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150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
All of the following is correct about treating viral disease except
viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria
A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria
B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication
C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects
D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections
E. All of the choices are correct
T-even phages
infect Escherichia coli cells
A. include the poxviruses
B. infect Escherichia coli cells
C. enter host cells by engulfment
D. have helical capsids
E. all of the choices are correct
When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means
the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
A. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane
B. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid
C. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective
D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host
E. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent
These structures are used by bateriophages to attach to host cell receptors
tail fibers
A. sheath
B. tail fibers
C. nucleic acid
D. capsid head
E. none of the choices are correct
Which of the following represents a virus family name?
Herpesviridae
A. herpesviridae
B. Picornavirus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Enterovirus
E. Hepatitis B virus
Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
pocks
A. budding
B. pocks
C. lysogeny
D. plaques
E. cystopathic effects
Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
release
A. penetration
B. assembly
C. release
D. replication
E. adsorption
The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release
B. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration
C. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption
D. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release
E. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
Which is incorrect about prophages?
cause lysis of host cells
A. present when the virus is in lysogeny
B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C. occur when temperate phages enter host cells
D. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
E. cause lysis and host cells
Viruses have all the following except
metabolism
A. definite shape
B. metabolism
C. genes
D. ultramicroscopic size
E. ability to infect host cells.
Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms?
none of the choices are correct
A. Protists
B. Fungi
C. Archaea
D. Bacteria
E. None of the choices are correct
Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
capsid
A. capsid
B. spike
C. capsomere
D. core
E. envelope
Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered
naked viruses
A. naked viruses
B. simple viruses
C. complex viruses
D. incomplete viruses
E. viroids
Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
all of the choices are correct
A. inclusions in the nucleus
B. multinucleated gaint cells
C. inclusions in the cytoplasm
D. cells round up
E. viroids
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
latent
A. viroids
B. prions
C. oncogenic
D. latent
E. delta agents
Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
all of the choices are correct
A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication
B. involves enzymaticdestruction of the capsid
C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle
D. occurs before replication
E. all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
envelope
A. genome
B. nucleic acid
C. envelope
D. capsomers
E. capsid
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
blood agar
A. continuous cell cultures
B. embryonated bird eggs
C. blood agar
D. live lab animals
E. primary cell cultures
The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
cytopathic effects
A. plaques
B. pocks
C. lysogeny
D. budding
E. cytopathic effects
The core of every virus particle always contains
either DNA or RNA
A. capsomers
B. either DNA or RNA
C. DNA and RNA
D. DNA
E. enzymes
Infectious protein particles are called
prions
A. phages
B. oncogenic viruses
C. prions
D. spikes
E. viroids
Which of the following is correct about viruses?
cannot be seen with a light microscope
A. are procaryotic
B. can be grown on nutrient agar
C. undergo binary fission
D. cannot be seen with light microsocpe
E. contain 70S ribosomes
Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present?
envelope
A. envelope
B. nucleic acid
C. capsid
D. capsomers
E. none of the choices are optional parts of a virus
Oncogenic viruses include all of the following except
measles virus
A. measles virus
B. hepatitis B virus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. papillomavirus
E. HTLVI and HTLVII virus
Virus capsids are made from subunits called
capsomeres
A. peplomers
B. capsomeres
C. spikes
D. envelopes
E. prophages
Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
nervous
A. circulatory
B. nervous
C. respiratory
D. genitourinary
E. digestive
The nucleocapsid consists of
the nucleic acid along with the capsid
A. the envelope and capsid
B. the nucleic acid along with the capsid
C. the capsomers assembled into the capsid
D. the evelope, nucleic acid and capsid
E. the nucleic acid of the virus only
Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
a spongiform encephalopathy of humans
A. also called "mad cow disease"
B. caused by a chronic latent virus
C. caused by viroid
D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans
E. initiated by an oncogenic virus
The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
A. host cell of nucleocapsids
B. assembly of nucleocapsids
C. adsorption to the host cells
D. replication of viral nucleic acid
E. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
are located between the capsid and nucleic acid
A. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid
B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane
C. help the virus particle attach to host cells
D. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane
E. contain special virus proteins
All of the following are characteristics of viruses except
they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids
A. they oftern have a geometric capsid
B. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids
C. they can cause mild disease
D. they can be crystallized
E. they can cause fatal disease
Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
biochemical reactions
A. type of capsid
B. nucleic acid strand number
C. presence of an evelope
D. biochemical reactions
E. type of nucleic acid
Host cells of viruses include
all of the choices are correct
A. humans and other animals
B. plants and fungi
C. bacteria
D. protozoa and algae
E. all of the choices are correct
Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a cluture are called
plaques
A. budding
B. lysogeny
C. pocks
D. cytopathic effects
E. plaques
Host range is limited by
types of host cell receptors on cell membrane
A. type of nucleic acid in the virus
B. age of the host cell
C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D. size of the host cell
E. all of the choices are correct
A microorganism that does not have catalase of superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an enviroment with
oxygen
A. high salt
B. carbon dioxide
C. high acidity
D. temperatures above 37° C
E. oxygen
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the
stationary phase
A. lag phase
B. log phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase
E. all of the choices are correct
A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an
thermoduric
A. thermoduric
B. facultative psychrophile
C. extremophile
D. thermophile
E. psychrophile
The stage in a normal growth curve when cells reach the maximum rate of cell division is the
log phase
A. fast phase
B. log phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase
E. lag phase
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
diffusion
A. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. osmosis
D. facilitated diffusion
E. diffusion
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an
facultative anaerobe
A. facultative anaerobe
B. anaerobe
C. microaerophile
D. capnophile
E. aerobe
The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
endocytosis
A. facilitated diffusion
B. active transport
C. diffusion
D. osmosis
E. endocytosis
Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of
synergism
A. mutalism
B. antagonism
C. parasitism
D. synergism
E. commensalism
The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following except
the decrease in temperature of the culture
A. the depletion of oxygen
B. the depletion of nutrients
C. the decrease in temperature of the culture
D. the excretion of organic acids
E. the excretion of biochemical pollutants
A halophile would grow best in
salt lakes
A. salt lakes
B. fresh water ponds
C. acid pools
D. hot geyser springs
E. arid, desert soil
Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate
high atmospheric pressure
A. high atmospheric pressure
B. intense ultraviolet light
C. a pH of 1 to 2
D. high osmotic pressure
E. high solute concentration
The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that
are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
A. are extremely cold
B. have sunlight
C. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
D. are very acidic
E. have abundant oxygen and CO2
A microaerophile
requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
A. grows best in an anaerobic jar
B. grows with or without oxygen
C. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
E. None of the choices are correct
The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
facilitated diffusion
A. active transport
B. facilitated diffusion
C. endocytosis
D. osmosis
E. diffusion
The term chemotroph refers to an organism that
gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
A. gets energy from sunlight
B. uses CO2 for its carbon source
C. does not need a carbon source
D. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
E. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be
anaerobic
A. anaerobic
B. facultative anaerobe
C. microaerophilic
D. aerobic
E. aerotolerant
The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
generation time
A. death phase
B. generation time
C. growth curve
D. culture time
E. binary fission
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture must be
facultative anaerobe
A. facultative anaerobe
B. aerotolerant
C. aerobic
D. microaerophilic
E. anaerobic
An organism that grows best at a higher CO2 tension than is normally present in the atmosphere is a(n)
capnophile
A. aerotolerant anaerobe
B. anaerobe
C. aerobe
D. facultative anaerobe
E. capnophile
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is
magnesium
A. zinc
B. iron
C. potassium
D. calcium
E. magnesium
Facultative anaerobes usually possess
both catalase and superoxide dismutase
A. neither catalase or superoxide dismutase
B. alternative mechanisms for dealing with oxygen
C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase
D. superoxide dismutase only
E. catalase ony
An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
growth factor
A. element
B. trace element
C. water
D. macronutrient
E. growth factor
An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an
thermophile
A. thermoduric
B. psychrophile
C. thermophile
D. facultative psychrophile
E. extremophile
Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called
osmosis
A. facilitated diffusion
B. diffusion
C. active transport
D. endocytosis
E. osmosis
The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called
active transport
A. osmosis
B. active transport
C. endocytosis
D. facilitated diffusion
E. diffusion
Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
protozoa
A. algae
B. bacteria
C. cyanobacteria
D. fungi
E. protozoa
Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
trace element
A. water
B. element
C. macronutrient
D. trace element
E. growth factorctor
The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen
occurs in certain bacteria
A. occurs in algae and plants
B. occurs in cyanobacteria
C. does not require sunlight
D. does not require CO2 as a reactant
E. occurs in certain bacteria
The term phototroph refers to an organism that
gets energy from sunlight
A. gets energy from sunlight
B. uses CO2 for its carbon source
C. does not need a carbon source
D. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
E. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between
pH 6 and 8
A. pH 7 and 9
B. pH 3 and 4
C. pH 5 and 6
D. pH 8 and 10
E. pH 6 and 8
Contractile vacuoles are
used to expel excess water from cells
A. used to expel excess water from cells
B. found in bacterial cells
C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments
D. protein carriers in cell membranes
E. None of the choices are correct
Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
macronutrient
A. water
B. element
C. trace element
D. macronutrient
E. growth factor
Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would
shrivel
A. be in a hypotonic solution
B. gain water
C. be in a isotonic solution
D. shrivel
E. None of the choices are correct
An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is
iron
A. zinc
B. calcium
C. iron
D. potassium
E. magnesium
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a ___ relationship.
mutualistic
A. parasitic
B. saprobic
C. commensal
D. mutualistic
E. none of the choices are correct
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
endocytosis
A. facilitated diffusion
B. diffusion
C. endocytosis
D. osmosis
E. none of the choices are correct
In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ___ represents one ___ from the sample.
colony, cell
A. cell, colony
B. colony, cell
C. species, colony
D. cell, cell
E. generation, cell
An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/an
facultative psychrophile
A. facultative psychrophile
B. psychrophile
C. thermoduric
D. thermophile
E. extremophile
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except
psychrophiles
A. mesophiles
B. capnophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. anaerobes
E. facultative anaerobes
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
psychrophile
A. halophile
B. capnophile
C. mesophile
D. psychrophile
E. anaerobe
Mixed acid fermentation
produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
A. produces butyric acid
B. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus
C. occurs in all bacteria
D. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
E. also produces ethanol
A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called
cofactors
A. substrates
B. apoenzymes
C. catalysts
D. cofactors
E. none of the choices are correct
Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it
blocks cytochrome c oxidase
A. stops the TCA cycle from turning
B. inhibits the ATP synthase
C. stops glycolysis
D. blocks cytochrome c oxidase
E. stops the electron transport chain at coenzyme Q
Enzymes are
proteins that function as catalysts
A. broken down in reactions that require energy input
B. proteins that function as catalysts
C. electron carrier molecules
D. not needed for catabolic reactions
E. all of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it
degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
A. occurs during fermentation
B. involves reduction of NAD
C. occurs without oxygen
D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
E. ends with formation of pyruvic acid
When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called
negative feedback
A. negative feedback
B. competitive inhibition
C. enzyme induction
D. enzyme repression
E. none of the choices are correct
Each FADH2 that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ___ ATP
2
A. 3
B. 36
C. 2
D. 38
E. 24
When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of
glucose
A. fat
B. vitamins
C. carbon
D. glucose
E. minerals
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate
ADP
A. oxygen
B. ADP
C. NAD
D. pyruvic acid
E. ATP
Enteric bacteria commonly occupy the human intestine and primarily produce
CO2 and H2 gasses
A. CO2 and H2 gasses
B. lactic acid
C. alcohol
D. butyric acid
E. methane gas
Exergonic reactions
occur during aerobic cellular respiration
A. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
B. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration
D. only occur in heterotrophs
E. include synthesis of large carbohydrates
In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the
cell membrane
A. mitochondria
B. cytoplasm
C. ribosomes
D. cell membrane
E. chloroplasts
Why is cyanide harmless to some bacteria?
They lack cytochrome c oxidase
A. Cyanide is deadly for all bacteria
B. They lack cytochrome c oxidase
C. They don't allow cyanide to cross their cell wall
D. They break down the cyanide before it enters the electron transport chain
E. They shut off the TCA cycle until the cyanide is diluted out of the cell
In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor exceptct
oxygen
A. nitrate
B. oxygen
C. sulfate
D. nitrite
E. none of the choices are correct
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is
oxygen
A. nitrate
B. pyruvic acid
C. cytochrome c
D. FAD
E. oxygen
Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called
oxidoreductases
A. aminotransferases
B. ligases
C. phosphotransferases
D. oxidoreductases
E. decarboxylases
An apoenzyme
contains the active site
A. is an RNA molecule
B. is often an inorganic metal ion
C. is also called a coenzyme
D. is part of a simple enzyme
E. contains the active site
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
electron transport
A. electron transport
B. Krebs cycle
C. glycolysis
D. processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle
E. all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.
All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called
metabolism
A. cellular respiration
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. redox reactions
E. phosphorylation
Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ___ ATP.
3
A. 3
B. 2
C. 36
D. 24
E. 38
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
2
A. 36 ATP
B. 3 ATP
C. 24 ATP
D. 2 ATP
E. 38 ATP
The reactions of fermentation function to produce ___ molecules for use in glycolysis
NAD
A. pyruvic acid
B. ATP
C. NADH
D. glucose
E. NAD
The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
an example of substrate-level phosphorylation
A. an example of oxidative phosphorylation
B. the final step of the Krebs cycle
C. the first redox reaction of the electron transport system
D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation
E. an example of photophosphorylation
In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place
in the cytoplasm
A. in the nucleus
B. in the endoplasmic reticulum
C. in the cell membrane
D. in the cytoplasm
E. in the mitochondria
Fatty acids can be metabolized by entering
the TCA cycle
A. the electron transport chain
B. lactic acid fermentation
C. the phosphogluconate pathway
D. glycolysis
E. the TCA cycle
Important components of coenzymes are
vitamins
A. ribozymes
B. metallic ions
C. vitamins
D. active sites
E. substrates
Most electron carriers are
coenzymes
A. coenzymes
B. enzymes
C. hydrogens
D. inorganic phosphate
E. all of the choices are correct
The process of alcoholic fermentation produces
alcohol and carbon dioxide
A. alcohol and carbon dioxide
B. alcohol only
C. carbon dioxide and yeast
D. yeast and oxygen
E. alcohol and oxygen
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated?
38 ATP
A. 38 ATP
B. 2 ATP
C. 24 ATP
D. 3 ATP
E. 36 ATP
Which of the following is NOT involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
A. reduction of NAD
B. coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
C. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid
E. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?
hydrogen protons
A. carbon dioxide
B. carbon
C. ADP
D. hydrogen protons
E. glucose
All of the following are exoenzymes except
ATP synthase
A. elastase
B. penicillinase
C. collagenase
D. ATP synthase
E. streptokinase
Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed
induced enzymes
A. exoenzymes
B. constitutive enzymes
C. conjugated enzymes
D. induced enzymes
E. endoenzymes
Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called
anabolism
A. exergonic
B. fermentation
C. phosphorylation
D. anabolism
E. glycolysis
In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place
in the mitochondria
A. in the nucleus
B. in the mitochondria
C. in the cytoplasm
D. in the endoplasmic reticulum
E. in the cell membrane
Bacterial conjugation involves
a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus
A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell
B. a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus
C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell
D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells
E. none of the choices are correct
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
nucleotides
A. polymerases
B. histones
C. nucleotides
D. amino acids
E. mRNA
Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one.
amino acid
A. protein
B. nucleotide
C. amino acid
D. purine
E. none of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
A. they include the lac operon
B. they are normally turned off
C. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
D. they are often for catabolic pathways
E. they are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
Which is incorrect about pyrimidines?
are only found in DNA, not in RNA
A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA
B. they are found within nucleotides
C. they are nitrogenous bases they
D. they include cytosine and thymine
E. they are always paired with a specific purine
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
replication fork
A. primer
B. template
C. replication fork
D. Okazaki fragment
E. rolling circle
Which of the following is incorrect about animal viruses?
replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus
A. host DNA polymerase often participates in viral DNA replication
B. host tRNA's are used in viral translation
C. viral mRNA is translated on host cell ribosomes
D. replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus
E. oncogenic viruses integrate their DNA into host DNA and can initiate cancer
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
all of the choices are correct
A. histone proteins
B. chromosomes in a nucleus
C. several to many chromosomes
D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes
E. all of the choices are correct
The Ames test is designed to
detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential
A. detect if a cell is infected by a virus
B. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential
C. detect the presence of a prophage in a cell
D. determine if a cell is resistant to an antibiotic
E. determine the rate of DNA replication in various bacterial species
A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
nonsense mutation
A. point mutation
B. missense mutation
C. silent mutation
D. nonsense mutation
E. back mutation
Semiconservative replication refers to
an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
E. none of the choices are correct
If the DNA sequence is ATTCCGGA, the mRNA transcript would be
UAAGGCCU
A. ATTCCGGA
B. UAAGGCCU
C. TAAGGCCT
D. CAAGGUTA
E. GUUAATTG
Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
the initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
A. it contains a binding site for an amino acid
B. the initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
C. the initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC
D. it has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon
E. an anticodon is complementary to a codon
The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the
regulator
A. operator
B. structural locus
C. regulator
D. promoter
E. none of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about purines?
only found in DNA, not in RNA
A. only found in DNA, not in RNA
B. include adenine and guanine
C. are nitrogenous bases
D. always paired with a specific pyrimidine
E. found within nucleotides
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
they include AUG
A. they include UAA, UAG, UGA
B. they are also called nonsense codons
C. they do not have corresponding tRNA
D. they include AUG
E. where the bond between the final tRNA and the polymerase is broken
This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated.
messenger RNA
A. ribosomal RNA
B. transfer RNA
C. primer RNA
D. messenger RNA
E. protein
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in
specialized transduction
A. bacterial conjugation
B. transformation
C. generalized transduction
D. specialized transduction
E. all of the choices are correct
Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa cannot repair mutations caused by
ultraviolet light
A. nitrous acid
B. acridine dyes
C. bisulfite
D. ultraviolet light
E. ethidium bromide
The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
transfer RNA
A. ribosomal RNA
B. ribozymes
C. primer RNA
D. transfer RNA
E. messenger RNA
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
all of the choices are correct
A. has ribose
B. has uracil
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides
D. does not have thymine
E. all of the choices are correct
The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except they
contains codons within their rRNA molecules
A. use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding
B. contain codons within their rRNA molecules
C. participate only in translation
D. bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit
E. shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next
A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an
intron
A. exon
B. intron
C. operator
D. promoter
E. operon
Split genes
use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons
A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region
D. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons
E. all of the choices are correct
Which type of mutation leads to a frameshift mutation?
deletion
A. missense
B. deletion
C. nonsense
D. base substitution
E. all of the choices are correct
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.
A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
E. none of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except
guanine pairs with uracil
A. adenine pairs with thymine
B. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines
C. allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information
D. guanine pairs with uracil
E. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding
The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
promoter
A. intron
B. operon
C. operator
D. promoter
E. exon
Much of what was previously thought to be "junk" DNA has been found to have which purpose?
it codes for RNA regulatory molecules
A. It codes for antibiotic resistance proteins
B. It codes for repressor proteins
C. It codes for RNA regulatory molecules
D. It codes for repair enzymes to fix mutations
E. none of the choices are correct
All of the following are true about mutations except
they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in
A. they can create variants in a population
B. they occur in the DNA
C. they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in
D. they may lead to an incorrect protein being made
E. if not repaired, they become part of the gene pool
All of the following pertain to transcription except it
occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
A. is part of the process of protein synthesis
B. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
C. occurs before translation
D. requires RNA polymerase
E. requires a template DNA strand
Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides?
DNA ligases
A. DNA helicases
B. DNA polymerases
C. DNA ligases
D. primases
E. DNA gyrases
Which of the following is not true about transposons?
they are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
A. They are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
B. They can move from a chromosome to a plasmid
C. They contain DNA that codes for their own removal and insertion
D. They can replicate themselves before jumping to the next location
E. They can move from a chromosome to another chromosome
Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
all of the choices are correct
A. chromosomes
B. plasmids
C. mitochondrial DNA
D. chloroplast DNA
E. all of the choices are correct
All of the following are products of transcription except
DNA
A. rRNA
B. mRNA
C. DNA
D. tRNA
E. all of the choices are products of transcription
Which enzyme is mismatched with its function in DNA replication?
RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers
A. DNA polymerase III - Adding bases to the new DNA chain
B. ligase - final sealing of DNA nicks in DNA
C. RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers
D. DNA polymerase I - removes primer
E. gyrase - supercoiling DNAe
The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are
DNA polymerases
A. DNA ligases
B. primases
C. DNA polymerases
D. DNA helicases
E. DNA gyrases
DNA polymerase III
synthesizes new DNA only in 5' to 3' direction
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis
B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand
D. synthesizes an RNA primer
E. all of the choices are correct
If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is
CGU
A. CGT
B. ACG
C. UGC
D. GCA
E. CGU
Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa lack a functioning
photolyase
A. DNA ligase
B. RNA polymerase
C. ribozyme
D. photolyase
E. DNA polymerase III