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296 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The growth of bacteria refers to an increase in_______ but not an increase in the _____ of the cells
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number, size
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most cells reproduce _______ by binary fisson
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asexually
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describe binary fission
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cell elongates and replicates its dna then cell wall grows inward and a crosswall is formed so the cell can seperate into 2
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what is the average generation time?
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1-3 hours
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what would happen if binary fission continued unchecked?
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cover the face of the earth
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what is generation time?
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time that elapses between the formation of a new cell to when the binary fissin process begins
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why is bacterial growth often expressed as logarithmic function?
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diffucult to plot and predict cell numbers without it
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what happens in the lag phase/
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little or no cell division, synthesizing enzymes, adapting to their environment
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what are some examples of indirect measuremnt?
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turbidity, dry weight, metabolic activity
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what are some examples of direct measurement
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plate counts, filtration, direct microscope count
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what happens in the log phase?
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rapid growth and cell division, most active metabolically. very sensitive to radiation and antibiotics
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what phase is also known as the exponential growth phase
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log
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what phase do symptoms in humans begin?
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log
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during the ________ phase cell death and division are about the same
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stationary
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during the stationary phase there is a build up of waste products that makes the environment _____
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toxic
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what happens during the death phase?
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more dead cells than dividing, toxic wastes have built up, nutrients are lacking
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what are some physical requirements for growth
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temp, ph, osmotic pressure
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where are mesophiles found and what temp do they like?
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human body, 10-50 celcius
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where are thermophiles found and what temp do they like?
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hot springs, 40-70 celcius
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where are psychrotrophs found and what temp do they like
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fridge 0-30 celcius
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where are psychophiles found and what is their optimum temp
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arctic, 15 celcius
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what is the ph range of acidophilles?
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1-5.5
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most organisms are what type of ph level
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neutrophiles
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what is the phrange of alkalophiles
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8.5-11.5
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molds and yeasts have an optimal ph of
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5.6
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______ help neutralize acid waste products produced by bacteria which can interfere with their own growth
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buffers
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microorganisms are made up of ____ to ____% water
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80-90
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when more solutes are outside the cell than inside, the cell is said to be
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hypertonic
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when the cell membrane shrinks and pulls away from the wall, it is a process called_______
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plasmolysis
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during plasmolysis the growth of cells is ______
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inhibited
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what are obligate halophiles
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organisms that require nacl for growth with the optimum being 3.5%
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organisms that can grow in a nacl solution but do not require that much salt
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faculative halphiles
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organisms that grow only when the salt concentration approaches saturation (30%)
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extreme halophiles
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adding salt will________ osmotic pressure
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increase
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distilled water has a ___ osmotic pressure and water will move ____ of the cell
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low, into
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normal saline solution has what percent NaCl?
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.85-.90%
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sea water has _____% salt
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3.5
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the great salt lake has ______% salt
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23
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what are some chemical requirements for microbial growth?
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carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorus, oxygen
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carbon has 2 types of organic compounds needed for all organic cells, what are they called?
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autotrophs and heterotrphs
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organisms that have co2 as their main carbon sourse
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autotroph
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organisms that obtain carbon from an organic source such as protein carbohydrate or lipid
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heterotroph
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nitrogen is needed for making what 3 things?
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atp, proteins and nucleic acid
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what is nitrogen fixation?
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using nitrogen directly from the atmosphere
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what is phosphrus needed for?
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nucleic acids
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oxygen is needed for ___________
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aerobic respirtation
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obligate aerobes do or no not need oxygen?
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do
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what is a faculative anaerobe?
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organisms that can grow with or without oxygen but better with
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what is aerotolerant?
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organisms that do not use oxygen but are not harmed by its presence
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what are microaerophiles?
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organisms that require only small amounts of oxygen
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the destruction of all forms of life including spores is called what?
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sterilization
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a ______ is used on inatimate objects to kill or inhibit microorganisms
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disinfectant
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an ______ is used on living tissue to kill or inhibit microorganisms
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antiseptic
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a chemical agent used to kill microorganisms but usually not spores is referred to as a ________
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germicide
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______ kills organisms by denaturing the enzymes
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heat
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death rate of heat is related to ______ and ______
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time and temperature
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thermal death time is the ____ required for killing all microorganisms at a given temp in a liquid culture
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time
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thermal death point is the lowest ______ required to kill all microorganisms in a liquid in _____ minutes at a ph of ___
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temperature, 10, 7
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decimal reduction time it the time in minutes in which _% of the bacteria will be killed at a given temp
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90
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moist heat kills by denaturing ______
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protein
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boiling kills most bacteria in __ mins. spores take ____ some viruses take _____
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10, 20, 30
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steams under pressure
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autoclave
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autoclave minimum requirements are a temp of __ degrees celcius, a pressure of ______ and minimum time of ____ minutes
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121 degrees, 15, 15 min
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the pressure of an autoclave allows the temp to increase without _______until a higher temp
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boiling
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steam will not penetrate ____ in an autoclave
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aluminum foil
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___ time is needed to sterilize fluid in an autoclave
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more
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what are some disadvantages of moist heat?
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will erode equipment, plastics melt, liquids are heat sensitive
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what is pasteurization?
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the use of heat to reduce the population of orgnisms
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are spores affected by pasteurization?
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no and not all organisms are killed
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what is the flash method for pasteurization?
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71.6 celcius for 15 seconds
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what is the classic method for pasteurization?
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62.9 celcius for 30 minutes
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dry heat kills by _______
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oxidation
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what is hot air sterilization used for?
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water free oily substances, glassware, pipettes
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filtration is a dry heat method used to sterilize ___________
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heat sensitive solutions
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high efficiency particulate air filters have a pore size of about what
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.3 um
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static means
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inhibiting
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refridgerators have a _________ effect.
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bacteriostatic
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in fridges the metabolic rate of most organisms will be reduced so they cannot ______ or synthesize ____
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reproduce, toxins
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why is slow freezing the most harmful to microorganisms?
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ice crystals will break apart the membrane
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the absence of water is called what?
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desiccation
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what is drying from the frozen state?
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lyophilization
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desiccation ___some organisms and ___ others
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kills, preserves
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plasmosis is when water ____the cell causing the plasma membrane to _____
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leaves, shrink
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radiation can affect cells upon what 3 ways?
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wavelength, intensity, and duration of the radiation
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gamma rays are what type of radiation?
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ionizing
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what raidation has a wavelenth shorter than 1 nm
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ionizing
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ionizing radiation forces ________ out of their shells in organic molecules creating _____ which destroy dna and protein
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electrons, ions
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gamma rays are used to sterilize what?
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plastic syringes, surgical gloves, medical and dental supplies
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ultraviolet light is an example of ________ radiation
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non ionizing
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ultra violet light damages dna by causing ________ __________
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thymene dimers
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what is the most effective wavelength of uv
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260 nm
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what is uv light used for?
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controlling microorganisms in the air
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kills organisms by indirectly generating heat
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microwave
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oxidizes light sensitive molecules
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visible light
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when using chemicals for microbial control, one must consider what types of things?
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type of organism, type of surface to be treated, the temp, the ph, and the concentration of the chemical
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what is phenol coefficent?
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the standard disinfectant to which others are compared
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if the phenol coefficent is < 1 then the chemical is ___ effective
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less effective
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what happens if there are clear areas surrounding the paper disks in the filter paper method?
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bacteria have been killed or inhibited
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in the use-dilution test, a broth culture of the test bacteria is coated onto small ___________ and allowed to dry
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stainless steel cylinders
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in the use-dilution test, chemical agents that prevent growth at the _____ dilutions are the most effective
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highest
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phenol is also known as
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carbolic acid
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phenol was first used by _____ to reduce the risk of infection
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joseph lister
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what are used instead of phenol these days?
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phenolics
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what do phenolics do?
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they disrupt plasma membranes, denature proteins and inactivate enzymes
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how long do phenolics work for?
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a few days
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what are phenolics good for treating?
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pus, poop and saliva
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hexacchlorophene is used in what?
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surgical scrub
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what phenol disinfectant was shown to cause neurological harm in infants?
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hexacchlorophene
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what type of disinfectant steals electrons from other molecules?
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halogens
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halogens are strong ____ agents
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oxidizing
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why is iodine not used much?
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stains and causes skin damage
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_____ release iodine slowly to minimize skin burns and irritation
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iodophor
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isodine is commonly used for what in the hospital?
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treating wounds
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when chlorine is added to swiming pools or dairy/food industry what is the result?
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oxidation of cellular materials and destruction of bacteria/fungi but not spores
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household bleach has a _% solution of sodium hypochlorite
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5
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alcohols denature ___ and dissolve _______
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proteins, membrane lipids
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what are the 2 most commonly used alcohols?
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ethanol and isopropanol (rubbing alcohol)
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why is 65-90% ethanol better than 100%
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water is needed to penetrate the cells
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why is alcohol not used for treating wounds?
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it coaugulates at the wound site, which protects the bacteria and allows it to grow
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heavy metals denature _____ often by combining with their _____ groups which inactivates them
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proteins, sulfhydryl
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1% silver nitrate solution is added to the newborn babies eyes to prevent _______
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gonorhea infection
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zinc chloride is commonly found in ________
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mouth wash
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copper sulfate is used to destroy ________
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green algae
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what metal is used in dandruff shampoos to kill fungi
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selenium
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soaps are derived from __
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fats
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how is soap affective?
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from the mechanical action of scrubbing
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detergents have both hydrophilic and polar ends which helps them wash away ________ and _______ soluable molecules
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water and fat
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cationic detergents are ______ charged and are used to sanitize ________
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positively charged, sanitizes food utensils
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anionic detergents are _______ charged and used for __________
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negatively charged, laundering clothes and household cleaning products
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organic acids are used as _______ to control mold growth in _______
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preservatives, cosmetics and food
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what organic acid is used in soft drinks?
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benzoic acid
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what organic acid is used in liquid cosmetics and shampoo?
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parabens
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sorbic acid is used in inhibiting mold growthin what?
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cheese
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what aldehyde is used by morticians?
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formalin
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aldehydes inactivate _______
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proteins
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formaldehyde gas causes _______
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cancer
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37% aquaeous solution of formaldehyde gas
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formalin
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_______ is a 2% solution of glutaralehyde which kills bacteria and ______ in 10 minutes and spores in _to__ hours
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cidex, viruses, 3 to 10
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ethylene oxide is a gas used for sterilizing heat sensitive items as well as ______ and _______
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spacecrafts and mattresses
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why must you be caution with ethylene oxide?
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toxic and explosive
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what are 2 oxidizing agents?
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hydrogen peroxide, ozone
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crystal violet is a dye that blocks _________ inhibits growth of gram ____ bacteria
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cell wall synthesis
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what 2 dyes inhibit gram positive cells?
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crystal violet and brilliant green
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genetics is the study of ________ which is the transmission of information from an individual to its progeny
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heredity
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a segment of dna that codes for a functional product is called a ______
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gene
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the genetic makeup of an organism is called the _____
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genotype
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the manifestation of the genotype of the physical appearance of the organism is called the _______
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phenotype
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dna is composed of what 3 nucleotides?
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phosphate group, nitrogen bases and deoxyribose sugar
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each dna molecule is a ______ _______ composed of 2 complementary strands
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double helix
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adenine pairs with _____
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thymine
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guanine pairs with ________
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cytosine (3 hydrogen bonds)
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replication of the dna is called _____________ because one old strand of dna acts as a template for making a new one
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semi conservative
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ecoli can replicate about __ nucleotides per second
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1000
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_____ binary fission occurs dna is replicated
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before
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the genetic code for dna is interpreted through what?
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transcription and translation
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rna has a sugar named ____ instead of deoxyribose
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ribose
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RNA has the nitrogen base _______ instead of thymine
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uracil
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RNA is composed of _______ strands of nucleotides
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one
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rRNA
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ribosomal rna
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tRNA
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transfer rna
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mRNA
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messanger rna
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when a single nitrogen base at one point in the DNA is replaced with a different base
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base substitution
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when the base substitution results in an amino acid change in the protein
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missense mutation
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missense mutation is when there is a ________ change in the protein
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amino acid
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nonsense mutation is when the base substition results in a ________
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non sense or stop codon
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frameshift mutation is when one or few nucleotides are ____ or _____ resulting in a shift of the frame
|
deleted or inserted
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what is the spontaneous mutation rate for base pairs?
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one in a million or 10^-9
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agents that cause mutations are called
|
mutagens
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what are all the nitrogen bases?
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cytosine, guaramine, thymine, adamine
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|
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any substance that causes cancer in animals or humans
|
carcinogen
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who developed the ames test?
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bruce ames
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what bacteria is used in the ames test?
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salmonella mutants that have lost their ability to synthesize the amino acid histidine (called his cells)
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what is the point of the ames test?
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to see if chemicals will induce a reverse mutation making his- cells become his+
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about _% of sunstances found to be mutagenic by the ames test have been shown to be carcinogenic to animals
|
90
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when does recombination in eukaryotes happen?
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during meiosis
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what happens during recombination?
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2 molcules of dna can exchange genes and form new combinations
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Spontaneous transfer of genetic material between bacteria occurs less than _% of the time
|
1
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a cell that gives a portion of its dna to another cell is called a _____ cell
|
donor
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a cell that recieves dna from another cell is called a _______ cell
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receipient
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a cell that incorporates the donor dna into its own is called a ________
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recombinant
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who demonstrated the first act of transformation in 1928?
|
frederick griffith
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what did frederick griffith think caused the transformation?
|
protein
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frederick used 2 different strands of ________. one caused ________ and the other didnt
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streptococus pneumonaie, pneumonia
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in frederick griffiths experiemnt, the strand of streptococcus pneumonaie that caused pneumonia had a _____________
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polysaccharide capsule
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in 1944, who concluded that DNA was the genetic material?
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avery, macleod and mccarty
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when cells take up DNA they are said to be _________
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competent
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Who first described conjugation in 1946?
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joshua ledenbreg and edward tatum
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conjugation requires a _____ called an ________
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plasmid, f-factor
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f-factors contain genes for making what?
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sex pili
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f-factors must have what type of contact with other cells?
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direct cell to cell contact
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when the f-factor becomes integrated into the bacterial chromosome the cell is then referred to as a _________
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high frequnecy of recombination or (hfr)
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when cnjugation of an hfr and f-factor occurs, only a portion of the f-factor is transferred so the cell is ________
|
f- still
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who first described transduction?
|
joshua lederberg and norton zinder
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in transduction bacterial dna is transferred from one cell to another by _______
|
viruses
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a virus that attacks bacteria is called a ________
|
phage
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in ____________ the phage attaches to the donor bacterial cell wall and injects its dna into the bacterial cell
|
generalized transduction
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who coined the term plasmids in the 1950's?
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joshua lederberg
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plasmids are circular, _________ extrachromosomal pieces of DNA
|
double stranded
|
|
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plasmids are primarily found in _____ but also in _______
|
bacteria, yeast
|
|
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what are some types of plasmids?
|
F-factor, R-factor, dissimilation
|
|
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they direct the synthesis of proteins that slef-assemble into sex pili
|
F-factor plasmids
|
|
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they carry genes that provide resistance to various antibiotics, heavy metals and toxins
|
R-factor plasmid
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plasmids can produce ________ which are toxic proteins that kill other bacteria
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bacterinoans
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plasmids that produce enzymes that can help breakdown toluene and petroleum
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dissimilation plasmids
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virulence plasmids code for ____ production
|
toxin
|
|
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virulence plasmids cause disease symptoms such as:
|
infant diarrhea, travelers diarrhea
|
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transporons are small segments of _____ that can move from one region of DNA to another
|
DNA
|
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transporons were firs discovered by barabara mcclintock in the 1950s from _______
|
corn
|
|
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what is the frequency of transporons per generation?
|
10^-5 - 10^-1
|
|
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transporons may carry ____ ___
|
any gene
|
|
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transporons are also called _______ ________
|
jumping genes
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manipulation of genetic material to alter the characteristics of an organism in a certain way is called ______ _________
|
genetic engineering
|
|
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how is it possible that human genes can be inserted into the DNA of bacteria to express that gene?
|
insulin gene
|
|
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what are examples of processes that recombination of DNA occurs naturally?
|
transformation, conjugation, transduction
|
|
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________ ___ technology makes transfer of genes possible
|
recombinant DNA
|
|
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restriction enzymes are ________ enzymes that can cut DNA in precise areas
|
bucterial
|
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restriction enzymes were first isolated in the _______'s
|
1970's
|
|
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restriction enzymes work by recognizing a sequence of _____ in DNA and make cuts along the DNA
|
nucleotides
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Each restriction enzyme recognizes and cuts ____ unique sequence _______ it is present in the DNA
|
ONE, EVERYTIME
|
|
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the restriction enzyme requence reads the same in one direction as it does on the other complementary DNA strand. This is called a ___________sequence
|
palindrome
|
|
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what are sticky ends?
|
uneven cut
|
|
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what are blunt ends?
|
cut straight across
|
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a _______ is a carrier molecule composed of DNA that is used to transfer a gene from one organism to another
|
vector
|
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what are some properties of vectors?
|
must be sel replicating
needs to be small because its easily manipulated should insert itself rapidly into the chromosomes of the host should have a genetic marker |
|
|
why do vectors need genetic markers?
|
for antibiotic resistance (such as a gene)
|
|
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what are some examples of vectors?
|
plasmids, viral DNA, shuttle vectors
|
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plasmid DNA can be cut with the same restriction enzymes as the DNA tobe cloned so that _________
|
all the pieces of DNA have sticky ends
|
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Viral DNA can usuall accept _____ pieces of DNA than plasmids
|
larger
|
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viral DNA is copied in the _____ _______ cells
|
viral host
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shuttle vectors are plasmids that can exist in _________ species
|
several different
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genes are manipulated by using the _______ _______ to fragment the DN
|
restriction enzymes
|
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during gene manipulation, the cell is grown in culture where many identical cells are formed called a ____
|
clone
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for DNA entry into cells, what is inducted transformation?
|
e.coli cells are soaked in calcium chloride and can be induced to take up pieces of DNA
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harvest copies of the genes is used for ___ _______ in plants
|
past resistance
|
|
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harvest copies of genes can be used to clean up _____ ______ by altering bacteria
|
toxic waste
|
|
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t-PA is used for what?
|
dissolving blood clots
|
|
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proteins from genes help make the human growth hormone called what?
|
somatostatin
|
|
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taking proteins from genes can help do what?
|
make insulin, make t-PA, make human growth hormone, make vaccines
|
|
|
where did insulin used to be taken from??
|
pancreas of slaughtered animals
|
|
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a method of dna entry into cells is called electroporation. it usesd an electric current to form temporary microscopic ________
|
pores
|
|
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during protoplast fusion, cell walls are removed using ______
|
enzymes
|
|
|
where can a gene gun be used?
|
in plant cells. foreign dna is shot into the cells
|
|
|
during microinjection, a glass pipette is used to inject DNA through _________________ membranes
|
animal cell
|
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process where many copies of the same DNA molecules are made
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DNA amplification
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by using _____ method, one can obtain billions of copies of the same DNA molecule in a few hours
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polymerase chain reaction (pcr)
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in gene library, restriction enzymes cut up the entire ____ of an organism
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genom
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in gene libary, dna fragments are inserted into _____
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vectors
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what is the goal of gene library?
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to have a collection of bacterial clones which is large enough to include a clone for every gene that exists of that organism
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what is the collection of clones?
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gene library
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what are the books of the gene library?
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clones that contain fragments of the genome
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what is DNA sequencing?
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determining the exact sequence of nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule
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what does siRNA do?
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silences RNA transcript and stops it
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what does RNA interference do?
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helps to control which genes are acting and how much they produce
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in eukaryotic DNA genes contain portions of DNA which code for a functional product and are called ______
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exon
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in eukaryotic cells DNA portions withinthe gene do not code for a functional product. they are called ______
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intron
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When the RNA transcript of a gene is made into messenger RNA the introns are removed by a process called ______
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splicing
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By using the enzyme ___ ________ a DNA copy can be made from using the messenger RNA molecule
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reverse transcription
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In cloning eukaryotic cells, the result is a copy of the original gene with the introns _______
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removed
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the science of classification is called _______
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taxonomy
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Who is known as the father of taxonomy from 1735?
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carlous linnaeus
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Who originated the bionomial nonclemnture giving everything a genus and a species name?
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carlous linnaeus
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carlous linnaeous classified everything into 2 kingdoms called _____ and ______
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plant, animal
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in 1857 carl von nageli proposed that bacteria and fungi be placed in the ________ kingdom
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plant
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whose idea was followed for 100 years after it was proposed?
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carl von nageli
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in 1866 Ernst H Haekel created a third kingdom called ________
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protista
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What did Ernst H. Haeckels protista kingdom include?
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bacteria, algae, protozoa, fungi
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who came up with the 5 kingdom system where prokaryotes are ancestors of the eukaryotes?
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robert whittaker in 1969
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in whittakers 5 kingdom system, all prokaryotes are included in the ________ or _______
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monera or prokaryote
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the 4 eukaryote kingdoms of whittakers were distinguished according to what?
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nutritinal requirements, development patterns, tissue differentiation, flagella (9+2)
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mostly unicellular, usually have flagella, lack tissue organization
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protista
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simple to complex eukaryotes
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prostita, fungi, plants, animals
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what got placed into its own kingdom in 1959?
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fungi
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fungi absorbs organic matter through the ____ ________
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organic membrane
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multicellular fungi have cells commonly joined to form thin tubes called _______
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hyphae
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multicellular, photosynthetic, includes algae mosses ferns and flowers
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plants
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obtain nutrients by ingesting organic matter through some type of mouth
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animal
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carl r woese of 1978 proposed a __ domain system of classification
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3
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how did carl woese base his proposal?
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on modern techniques in the fields of molecular biology and biochemistry
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what 2 types of prokaryotic cells did carl woese find?
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eubacteria and archabacteria
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what are some characteristics of archaeobacteria?
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no peptidoglycogen in walls, not sensitive to antibiotics, have unusal metabolic processes
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methanogens are archaeobacteria that are strict anaerobes that produce______ ______
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methane gas
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the archaeobacteria extreme halophiles require a high concentration of ______ for survival
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salts
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the archaeobacteria thermoacidophiles grow in hot, ____ environments such as ____ ________ in the ocean floor and ______ springs
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acidic, volcanic vents, hot
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what is the taxonomic heirarchy?
|
groups of sub divisions that comprise the taxonomic heirarchy
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name the taxonomic heirarchy
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kingdom, phyllum, class, order, family, genus, species
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what is your way of remembering the taxonomic heirarchy?
|
killing people can obviously freak girls spirits
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the genus is always capitalized and is a ______
|
noun
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the species is lower case and is a _______
|
adjective
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population of cells with similar characteristics
|
bacterial species
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bacterial cells derived from the same original cell which are not identified in all ways to other cells in the species
|
bacterial strain
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the 2nd edition of bergys manual was completed in 2004 and had _____ volumes
|
5
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|
bergys manual of determinative bacteriology was published when?
|
1923
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bergys manual of systematic bacteriology contains information on ________
|
taxonomy
|
|
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how many editions of bergys manual of determinative bacteriology are there?
|
9
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the sections of bergys manual of determinative bacteriology provide information on what?
|
oxygen requirements, cell wall composition, biochemical testing, differential staining, morphology
|
|
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bergys manual of systematic bacteriology divides the prokaryote kingdom into _ divisions and __ classes
|
4, 7
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