methods that require limited space.

Back 48

The beccari method, banglore process, and fairfield-hardy process

Front 49

____ is not one of the four characteristics of hazardous wastes as defined by the EPA.

Back 49

Radioactivity

Front 50

Composting may come from _______ and results in _______.

Back 50

May come from the organic fraction of municipal solid waste and results in poor fertilizer.

Front 51

Brine from water softening units as low as ___% may inhibit bacterial action in septic tanks.

Back 51

1.2%

Front 52

Grease traps are installed for the purpose of minimizing grease in the sewer system. The trap _______.

Back 52

Is not of proven value in many commercial applications

Front 53

_____, ____, and ____ are not easily destroyed by normal chlorination of sewage.

Back 53

Entamoeba histolytica, hepatitis viruses, and giardia cysts

Front 54

Soil containing loam will ________.

Back 54

Remove most of the phosphorus in sewage effluent.

Front 55

Any excavation in clay, loam, silt, or sand more than ____ in depth should have side wall protection to prevent cave-in.

Back 55

4 feet

Front 56

A soil which is mottled brown and red would indicate _____.

Back 56

A tight soil probably due to a fluctuating water table or lack of aeration.

Front 57

Human disease from aerosols of wastewater ______________.

Back 57

Is related primarily to wastewater treatment by activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes.

Front 58

After a septic tank has been cleaned, it should not be scrubbed and disinfected because _________ and ______________.

Back 58

The sludge sticking to the insides would have a seeding effect and it is considered a safety hazard.

Front 59

The traditional absorption field should be laid in trenches not more than ____ below ground surface.

Back 59

24 inches

Front 60

Trickling filters can remove 90-95% of the ___, ____, and ____ found in soil, water, and wastewater.

Back 60

Bacteria, viruses, and cholera vibrio

Front 61

Primary sedimentation can remove ____% bacteria, __% ascaris, and __% schistosomes.

Back 61

50-90% bacteria, 30-50% ascaris, and 80% schistosomes

Front 62

The field distribution piping should be surrounded with ________ and at least ___ deep under the pipe.

Back 62

Washed gravel, 3/4 to 2 1/2 inches and at least 2 inches deep

Front 63

Low pressure, vacuum and cluster systems may be used _____.

Back 63

Where soil is unsuitable for septic systems, in hilly areas, or in high-density recreational areas.

Front 64

_____ or ____ are typically used at residential sewage treatment systems with a surface discharge.

Back 64

Sodium hypochlorite or calcium hypochlorite

Front 65

By EPA standards, the pH of secondary treatment effluent shall be in the range of ____.

Back 65

6-9

Front 66

_______ is often transmitted to humans handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats.

Back 66

Tularemia

Front 67

Marsh miasma is another name for _____.

Back 67

Malaria

Front 68

______ may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis.

Back 68

House mice

Front 69

T or F: Soil moisture of 30-45% is the best for pathogen survival.

Back 69

False

Front 70

T or F: Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soils.

Back 70

False

Front 71

The term "endemic" means _________.

Back 71

The constant presence of an illness.

Front 72

The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (40 yrs) and 1974 (72 yrs) have occurred mostly in the early years due to _____, _____, and ____.

Back 72

Sanitation, nutrition, and chemotherapy

Front 73

There is scientific consensus that further increases in life expectancy are dependent on the extent to which ________ and ________.

Back 73

Personal lifestyles can change and pollution can be controlled.

Front 74

T or F: Onchocerciases is a rare illness found in some third world counties.

Back 74

False

Front 75

How many virus particles does it take to cause illness in humans?

Back 75

1

Front 76

Amelioration of a disease to reduce disability to dependence resulting from it is ______.

Back 76

Tertiary prevention

Front 77

The _______ appears to be the primary reservoir for hantavirus, which was first recognized in 1993 in the southeastern United States.

Back 77

Deer mouse

Front 78

T or F: Black flies are vectors for onchocerciasis.

Back 78

True

Front 79

T or F: DDT has been banned for use in all countries except parts of Africa, Sweden, Great Britain, and all South American countries.

Back 79

False

Front 80

A mature ragweed can produce _____ pollen grains in one season.

Back 80

1 billion

Front 81

The Norway rat has a home range of ______.

Back 81

100-150 feet

Front 82

Bat-proofing should occur in the _________, when bats are hibernating in caves.

Back 82

Midautumn through spring

Front 83

Pediculosis is an infestation of ____.

Back 83

Lice

Front 84

A single pair of rats are capable of producing ____ litters of young per year.

Back 84

4-6

Front 85

The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones are ____________.

Back 85

Spring and fall

Front 86

An example of a single dose rodenticide is________.

Back 86

Red squill

Front 87

An example of an anticoagulant rodenticide is _____.

Back 87

Warfarin

Front 88

Alkalinity in water is desirable at levels of ______.

Back 88

30-100 mg/L

Front 89

The amount of color in water should be less than _______.

Back 89

15 color units

Front 90

_____________ is not a variable to be considered when deciding upon a safe distance between a well and a sewage disposal system.

Back 90

The number of individuals utilizing the well

Front 91

Hardness in drinking water is desirable at levels of _____.

Back 91

50-80 mg/L

Front 92

Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at exposure levels of _____.

Back 92

300 ppm

Front 93

_________ is not a practical method to remove cadmium.

Back 93

Reverse osmosis

Front 94

Domestic community water system pumps should be of such capacity as to deliver the average daily water demanded to the storage tank in ______.

Back 94

6-12 hours

Front 95

________ is the disinfecting compound that may or may not be used at full strength for disinfection.

Back 95

Sodium hypochlorite

Front 96

A jet pump will lift water at a maximum of _____.

Back 96

120 feet

Front 97

Over 90% of sodium arsenate can be removed by _____.

Back 97

Coagulation

Front 98

Hydropneumatic or pressure-tank water systems are suitable for ________________________.

Back 98

Small communities, housing developments, private homes and estates, camps, food service operations, and hotels.

Front 99

__________ is used to control the growth of algae and protozoa.

Back 99

Filtration

Front 100

A centrifugal pump is limited to use where the lift of the water is not in excess of ______.

Back 100

15 feet

Front 101

Barium is a muscle stimulant and in large quantities may be harmful to the nervous system and heart. The fatal dose is _____________.

Back 101

550-600 mg

Front 102

________, _________, and _______ are required to control the corrosion in piping.

Back 102

Development of protective coating inside the pipes, the use of corrosion-resistant pipe materials and pipe coatings, and the control of electrochemical action

Front 103

The most practical method of removing nitrates from water is _____________.

Back 103

Ion exchange

Front 104

The geophysical methods used to identify and investigate the extent and characteristics of groundwater pollution include ____, ______, and ______.

Back 104

Geomagnetics, electromagnetics, and electrical resistivity

Front 105

Centrifugal pumps are of several types depending on the design of the ______.

Back 105

Impellar

Front 106

The limitation of the lift capability of the centrifugal pump is based on ________.

Back 106

The weight of the atmosphere

Front 107

The flushometer valve is typically protected by a _______________.

Back 107

Non-pressure-type vacuum breaker

Front 108

______ is not a primary consideration when locating a groundwater supply.

Back 108

The distance that the water will need to travel

Front 109

When using pre-settling reservoirs to eliminate heavy turbidity or pollution before treatment, _____ is the desirable retention time.

Back 109

2-3 days

Front 110

__________ is most favorable for the removal of viruses.

Back 110

Fine loamy sand over coarse sand and gravel

Front 111

In a stratified reservoir, the best quality water is usually contained in the ______.

Back 111

Metalimnion

Front 112

T or F: Gamma rays come from the nucleus of an atom and x-rays come from the electrons around the nucleus & are produced by electron bombardment.

Back 112

False

Front 113

MPD means ______.

Back 113

Maximum permissible dose

Front 114

T or F: Biological effects of radiation on all living organisms are termed somatic or genetic.

Back 114

True

Front 115

T or F: Beta particles can be a health hazard either as internal or external radiation because of the ionization of tissue.

Back 115

True

Front 116

Radon emits _____; daughter decay products are _____, _____, and _____ emitters.

Back 116

Alpha particles; alpha, beta, and gamma

Front 117

T or F: Radioactive substances used in medicine are not always sealed.

Back 117

True

Front 118

T or F: The term "rem" takes into consideration the biological effect of different kinds of radiation from the same dose in rads.

Back 118

True

Front 119

T or F: Survey meters are usually read in roentgens or milliroentgens per hour.

Back 119

False

Front 120

T or F: Carbon-14 has a half-life of 6,000 years.

Back 120

True

Front 121

The term ______ is not commonly associated with the term "frequency."

Back 121

Particles

Front 122

Lasers emit ____.

Back 122

Electromagnetic radiation

Front 123

The median lethal dose of radiation (at which about 50% of the persons exposed will probably die in one month) is considered to be ____.

Back 123

550-750 roentgens

Front 124

Microwave ovens use __________ energy sources.

Back 124

Non-iodizing electromagnetic

Front 125

Oysters grow best at _____ pH and ____ degrees F.

Back 125

6.2-6.8 pH and 41 degrees F

Front 126

Thermoduric bacteria grow best in a temperature range of _______ degrees F.

Back 126

70-98 degrees F

Front 127

E. coli is a bacteria that is currently ______.

Back 127

Hard to test for

Front 128

When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ____ degrees F with a chlorine solution of _____ mg/L concentration.

Back 128

120 degrees F; 25 mg/L

Front 129

Sweetened milk products should be pasteurized at __________.

Back 129

155 degrees F for 30 minutes.

Front 130

The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is _____.

Back 130

0.5 ppb

Front 131

Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on work surfaces.

Back 131

50-foot candles

Front 132

The minimum wash time for a single-tank conveyor dishwashing machine is ______.

Back 132

15 seconds

Front 133

Minerals and chemicals that cause problems with ice manufacturing is _____.

Back 133

Calcium, silica, iron and magnesium carbonates, aluminum oxide, and manganese

Front 134

When chlorine is added to water, _____.

Back 134

HOCl is considered the primary product.

Front 135

A treatment system of a pool should be installed as:

Back 135

Skimmer/gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, filter aid, disinfectant feeder, pH feeder, pump, filters, adjustable inlets

Front 136

Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of ____ and _____.

Back 136

NTU and secchi disk reading

Front 137

The backwash rate for conventional, rapid, and high-rate sand filters is ____.

Back 137

15 gpm/square foot

Front 138

The rate of filtration should be _____ for a diatomaceous earth filter.

Back 138

1-2 gpm/square foot

Front 139

Since competent direction is essential to a divisional program's effectiveness, it is important to offer ________.

Back 139

Adequate compensation

Front 140

____, ____, and ____ are the most effective techniques for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment.

Back 140

A mandatory injunction, revoking a license, and an injunction

Front 141

A well-developed ___ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical progress.

Back 141

Daily

Front 142

From a legal standpoint, is it easier to enforce a specification-type standard or a performance standard?

Back 142

Specification-type standard

Front 143

Between 26 BC and 395 AD, the average life expectancy was _____.

Back 143

24 years

Front 144

In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains ____, _____, and _______.

Back 144

Transportation systems, population and demographic studies, and economic studies and proposals.

Front 145

The generally accepted method of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is _____.

Back 145

Comprehensive land-use planning

Front 146

The term "federal agency" does not include the __________.

Back 146

Executive office

Front 147

T or F: Every 1,000 new people in a community requires 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year.

Back 147

False

Front 148

Several proposals to establish a QOL Index were investigated by _____.

Back 148

Hornback

Front 149

Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems ______.

Back 149

Must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing.

Front 150

T or F: A QOL Index is not useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions.

Back 150

True

Front 151

The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is ____.

Back 151

6 mg/L

Front 152

The maximum sulfur dioxide concentration for vegetable damage is ____.

Back 152

0.03 ppm

Front 153

Plan preparation (step 3) of the process of comprehensive community planning contains ___________, ________, and ___________.

Back 153

Special planning studies, transportation or circulation plans, and environmental engineering plans

Front 154

_____ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine "the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment."

Back 154

Leopold

Front 155

General overall planning includes ____, ____, and ___.

Back 155

Aspirations and realistic objectives, identification of goals, and establishment of functional priorities

Front 156

An ad valorem tax is _____________.

Back 156

A non-proportionate tax for service

Front 157

______ developed a set of guidelines to aid urban areas and cities in the assessment of the impacts of development actions.

Back 157

HUD

Front 158

If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 mL of water, it is placed in environmental impact category ___.

Back 158

2

Front 159

When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, _________ would not be included.

Back 159

Construction plans

Front 160

Nitrogen dioxide below ____ does not post a health problem.

Back 160

0.05 ppm

Front 161

If the air in a community contains 0.10-0.17 ppm of sulfur oxide, it has _______ air quality.

Back 161

Moderate

Front 162

An EIS should not contain ___________.

Back 162

The probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided

Front 163

Plan implementation does not involve ________.

Back 163

Detailed technical advancements in systems operations

Front 164

T or F: For every 1,000 new people, a community will not require an additional supply of 10-30 million gallons of water per year.

Back 164

True

Front 165

In the Quality of Life Index, _________ is not included in the economic environment.

Back 165

Material quality

Front 166

A SWOT analysis evaluates the ______________.

Back 166

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved

Front 167

T or F: Project study is another term for comprehensive regional planning.

Back 167

False

Front 168

_____ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits.

Back 168

Industry

Front 169

The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by __________.

Back 169

The constitution or laws of a state

Front 170

Plan preparation (step 3) does not include _____________.

Back 170

Public institution plans

Front 171

Comprehensive community planning is also referred to as ______.

Back 171

General planning

Front 172

A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of _______.

Back 172

Solid wastes

Front 173

The Overseas Development Council has created a Physical Quality of Life Index by combining assessments of ________________.

Back 173

Literacy rates, life expectancy, and infant mortality rates

Front 174

________ is not a characteristic of hazardous waste.

Back 174

Combustibility

Front 175

______ is the least appropriate option for hazardous waste minimization.

Back 175

Concentration

Front 176

Microwave ovens that have magnetron tubes use electrical energy to generate _________.

Back 176

High frequency, short wave energy

Front 177

The absorption of ______ (energy per gram) of air represents 1 roentgen.

Back 177

86 ergs

Front 178

The term "rad" means ______.

Back 178

radiation absorbed dose

Front 179

_____ information is known about effects of trace amounts of chemical carcinogens than radiation effects.

Back 179

Less

Front 180

X-ray units are generally due for reinspection every ______.

Back 180

2-3 years

Front 181

The term "rem" means _____.

Back 181

Roentgen equivalent man

Front 182

The fresh water supply line to the pool must _________.

Back 182

Fill to the pool through an approved air gap

Front 183

Incinerators are rated in terms of _________.

Back 183

Tons of burnable waste per day

Front 184

When trying to establish economical hauling, ______ is the most important.

Back 184

Hauling time

Front 185

The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should be _________.

Back 185

With the prevailing wind

Front 186

Leachates containing primarily low molecular weight organic compounds are best treated by ______________.

Back 186

Biological methods

Front 187

The 3 essentials for combustion in an incinerator are _____________.

Back 187

Time, temperature, and turbulence

Front 188

The EPA believes that only __% of the waste stream can be recovered economically.

Back 188

56%

Front 189

Minimum wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is ____ degrees F.

Back 189

160-167 degrees F

Front 190

Campylobacter may be safely used in the laboratory as a minimum at __________.

Back 190

Biosafety level 2

Front 191

A Class II biological safety cabinet (BSC) is designed to protect _____, _____, and _____.

Back 191

The work being done in the BSC, the personnel using the BSC, and the environment.

Front 192

T or F: Because the pesticides lindane and malathion do not stain, they are excellent liquid insecticide sprays to use for controlling bed bugs.

Back 192

False

Front 193

The most practical way to control hay fever is to __________.

Back 193

Treat the patient

Front 194

An adult rat requires _____ of food per day.

Back 194

1 oz

Front 195

T or F: Male and Female mosquitoes feed only on the blood of humans and animals.

Back 195

False

Front 196

Spraying in _____________ has been proven to be most effective in controlling ragweed.

Back 196

Early or midspring

Front 197

Storage of bedding, clothing, and any other lice-infested items for at least _____ will cause the lice to die of starvation.

Back 197

2 weeks

Front 198

T or F: The poison found in poison ivy, oak, and sumac is extremely volatile.

Back 198

False

Front 199

Sewage sludge should not be used as a soil builder or fertilizer supplement for crops for forage if it has not been properly tested because _______.

Back 199

It may result in higher levels of toxic materials in the vegetation and in the animals eating the vegetation.

Front 200

Loam is a mixture of gravel, sand, silt, and clay containing ____.

Back 200

Decayed plant and animal matter

Front 201

A __________ soil would be most suitable for subsurface absorption of wastewater.

Back 201

Yellow, brown, or red soil

Front 202

T or F: The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the groundwater table or rock is 62 inches.

Back 202

False

Front 203

T or F: Chlorination of untreated wastewater is typically not an effective treatment for entamoeba histolytica cysts, giardia cysts, and tapeworm eggs.

Back 203

True

Front 204

Chemical coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration will remove nearly all bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and helminths if supplemented by _____.

Back 204

Chlorination

Front 205

Disinfection or chlorination of sewage effluent is ________.

Back 205

An added safeguard to reduce the risk of disease transmission where the probability exists.

Front 206

The detention time for wastewater in a septic tank is recommended to be _____.

Back 206

24-72 hours

Front 207

Reduction of the level of fluorides in drinking water can be accomplished by _____, ______, and __________.

Back 207

Coagulation, lime softening, and ion exchange

Front 208

Domestic community water system pumps should be of such capacity as to deliver the average daily water demanded to the storage tank in ______.

Back 208

6-12 hours

Front 209

In sandy soil, sewage organisms can travel about _________.

Back 209

200 feet

Front 210

In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then turned into steam usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of ____.

Back 210

250 degrees F

Front 211

Typically, an abundant supply of groundwater may be yielded from _______.

Back 211

Sedimentary rocks

Front 212

_____ is not classified as a sedimentary formation.

Back 212

Olivine

Front 213

Rocks such as serpentine, slate, soapstone, and marble belong to the ____ class.

Back 213

Metamorphic

Front 214

____ has the greatest % porosity.

Back 214

Silt

Front 215

The residual test for chlorine that is least desirable is _____.

Back 215

OTA

Front 216

________ would not be used as a coagulant.

Back 216

Sodium hypochlorite

Front 217

_____, ____, and _____ would result in the worst case of pipe damage due to corrosion.

Back 217

Soft water, low alkalinity, and the presence of oxygen

Front 218

_____, _____, and _____ increase the chance of pollution travel.

Back 218

Acidic soil conditions, lack of organic materials, and lack of iron, magnesium, and calcium

Front 219

_________ is another name for Epsom salts.

Back 219

Magnesium sulfate

Front 220

The final product in biochemical oxidation of ammonia yields _____.

Back 220

Nitrate

Front 221

T or F: Ozone residual lasts for hours.

Back 221

False

Front 222

Algae development will not __________.

Back 222

Cause a rapid fall in pH

Front 223

The pH of a solution in which the apparent hydrogen ion concentration is 1 times 10^-8 moles per liter is ____.

Back 223

8

Front 224

The substance commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment is ______.

Back 224

Aluminum sulfate

Front 225

The disinfecting ability of chlorine is affected most by the ______.

Back 225

The hydrogen ion concentration

Front 226

Alkalinity exists in 3 forms: ____, ____, and _____

Back 226

Bicarbonate, hydroxide, and carbonate

Front 227

Viral Hepatitis B (HBV) is most often associated with the ____________.

Back 227

Administration of blood products

Front 228

Masonry reservoirs of rural water supplies are ____.

Back 228

Cisterns

Front 229

The liquid form of chlorine used for emergency disinfection is ______________.

Back 229

Sodium hypochlorite

Front 230

The general type of subsurface formation in which groundwater contamination is likely to travel the farthest is ____.

Back 230

Limestone

Front 231

The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is _________.

Back 231

The presence of gas from the fermentation on the media

Front 232

The DPD test is commonly used for the determination of _____.

Back 232

Chlorine or bromine

Front 233

If water in a stream is at 20 degrees C and has 9 mg/L of oxygen, __________.

Back 233

It would probably be comfortable for rainbow trout.

Front 234

The main function of a sand filter is to ______.

Back 234

Remove suspended solids

Front 235

A chlorine concentration of 30 ppm in a drinking water supply is ___.

Back 235

Excessive

Front 236

Information and advice on what to do with hazardous waste when spilled in a transportation accident is available 24 hours per day from the ________.

Back 236

Chemical Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

Front 237

Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the _____.

Back 237

Chlorinated hydrocarbons

Front 238

Improper use of chemicals or improperly balanced pool or bleach water may cause the spread of infectious disease due to ____, ____, and ___.

Back 238

Removal of the protective coatings of mucous on tissue, irritation of the skin, and living organisms in the water

Front 239

Eye irritation can be caused by prolonged exposure to water with a pH ______ and ____.

Back 239

Below 7.4 and of 7.0

Front 240

The bottom of multi-purpose pools should have a bottom slope not greater than ____.

Back 240

1 inch per 12 inches

Front 241

The chemical quality of a pool is generally measured with ___________ testing.

Back 241

pH and chlorine residual

Front 242

The preferred treatment for algae is _____.

Back 242

Superchlorination

Front 243

PAM would most likely be found in a ______.

Back 243

Geothermal pool

Front 244

Muriatic acid is a weak solution of _____.

Back 244

Hypochlorous acid

Front 245

High temperature incineration systems are most suitable to destroy ____.

Back 245

Organic compounds

Front 246

Natural disaster victims should be provided with ___ gallons of water per day.

Back 246

3-6

Front 247

___ of liquid bleach can be used to treat 1000 gallons of water for drinking.

Back 247

1 pint

Front 248

When treating water with chlorine in emergency situations, the chlorine dosage should be ____ when the water is turbid or colored.

Back 248

Doubled

Front 249

Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plant sites must be tested at least every ___.

Back 249

2 years

Front 250

The emergency plan at a nuclear electric power plant must include a means for notification of the public within ____ in 15 minutes.

Back 250

10 miles

Front 251

The most hazardous category of nuclear emergency is ______.

Back 251

General emergency

Front 252

HAZWOPER requirements apply to _________.

Back 252

Voluntary clean-ups of uncontrolled hazardous waste sites.

Front 253

The site control program at an uncontrolled hazardous waste site must include _____.

Back 253

Site work zones

Front 254

Those who work on uncontrolled hazardous waste sites are required to receive a minimum of _____ training.

Back 254

40 hours

Front 255

Workers involved in waste operations at hazardous waste TSD facilities are required to receive at least ____ training before working in hazardous waste operations.

Back 255

24 hours

Front 256

Air monitoring at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites can be conducted by ______.

Back 256

A person knowledgeable about industrial hygiene practices

Front 257

Employers are required to develop and implement a program to inform _____ of the degree of exposure likely as a result of participation in hazardous waste operations.

Back 257

Employees and contractors

Front 258

Showers must be provided at hazardous waste clean-up sites when operations will last longer than ____.

Back 258

6 months

Front 259

Those involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted TSD facilities must receive ____ of initial training.

Back 259

24 hours

Front 260

The yellow pages of the emergency response guidebook lists _____.

Back 260

Hazardous materials by ID number

Front 261

The orange pages of the emergency response guidebook lists _____.

Back 261

Guides to use when responding to hazardous materials transportation incidents.

Front 262

The green pages of the emergency response guidebook lists _____.

Back 262

Initial isolation and protective action distances

Front 263

To disinfect a well, one should _________ and pour directly into well.

Back 263

Mix one quart of bleach in five gallons of water

Front 264

Following floods or other natural disasters, there is frequently a concern for _____ vaccine.

Back 264

Typhoid

Front 265

The number one item listed under emergency equipment and supplies is ____.

Back 265

Water

Front 266

Emergency shelters should provide a minimum of ______ per person.

Back 266

30 square feet

Front 267

To disinfect clear water using 5% household bleach, _______.

Back 267

Mix one tablespoon to 10 gallons of water and let sit for 30 minutes.

Front 268

Wearing contact lenses in an area that has the potential to expose workers to body fluids requires _____.

Back 268

That they may not be cleaned in the work area

Front 269

Contaminated needles must not be _____, _____, nor ____.

Back 269

Recapped after use, cut to ensure that they are not used again, nor washed in hot soapy water prior to use

Front 270

Protective equipment such as gloves for workers in contamination risk areas must be ______.

Back 270

Provided at no cost to the employee for work purposes

Front 271

Broken glassware found in contamination risk areas or if suspected to have contained infectious material _____.

Back 271

Must be picked up using mechanical means

Front 272

Hepatitis B vaccines for employees ____.

Back 272

Must be offered at no cost

Front 273

If permitted under existing laws, _____ would be an effective technique for ceasing operation of an establishment.

Back 273

Revoking a license

Front 274

An individuals right to be treated with at least a minimum of decency and fairness by governmental officials is guaranteed by the provision of ____.

Back 274

Due process

Front 275

The term applied to certain incorporated towns or cities in which the state constitution or legislature gives them the right to formulate and adopt city charters and regulate their own affairs is ______.

Back 275

Home rule

Front 276

The term given to organization wherein lies lines of authority and responsibility run upward and downward through several levels with a broad functional base at the bottom, and a single executive head at top is _____.

Back 276

Scalar process

Front 277

The most important means of enforcement of the FDA is _____.

Back 277

Embargo

Front 278

A sanitarian is required to obtain a search warrant before entering and searching the kitchen of a restaurant ______.

Back 278

When the owner has refused entry on the occasion

Front 279

The bacteria ____ in large numbers can survive extended storage in cheddar cheese.

Back 279

Salmonella sp.

Front 280

Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of _____.

Back 280

200 mg/L

Front 281

When disinfecting rubber valves and other parts of milking equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ or a strong chlorine solution of _____ strength can be used.

Back 281

180-190 degrees F; 200 mg/L

Front 282

The final rinse water temperature of a heat sanitizing warewashing machine should cause the surface of the dishes and utensils to reach a temperature of ____.

Back 282

160 degrees F

Front 283

The most accurate estimates of sewage flow are based on _____.

Back 283

Annual water meter readings

Front 284

_____ is not an explosive component of sewer gas.

Back 284

Carbon dioxide

Front 285

Sand filters, elevated systems in suitable fill, evapotranspiration absorption systems, evapotranspiration beds, aeration systems, stabilization ponds or lagoons, recirculating toilets, and the like are _____.

Back 285

Sometimes used where soil is unsuitable.

Front 286

______ would not be considered suitable for disposal of sewage by subsurface means.

Back 286

Clay

Front 287

The two factors that determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tank are ______ and _____.

Back 287

Soil characteristics and depth to groundwater

Front 288

T or F: The inlet must be 6 inches higher than the outlet in regards to outlets and inlets on distribution boxes in sewage disposal systems.

Back 288

True

Front 289

_____ is not a factor in the satisfactory operation of a septic tank/sand filter system.

Back 289

Ratio of septic tank size to sand filter size

Front 290

_______ is another name for a mature or balanced lake.

Back 290

Mesotrophic

Front 291

What are the 3 zones of stream pollution, in order of normal chain of events?

Back 291

1. Degradation

2. Decomposition

3. Recovery

Front 292

_____ is the permissible 8-hour threshold limit value for H2S.

Back 292

20 ppm

Front 293

______ is the most important step in wastewater operations.

Back 293

Good housekeeping

Front 294

Imhoff tanks used for sewage disposal are primarily dependent upon the action of _____.

Back 294

Bacterial decomposition

Front 295

The soil profile of a site refers to _____.

Back 295

Side view of the face of the soil horizon

Front 296

BOD is a measurement of the biodegradable organic content of a water sample. It is necessary to fill the bottle completely full and not have any air bubbles in the sample in order to _________.

Back 296

Prevent additional oxygen from diffusing into the sample.

Front 297

When sewage treatment lagoons are excavated from fractured rock such as slate or shale, there is a danger that if sewage is stored in these lagoons, the sewage may ______.

Back 297

Flow untreated through the rock fractures and contaminate aquifers.

Front 298

The principle purpose of a trap used in connection with a plumbing fixture is to _____.

Back 298

Prevent the entrance of sewer air and foul gases into the house through the fixture.

Front 299

______ is a thermochemical process for the conversion of complete organic solids in the absence of added oxygen, to water, combustible gases, tarry liquids, and stable residue.

Back 299

Pyrolysis

Front 300

Resource recovery can be expected to achieve no more than _____ reduction in future landfill volume requirement.

Back 300

60%

Front 301

The disposal of used tires presents a problem, but shredded tires may be used as ______.

Back 301

Fuel for industries

Front 302

The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately ______.

Back 302

10-15% of the original volume and 25% of the original volume

Front 303

To provide enough refuse for an incinerator to continuously operate, a refuse storage pit/bin must hold approximately _____.

Back 303

4 days of refuse

Front 304

Landfill sites should be ____ from streams, lakes, or other surface bodies of water.

Back 304

100 feet

Front 305

The hazard that is related to size reduction for solid waste is ____.

Back 305

Explosions

Front 306

The reference you would use to determine if an infection waste that contains viable organisms is included is _____.

Back 306

RCRA Act

Front 307

Venturi scrubbers, spray towels, and packed towers are examples of what type of waste treatment method?

Back 307

Absorption

Front 308

The product that has the lowest reclamation value is ___.

Back 308

Glass

Front 309

______ methane gas-producing bacteria produce methane.

Back 309

Anaerobic

Front 310

The contaminant that may accompany methane production if large amounts of sulfates are also present is ____.

Back 310

H2S

Front 311

After collection, the 4 main steps involved in resource recovery (in order) are ____, ____, ____, then _____.

Back 311

1. Size reduction

2. Separation

3. Recovery

4. Utilization

Front 312

Refuse collection frequently depends largely on the length of time required for fly eggs to mature through the larval stages into adults. Under optimum summer temperatures, maturation time is ____.

Back 312

7-10 days

Front 313

_____ is an unacceptable operating practice at a sanitary landfill.

Back 313

A specific time and place should be designated for the dumping of sewage sludge, agricultural wastes, and toxic substances

Front 314

The type of sanitary landfill that should be developed on essentially flat land sites in dry areas is ____.

Back 314

An area landfill

Front 315

On the basis of weight, _____ constitutes the largest component of domestic solid waste.

Back 315

Paper

Front 316

Refuse in an established sanitary landfill decomposes by the bacterial process of _____.

Back 316

Anaerobic decomposition

Front 317

The Federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) is mainly concerned with ___.

Back 317

Solid wastes

Front 318

A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. ____ should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a major contributor to the environment.

Back 318

Lead acid batteries

Front 319

_____ is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator.

Back 319

Pressurized

Front 320

The federal law that regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous substances is the ____.

Back 320

Solid Waste Disposal Act

Front 321

A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions describes ___.

Back 321

Risk

Front 322

The sampling device that is best for collecting undisturbed soil samples is ___.

Back 322

Split spoon

Front 323

The Council on Environmental Quality was established by ____.

Back 323

Title II of NEPA

Front 324

pH =

Back 324

log 1/[H+]

Front 325

Rectangular/square pool volume=

Back 325

L x W x D x 7.5= gallons

Front 326

Circle pool volume=

Back 326

Diameter x diameter x D x 5.9= gallons

Front 327

Shock pool if combined chlorine is ____.

Back 327

Greater than or equal to 0.2 mg/L

Front 328

Combined chlorine=

Back 328

Total chlorine - free chlorine

Front 329

Pool turnover rate=

Back 329

Volume of pool/[flow meter rate (gpm) x 60 min]

Front 330

Many states rules require the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F.

Back 330

45 degrees F

Front 331

The common types of radiation are ___, ____, ___, ___, and ____.

Back 331

Xrays

Gamma rays

Alpha particles

Beta particles

Neutrons

Front 332

Large items that are not recyclable should be ____ or ______.

Back 332

Compressed or shredded or placed in a separate area of the landfill for periodic burial

Front 333

The Medical Waste Tracking Act of 1988, which amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act, required ______ to establish a two year demonstration program for tracking medical waste in selected states.

Back 333

EPA

Front 334

T or F: Vector-borne encephalitidies have replaced malaria as the major mosquito-borne disease in North America.

Back 334

True

Front 335

The most effective method discovered for running a percolation test is _____.

Back 335

To make tests in holes that have been filled with water overnight