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171 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Match the following to their reproduction type.
1. Asexual
2. Sexual
3. Both Sexual and Asexual


A. Macrocystis porifera
B. Penicillium
C. Laminaria japonica
D. Conidia
E. Mushrooms
A:3, B:1, C:3, D:1, E:3
All infectious disease is communicable.
A. true
B. false
b. false
Which of the following statements about normal microbiota is NOT true?
A. The normal microbiota can prevent pathogens from causing an infection.
B. Normal microbiota have a commensalistic or mutualistic relationship with the human cells that support their growth.
C. Transient microbiota are microbes that are present for various periods and then disappear.
D. Normal microbiota may become opprotunistic pathogens under special conditions.
E. Disease is a normal relationship between normal microbiota and human host cells.
E. Disease is a normal relationship between normal microbiota and human host cells.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A. A lichen doesn't exist if the fungal and algal partners are separated.
B. Lichens are parasites.
C. In a lichen, the alga produces carbohydrates.
D. In a lichen, the fungus provides the holdfast.
E. Lichens are important soil producers.
B. Lichens are parasites
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. Plasmogamy - union of two haploid cells.
B. Karyogamy - fusion of nuclei.
C. Meiosis - cell division resulting in haploid cells.
D. Anamorph - produces asexual spores.
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. Thallus - hyphae
B. Aerial mycelium - vegetative mycelium
C. Coenocytic - lacking cross-walls
D. Septate - with cross-walls
E.
B. Aerial mycelium - vegetative mycelium
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Fungi produce sexual spores.
B. Fungi produce asexual spores.
C. Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.
D. Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.
E. Fungal spores are for reproduction.
D. Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.
All of the following statements about algae are true except
A. They use light as their energy source.
B. They use CO2 as their carbon source.
C. They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.
D. All are unicellular.
E. Some are capable of sexual reproduction.
D. All are unicellular.
Which of the following is not caused by an alga?
A. Domoic acid intoxication
B. Possible estuary-associated syndrome
C. Cyclosporidial diarrhea
D. Paralytic shellfish poisoning
E. Ciguatera
C. Cyclosporidial diarrhea
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
A. Cause diseases.
B. Are found in a certain location on the host.
C. Are acquired by direct contact.
D. Are present for a relatively short time.
E. None of the above.
D. Are present for a relatively short time
Match the type of organism with its molecular oxygen requirement. 1. capnophile
2. obligate anaerobe
3. aerotolerant anaerobe
4. obligate aerobe
5. facultative anaerobe
6. microaerophile


A. requires oxygen
B. harmed by molecular oxygen, grow in atmosphere without molecular oxygen
C. use oxygen when available but also able to grow without oxygen
D. requires increased carbon dioxide
E. grow without oxygen but are not harmed by its presence
F. grow in LOW oxygen concentrations (lower than room air)
Correct Answer: A:4, B:2, C:5, D:1, E:3, F:6
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. Psychrotroph - growth at 0eC
B. Thermophile - growth at 37eC
C. Mesophile - growth at 25eC
D. Psychrophile - growth at 15eC
E. None of the above
B. Thermophile - growth at 37eC
Which organism produces catalase and superoxide dismutase?
A. Aerotolerant anaerobe
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Aerobe
C. Aerobe
Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans?
A. Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B. Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
C. Aerobic, helical bacteria
D. Gram-positive cocci
E. None of the above
B. Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?
A. Glucose consumption
B. Direct microscopic count
C. MPN
D. Turbidity
E. Standard plate count
A. Glucose consumption
The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as
A. Electron donors to reduce CO2.
B. Electron acceptors.
C. Energy sources.
D. Carbon sources.
E. All of the above.
D. Carbon sources.
Which of the following do you expect to be most resistant to high temperatures?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Streptococcocus pyogenes
D. Eschericia coli
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Bacillus subtilis
Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?
A. 4
B. 72
C. 9
D. 18
E. 36
E. 36
All of the following are direct methods to measure microbial growth except
A. Direct microscopic count.
B. Metabolic activity.
C. Filtration.
D. MPN.
E. Standard plate count.
B. Metabolic activity
Cyanobacteria are an example of this type.
A. Chemoautotroph
B. Chemoheterotroph
C. Photoautotroph
D. Photoheterotroph
E. None of the above
C. Photoautotroph
When oxygen is unavailable, Halobacterium produces ATP by
A. Fermentation.
B. Photophosphorylation.
C. Oxidative phosphorylation.
D. Substrate-level phosphorylation.
E. The Krebs cycle.
B. Photophosphorylation
In order to be synthesized, which of the following organic compounds need a source of usable nitrogen? (more than one answer may be selected)
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. protein
D. nucleic acids
C. protein
D. nucleic acids
Nitrogen fixation
A. Requires aerobic conditions.
B. Requires anaerobic conditions.
C. The amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference.
B. Requires anaerobic conditions.
Which of the following terms describes NH4+ > NO2- > NO3-?
A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. None of the above
C. Nitrification
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are capable of
A. Ammonification.
B. Denitrification.
C. Nitrification.
D. Nitrogen fixation.
E. None of the above
C. Nitrification
Which of the following is not a symbiotic pair of organisms?
A. Orchid and mycorrhizae
B. Bean plant and Rhizobium
C. Elk and rumen bacteria
D. Sulfur and Thiobacillus
E. Onions and arbuscules
D. Sulfur and Thiobacillus
Which of the following organisms is using sulfur as a source of energy?
A. Thiobacillus: H2S > S0
B. Desulfovibrio: SO4 2- > H2S
C. Proteus: Amino acids > H2S
D. Redwood tree: SO42- > Amino acids
E. None of the above
A. Thiobacillus: H2S > S0
Which of the following terms describes NO3- > N2?
A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. None of the above
B. Denitrification
Which of the following terms describes Amino acids (-NH2) > NH3?
A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. None of the above
A. Ammonification
Which wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage?
A. Anaerobic sludge digestion
B. Primary sewage treatment
C. Secondary sewage treatment
D. Tertiary sewage treatment
E. Water treatment
C. Secondary sewage treatment
The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Stay the same.
D. Can't tell.
A. Increase
This process is done by Rhizobium and certain cyanobacteria:
A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. None of the above
D. Nitrogen fixation
Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of
A. The number of bacteria present in a water sample.
B. The amount of oxygen present in a water sample.
C. The amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
D. The amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample.
E. All of the above.
C. The amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
Which of the following terms describes N2 > NH3?
A. Ammonification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Nitrogen fixation
E. None of the above
D. Nitrogen fixation
Bioremediation of petroleum
A. Takes place under aerobic conditions.
B. Takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C. The amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference
A. Takes place under aerobic conditions.
Match the following choices to the statements below:1. naturally acquired active immunity
2. artifically acquired active immunity
3. artifically acquired passive immunity
4. naturally acquired passive immunity
5. innate immunity


A. The type of protection a person needs after being bitten by a poisonous snake
B. The type of protection a Peace Corps volunteer has after being vaccinated
C. The type of protection a person has after recovering from mumps
D. The type of protection an newborn receives from its mother
E. A human's protection against feline leukemia
Correct Answer: A:3, B:2, C:1, D:4, E:5
Endotoxins are
A. Associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B. Specific in their method of action.
C. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D. Excreted from the cell.
E. None of the above.
C. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.
3. Which of the following organisms doesn't produce an exotoxin?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Salmonella typhi
The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
A. Kill microorganisms.
B. Remove microorganisms from body cavities.
C. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
D. Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.
E. All of the above
C. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
All of the following can be determined from a differential white blood cell count except
A. The number of white blood cells.
B. The numbers of each type of white blood cell.
C. The possibility of a state of disease.
D. All of the above can be determined
D. All of the above can be determined
Lysozyme is not found in
A. Tears.
B. Saliva.
C. Perspiration.
D. Nasal secretions.
E. None of the above.
E. None of the above
Chill is a sign that
A. Body temperature is falling.
B. Body temperature is rising.
C. Body temperature will remain the same.
D. Sweating will follow.
E. None of the above
B. Body temperature is rising.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. There are no more than twenty complement proteins.
B. All of the complement proteins are activated in serum.
C. Factors B and D are complement proteins.
D. Complement activity is antigen specific.
E. Complement increases after immunization
C. Factors B and D are complement proteins
The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A. complexes from the bacteria and C3b.
B. C5-C9.
C. Antigen-antibody reactions.
D. Factors released from phagocytes.
E. Factors released from damaged tissues.
A. complexes from the bacteria and C3b
Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from
A. Complement.
B. Histamine.
C. Interferon.
D. Phagocytic digestion.
E. Phagocytic ingestion
D. Phagocytic digestion
The specificity of an antibody is due to
A. Its valence.
B. The H chains.
C. The L chains.
D. The constant portions of the H and L chains.
E. The variable portions of the H and L chains.
E. The variable portions of the H and L chains.
Match the definition with the term
1. sequela
2. sign
3. symptom


A. a change due to a disease that may be observed and measured
B. a change in body function that is felt by a patient as a result of a disease
C. a condition following and resulting from a disease
Correct Answer: A:2, B:3, C:1
Match the following conditions and infections:
1. chronic
2. subclinical
3. acute


A. A patient experiences a rapid onset of malaise: symptoms last 5 days
B. Patient experiences cough and breathing difficulties for months
C. Patient has no apparent symptoms and is not a carrier
Correct Answer: A:3, B:1, C:2
Match the definition with the term regarding the extent to which a host's body is affected by infection or disease.
1. toxemia
2. bacteremia
3. systemic infection
4. viremia
5. local infection
6. septemia


A. microorganisms are limited to a relatively small area of the body
B. microorganisms or their products are spread throughout the body
C. bacteria in the blood
D. bacteria multiplying in the blood
E. presence of toxins in the blood
F. presence of virus in the blood
Correct Answer: A:5, B:3, C:2, D:6, E:1, F:4
Which of the following is not a reservoir of infection?
A. A sick person
B. A healthy person
C. A sick animal
D. Soil
E. All of the above can be reservoirs of infection
E. All of the above can be reservoirs of infection
Which of the following is a fomite?
A. Water
B. Droplets from a sneeze
C. Pus
D. Insects
E. A hypodermic needle
E. A hypodermic needle
Which of the following is least effective in preventing nosocomial infections?
A. Aseptic technique
B. Culturing fomites in a hospital to ensure sterility
C. Keeping insects out of hospitals
D. Sterilizing bandages
E. Disinfecting respirators
C. Keeping insects out of hospitals
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. Malaria - vector
B. Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission
C. Syphilis - direct contact
D. Influenza - droplet transmission
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
All of the following can contribute to postoperative infections except
A. Using syringes more than once.
B. Normal microbiota on the operating room staff.
C. Errors in aseptic technique.
D. Antibiotic resistance.
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
A sexually transmitted disease.
A. Direct contact
B. Droplet transmission
C. Fomite
D. Vector
E. Vehicle transmission
A. Direct contact
The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans.
A. Direct contact
B. Droplet transmission
C. Fomite
D. Vector
E. Vehicle transmission
B. Droplet transmission
Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of
A. Antagonism.
B. Commensalism.
C. Parasitism.
D. Synergism.
E. None of the above
B. Commensalism
Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except
A. Antibiotic resistance.
B. Climatic changes.
C. Digging up soil.
D. Microbes trying to cause disease.
E. Travel.
D. Microbes trying to cause disease
Match the following microbes to their description
1. Unicellular prokaryotes, cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
2. Photosynthetic
3. Molds and yeasts, important decomposers of organic materials
4. Multicellular animals, parasitic worms
5. Unicellular eukaryotes, amoeba, ciliates, and flagellates
6. Acellular particles
7. Unicellular prokaryotes, found in extreme environments, cell wall lacks peptidoglycan


A. Protozoa
B. Cyanobacteria and Algae
C. Archaea
D. Viruses
E. Bacteria
F. Helminths
G. Fungi
Correct Answer: A:5, B:2, C:7, D:6, E:1, F:4, G:3
Match the speciality area of microbiology with its description

1. Study of bacteria
2. Study of the body's defense against pathogenic microbes
3. The use of microbes to remove an environmental pollutant
4. The study of fungi
5. The study of viruses
6. The industrial application of microorganisms, cells, or cell components to make a useful product
7. The science dealing with DNA and protein synthesis of living organisms


A. Bacteriology
B. Immunology
C. Bioremediation
D. Mycology
E. Virology
F. Biotechnology
G. Molecular Biology
Correct Answer: A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4, E:5, F:6, G:7
Which of the following is true about fungi?
A. All are prokaryotic.
B. All are multicellular.
C. All require organic material for growth.
D. All grow using sunlight and carbon dioxide.
E. All are plants
A. They have rigid cell walls
Which of the following is true about viruses?
A. They are not composed of cells.
B. They cannot metabolize nutrients.
C. They cannot reproduce themselves.
D. They have DNA or RNA.
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above
Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. van Leeuwenhoek
B. Hooke
C. Pasteur
D. Koch
E. None of the above
C. Pasteur
Who observed cells in plant material?
A. van Leeuwenhoek
B. Hooke
C. Pasteur
D. Koch
E. None of the above
B. Hooke
Who proved that microorganisms cause disease?
A. van Leeuwenhoek
B. Hooke
C. Pasteur
D. Koch
E. None of the above
D. Koch
Classification of organisms in the three domains is based on
A. Cell wall.
B. Number of cells.
C. Cell type.
D. Nutritional type.
E. Nucleus.
C. Cell type
Which of the following requirements was necessary for Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation?
A. Providing a food source that would support growth
B. Supplying air
C. Keeping microorganisms out
D. Removing microorganisms that were initially present
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following is not an example of biotechnology?
A. Bacterial production of French bread
B. Bacterial degradation of a dead animal
C. Bacterial production of yogurt
D. Bacterial production of vinegar
E. None of the above
B. Bacterial degradation of a dead animal
You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely
A. Has a peptidoglycan cell wall.
B. Has a cellulose cell wall.
C. Moves by pseudopods.
D. Is part of a multicellular animal
A. Has a peptidoglycan cell wall.
In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the
A. Domain.
B. Kingdom.
C. Genus.
D. Specific epithet.
E. None of the above
D. Specific epithet.
Fungi differ from bacteria because fungi
A. Have cell walls.
B. Have DNA.
C. Have a nucleus.
D. Spoil food.
E. None of the above.
C. Have a nucleus
Archaea differ from bacteria because archaea
A. Lack peptidoglycan.
B. Lack nuclei.
C. Use organic compounds for food.
D. Reproduce by binary fission.
E. None of the above.
A. Lack peptidoglycan
Match the prokaryotic cellular structure with its function

1. Ribosomes
2. Cell Wall
3. Flagella
4. Chromosomes and Plasmids
5. Fimbriae and Capsule
6. Plasma [Cell] Membrane
7. Pili [Conjugating Pili]


A. attachment to surfaces enable adherence
B. gives shape and rigidity to cell, protects from osmotic lysis
C. selective permeability, controls the entrance and exit of molecules
D. motility (movement)
E. protein synthesis
F. transfer of genetic material
G. contain DNA (genetic information)
Correct Answer: A:5, B:2, C:6, D:3, E:1, F:7, G:4
Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Golgi complex
D. Vacuole
E. Cell wall
B. Mitochondrion
Which of the following best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl, a hypertonic solution?
A. Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
B. The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C. Water will move out of the cell.
D. Water will move into the cell.
E. No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
C. Water will move out of the cell.
Which of the following cell structures is directly involved in the initiation of disease?
A. Gram-positive cell wall
B. Cilia
C. Cell membrane
D. Fimbriae
E. All of the above
D. Fimbriae
6. By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Extracellular enzymes
E. Any of the above
C. Active transport
Mad cow disease is caused by a prion which is an infectious
A. Piece of DNA.
B. Lipid
C. Piece of RNA.
D. Protein
E. Sugar
D. Protein
Which of the following is not true about a gram-positive cell wall?
A. It maintains the shape of the cell.
B. It is sensitive to lysozyme.
C. It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
D. It contains teichoic acids.
E. None of the above.
C. It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in
A. Chloroplasts.
B. Cytoplasm.
C. Chromatophores.
D. Mesosomes.
E. None of the above.
C. Chromatophores
Which of the following is generally not true of prokaryotic cells?
A. They have a semirigid cell wall.
B. They are motile by means of flagella.
C. They possess 80S ribosomes.
D. They reproduce by binary fission.
E. None of the above.
C. They possess 80S ribosomes.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Endospores are for reproduction.
B. Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes.
C. Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
D. A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
E. A cell can produce many endospores.
B. Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes.
Which of the following substances is not an enzyme?

A. Dehydrogenase
B. Cellulase
C. Coenzyme A
D. b-galactosidase
C. Coenzyme A
How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 34
D. 38
E. 76
D. 38
Which of the following is not true about anaerobic respiration?
A. It involves glycolysis only.
B. It involves the Krebs cycle.
C. It involves the reduction of nitrate.
D. It generates ATP.
E. It requires cytochromes
A. It involves glycolysis only.
Which of the following is not an end-product of fermentation?
A. Lactic acid
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Glycerol
D. Pyruvic acid
E. Acetone
D. Pyruvic acid
A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy
A. By glycolysis only.
B. By aerobic respiration only.
C. By fermentation or aerobic respiration.
D. Only in the absence of oxygen.
E. Only in the presence of oxygen.
A. By glycolysis only.
Has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon.
A. Chemoautotroph
B. Chemoheterotroph
C. Photoautotroph
D. Photoheterotroph
D. Photoheterotroph
Assume you are working for a chemical company and you are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethyl alcohol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. The most likely explanation is
A. The maltose is toxic.
B. O2 is in the medium.
C. Not enough protein is provided.
D. Yeasts don't produce ethyl alcohol.
B. O2 is in the medium.
An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP; this is an example of
A. Allosteric inhibition.
B. Competitive inhibition.
C. Feedback inhibition.
D. Noncompetitive inhibition.
E. Turnover rate.
A. Allosteric inhibition
According to the video microbes will always become resistant to antibiotics. One process that helps organisms become resistant is over prescribing antibiotics. What percentage of antibiotics are over prescribed by family physicians?
A. 30 to 40%
B. 5 to 10%
C. 85%
D. 0%
A. 30 to 40%
Which of the following statements is false?
A. DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only.
B. The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
C. The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
D. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
E. Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
D. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called
A. An inducible enzyme.
B. A repressible enzyme.
C. A restriction enzyme.
D. An operator.
E. A promoter.
A. An inducible enzyme.
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the
A. End-product must not be in excess.
B. Substrate must bind to the enzyme.
C. Substrate must bind to the repressor.
D. Repressor must bind to the operator.
E. Repressor must not be synthesized.
C. Substrate must bind to the repressor.
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by
A. The allosteric transition.
B. The substrate binding to the repressor.
C. The corepressor binding to the operator.
D. The corepressor-repressor binding to the operator.
E. The end-product binding to the promoter.
D. The corepressor-repressor binding to the operator.
The mechanism by which the presence of lactose controls the lactose operon.
A. Catabolic repression
B. Translation
C. DNA polymerase
D. Repression
E. Induction
E. Induction
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy?
A. The primary structure of the protein
B. The secondary structure of the protein
C. The tertiary structure of the protein
D. The quaternary structure of the protein
E. Can't tell
A. The primary structure of the protein
An enzyme that covalently bonds nucleotide sequences in DNA is
A. RNA polymerase.
B. DNA ligase.
C. Restriction enzyme.
D. Transposase.
E. DNA polymerase.
B. DNA ligase.
The lac operon
A. Produces repressible enzymes.
B. Produces constitutive enzymes.
C. Produces inducible enzymes.
D. None of the above.
E.
C. Produces inducible enzymes.
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase.

A. DNA -> mRNA
B. mRNA -> cDNA
C. mRNA ->protein
D. DNA -> DNA
E. None
B. mRNA -> cDNA
If you have inserted a gene in the Ti, the next step in genetic engineering is
A. Transformation of E. coli with Ti.
B. Splicing Ti into a plasmid.
C. Transformation of an animal cell.
D. Inserting Ti into Agrobacterium.
E. None of the above
D. Inserting Ti into Agrobacterium
E. coli can be engineered to make insulin for purification and use in the treatment of diabetes because
A. It needs to regulate its cell-glucose level.
B. It's an ancient gene that now has no function.
C. The insulin gene was inserted into it.
D. It picked up the insulin gene from another cell.
C. The insulin gene was inserted into it.
Different pieces of DNA representing the pieces of the a genome of an organism and is stored in bacterial cells are called a

A. Library.
B. Clone.
C. Vector.
D. Southern blot.
E. PCR.
A. Library
Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
A. Library.
B. Clone.
C. Vector.
D. Southern blot.
E. PCR.
C. Vector
A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is
A. Southern blot.
B. Shotgun sequencing.
C. Transformation.
D. Cloning.
A. Southern blot.
Which of the following techniques is used to alter one amino acid in protein?
A. Cloning
B. PCR
C. Restriction enzymes
D. Selection
E. Site-direct mutagenesis
E. Site-direct mutagenesis
A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
B. Thermus aquaticus.
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D. Bacillus thuringiensis.
E. Pseudomonas
B. Thermus aquaticus
Which organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid?
A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Thermus aquaticus
C. Saccharomyces cervisiae
D. Bacillus thuringiensis
E. Pseudomonas
A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
An example of gene therapy is
A. Insertion of the insulin gene in E. coli.
B. Insertion of the insulin gene in a mammalian cell culture.
C. Insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells.
D. Injection of insulin into a diabetic person.
E. None of the above.
C. Insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells.
The purpose of using an antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes

A. Replica plating possible.
B. Direct selection possible.
C. The recombinant cell dangerous.
D. The recombinant cell unable to survive.
E. All of the above.
B. Direct selection possible.
A specific gene can be directly inserted into a cell by all of the following except
A. Protoplast fusion.
B. a gene gun.
C. Microinjection.
D. Electroporation.
E. Agrobacterium
A. Protoplast fusion
Restriction enzymes are
A. Bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.
B. Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
C. Animal enzymes that splice RNA.
D. Viral enzymes that destroy host DNA.
B. Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
The best definition of biotechnology is
A. The development of genetic engineering.
B. The use of living organisms to make desired products.
C. Curing diseases.
D. The use of microorganisms in sewage treatment.
E. All of the above
B. The use of living organisms to make desired products
The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to

A. Human DNA.
B. T. aquaticus DNA.
C. A mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA.
D. Human RNA.
E. T. aquaticus RNA.
A. Human DNA.
Match the term with its definition
1. taxa
2. taxonomy
3. binomial nomenclature
4. phylogeny


A. Study of classification
B. The system of having two names (genus and specific epithet) for each organism
C. Study of evolutionary relationships
D. Categories used to show degrees of similarities among organisms
Correct Answer: A:2, B:3, C:4, D:1
The endosymbiotic theory (a model for the evolution of eukaryotes) states that organelles arose from prokaryotic cells living inside a host prokaryote. Select ALL the eukaryotic organelles that are shown to contain rRNA closely related to prokaryoic rRNA (select ALL that apply).

A. ribosomes
B. chloroplasts
C. nucleus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
E. mitochondria
F. Golgi body
B. chloroplasts
E. mitochondria
All of the following are true about archaea except
A. They are prokaryotes.
B. They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C. Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D. They evolved before bacteria.
E. Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
D. They evolved before bacteria.
Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?
A. Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids
B. Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
C. Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
D. Complex cellular structures
E. Multicellular
C. Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
The outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi is
A. All members are photosynthetic.
B. Absorption of dissolved organic matter.
C. Absorption of dissolved inorganic matter.
D. All members are microscopic.
E. All members are macroscopic.
B. Absorption of dissolved organic matter.
All of the following are true about the members of the Kingdom Plantae except
A. They are multicellular.
B. They have eukaryotic cells.
C. They can photosynthesize.
D. They use organic carbon sources to make inorganic carbon molecules.
E. They use inorganic energy sources to make organic molecules.
D. They use organic carbon sources to make inorganic carbon molecules.
A genus can best be defined as
A. A taxon composed of families.
B. A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family.
C. A taxon belonging to a species.
D. A taxon comprised of classes.
E. The most specific taxon.
B. A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family.
In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the
A. Specific epithet.
B. Genus.
C. Family.
D. Order.
E. Kingdom.
B. Genus.
The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A. Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
B. Shows relationships to common ancestors.
C. Was designed by Charles Darwin.
D. Is arbitrary.
E. Is based on evolution

A. Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following?
A. Peptidoglycan cell walls.
B. Methionine is the start signal for protein synthesis.
C. Sensitive to antibiotics
D. Possess prokaryotic cells.
E. None of the above
D. Possess prokaryotic cells
Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that
A. The strands of DNA can be separated.
B. A chromosome is composed of complementary strands.
C. Pairing between complementary bases occurs.
D. DNA is composed of genes.
E. None of the above.
C. Pairing between complementary bases occurs.
Which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related?
A. If both ferment lactose.
B. If both are gram-positive.
C. If both are motile.
D. If both are aerobic.
E. All are equally important.
B. If both are gram-positive
Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
A. Animalia
B. Archaea
C. Bacteria
D. Fungi
E. Plantae
D. Fungi
Which of the following is the best evidence that two organisms are closely related?
A. Both are cocci.
B. Both ferment lactose.
C. Their DNA can hybridize.
D. Both normally live in clams.
E. All of the above.
C. Their DNA can hybridize.
In which of the following ways do viruses differ from bacteria?

A. A) Viruses can be removed by filtration.
B. B) Viruses are not obligate intracellular parasites.
C. C) Viruses don't have any nucleic acid.
D. D) Viruses are not composed of cells
E. E) Viruses don't reproduce.
D. D) Viruses are not composed of cells
Which of the following is NOT a method of culturing viruses?

A. A) in laboratory animals
B. B) In culture media
C. C) In embryonated eggs
D. D) In cell culture
E. E) None of the above
B. B) In culture media
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ signifantly in which of the following steps?

A. A) Adsorption
B. B) Penetration
C. C) Uncoating
D. D) Biosynthesis
E. E) Release
D. D) Biosynthesis
A persistent infection is an infection in which

A. A) The virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing disease.
B. B) Viral replication is unusually slow.
C. C) The disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
D. D) Host cells are gradually lysed.
E. E) Host cells are transformed.
C. C) The disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a

A. A) Phage.
B. B) Pock.
C. C) Cell lysis.
D. D) Plaque.
E. E) Rash
D. D) Plaque
A viral species is a group of viruses that

A. A) Have the same morphology and nucleic acid.
B. B) Have the same genetic information and ecological niche.
C. C) Infect the same cells and cause the same disease.
D. D) Can't be defined.
E. E) Have different morphology and nucleic acid.
B. B) Have the same genetic information and ecological niche.
Which of the following contributes to the difficulty in establishing the etiology of cancer?

A. A) Most viral particles can infect cells without inducing cancer.
B. B) Cancer may not develop until long after infection.
C. C) Cancers do not seem to be contagious
D. D) Viruses are difficult to observe.
E. E) All of the above
E. E) All of the above
Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?

A. A) They are not composed of cells.
B. B) They are filterable.
C. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
D. D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
E. E) They are chemically simple.
C. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
Put the following in the correct order for bacterial virus replication:

1-Maturation; 2-DNA synthesis; 3-Transcription; 4-Translation.

A. A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B. B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C. C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D. D) 4, 1, 2, 3
E. E) 4, 3, 2, 1
B. B) 2, 3, 4, 1
An infectious protein is a

A. A) Bacteriophage.
B. B) Prion
C. C) Retrovirus.
D. D) Viroid.
E. E) Papilovirus.
B. B) Prion
Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT

A. A) Immunity to reinfection by the same phage.
B. B) Acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell.
C. C) Immunity to reinfection by other phage types.
D. D) Transduction of specific genes.
E. E) None of the above
C. C) Immunity to reinfection by other phage types.
Which of the following statements is false?

A. A) A prophage is a phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome.
B. B) A prophage can pop out of the chromosome.
C. C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage.
D. D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell.
E. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other unrelated phages.
E. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other unrelated phages.
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?

A. A) Capsid proteins
B. B) DNA polymerase
C. C) Envelope proteins
D. D) Spike proteins
E. E) Lysozyme
B. B) DNA polymerase
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

A. A) Penetration
B. B) Adsorption
C. C) Uncoating
D. D) Biosynthesis
E. E) Release
E. E) Release
Which of the following statements about spikes on viruses is false?

A. A) They are used for penetration.
B. B) They are used for adsorption.
C. C) They may cause hemagglutination.
D. D) They are found only on enveloped viruses.
E. E) They never play a role in attachment.
A. A) They are used for penetration.
According to Carl Woese, all life can be classified into three groups:

A. Animalae, Plantae, Microbes
B. Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, viruses
C. Bacteria, Fungi, Protozoa
D. Bacteria, Archeae, Eukarya
E. Carnivores, Herbivores, Omnivores
D. Bacteria, Archeae, Eukarya
The germ theory of disease was proven by:
A. Koch
B. Lister
C. Bassi
D. Pasteur
A. Koch
Which one of the following is an example of bioremediation
A. Use of Saccharomyces cerevisiae to make wine
B. Use of Bacillis thuringiensis to kill crop eating insects
C. Use of Pseudomonas to remove uranium from soil at weapons depots
D. Use of cowpox virus to vaccinate against smallpox virus
C. Use of Pseudomonas to remove uranium from soil at weapons depots
All of the following are beneficial uses of microorganisms except which one
A. Recycling elements in the environment
B. Decomposing sewage
C. Producing foods and chemicals
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
All of the following statements are true about the plasma membrane except which
A. Peripheral proteins catalyze chemical reactions
B. Integral proteins make channels in the membrane
C. Small ions can easily cross the membrane
D. Lipids easily move across the membrane
C. Small ions can easily cross the membrane
All of the following are produced naturally by microorganisms except which one:
A. Silk
B. Acetone
C. Butyl alcohol
D. Ethyl alcohol
A. Silk
You work for a chemical company and you are responsible for growing a bacterial culture that produces acetone. The bacteria are growing well in a glucose medium but are not producing acetone. The most likely reason is
A. The bacteria are dead
B. Molecular oxygen is in the medium
C. The cells cannot use the glucose
D. The cells are fermenting the glucose
B. Molecular oxygen is in the medium
Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact
A. transduction
B. transformation
C. conjugation
D. mutation
C. conjugation
Which of the following can be used as vectors in genetic engineering
A. plasmids
B. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
C. viruses
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Sequencing a genome provides
A. the order of nucleotides
B. the gene sequence
C. proteins expressed by the cell
D. restriction fragments
A. the order of nucleotides
Assume you have isolated a bacterium that produces a useful antibiotic but at a low rate. One way to try and increase the rate of antibiotic production is
A. expose the bacteria to a mutagen
B. isolate the gene for antibiotic production
C. insert the gene for antibiotic production into another organism
D. culture the bacteria
A. expose the bacteria to a mutagen
Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in
A. rRNA sequences.
B. Metabolic type.
C. Motility.
D. Ecology.
E. None of the above.
A. rRNA sequences
Sar 11 is
A. a bacterium found in deep sea vents
B. a virus found in the ocean
C. a bacterium found in the ocean that can photosynthesize and is easy to culture
D. a rare bacterium found in the ocean
E. a common bacterium found in the ocean that is difficult to culture
E. a common bacterium found in the ocean that is difficult to culture
In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in
A. Chloroplasts
B. Chromatophores
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mesosomes
E. None of the above
B. Chromatophores
You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next?
A. Gram stain
B. Lactose fermentation
C. Endospore stain
D. Flagella stain
E. Enterotube
C. Endospore stain
Which is not a characteristic of bacteria?
A. Individual cells of bacteria may form pairs, chains, clusters or other groupings
B. Bacteria have cell walls containing chitin.
C. Bacteria have genetic material not enclosed in a membrane.
D. Bacteria are single celled.
E. Bacteria generally divide via binary fission.
B. Bacteria have cell walls containing chitin.
Which is not a characteristic of the normal microbiota?
A. Often are called the Normal Flora.
B. Regularly associated with disease symptoms.
C. Live within our bodies.
D. May benefit the human host.
E. Live on our bodies.
B. Regularly associated with disease symptoms.
Which of the following is not correctly matched
A. Parasitology - study of pathogens
B. Bacteriology - study of E. coli O157:H7
C. Mycology - study of athletes foot
D. Immunology - study of vaccines
A. Parasitology - study of pathogens
In the scientific name Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the
A. Genus
B. Family
C. Species
D. Class
A. Genus
The laboratory and medical procedures employed to prevent microbial contamination are called:
A. Bioremediation
B. Sterilisation
C. Koch's postulates
D. Aseptic techniques
D. Aseptic techniques
Development of tests to identify Hantavirus showed that this virus
A. also caused Creutzfeld -Jacob Syndrome.
B. was responsible for bloody diarrhea syndrome.
C. is associated with AIDS.
D. is similar to the invasive group A Streptococcus.
E. came to North America with the first rats from the Old World.
E. came to North America with the first rats from the Old World.
You have isolated a cell that lacks a membrane-enclosed nucleus. You would find all of the following structures except which one
A. A ribosome
B. Peptidoglycan
C. A chromosome
D. A lysosome
D. A lysosome
You have isolated a cell with a peptidoglycan cell wall. What other structure can you safely assume the cell has
A. A mitochondrion
B. A plasma membrane
C. A chloroplast
D. A nucleus
B. A plasma membrane
Which of the following statements about a gram-negative cell wall is not true
A. It protects the cell from osmotic lysis
B. It maintains the shape of the cell
C. It contains an endotoxin
D. It has teichoic acids
D. It has teichoic acids
In a prokaryotic cell, all of the following are functions of the glycocalyx except which one
A. Attachment to enviromental surface
B. Protection against dehydration
C. Protection from phagocytosis
D. Toxic to humans
D. Toxic to humans
Which of the following stages of glucose oxidation requires molecular oxygen
A. production of acetyl CoA
B. Krebs cycle
C. oxidative phosphorylation
D. glycolysis
C. oxidative phosphorylation
Nitrobacter bacteria use carbon dioxide for their carbon source and nitrite ions as an energy source. This organism is a
A. chemoheterotroph
B. chemoautotroph
C. photoheterotroph
D. photoautotroph
B. chemoautotroph
Placing the DNA from an animal cell into the genome of a bacterium will allow the bacterium to produce an animal product. This new piece of DNA is referred to as
A. The genetic code.
B. The hereditary material.
C. Recombinant DNA
D. An enzyme
E. Conjugation product.
C. Recombinant DNA