Microbiology Lab

Front 1

what are normal flora?

Back 1

more or less permanent residents of your body

Front 2

what are transient flora?

Back 2

present only for days or weeks in/on the body

Front 3

who was ignaz semmelweis?

Back 3

introduced handwashing in chlorinated lime solutions at vienna general in 1846. committed to an asylum

Front 4

who was joseph lister?

Back 4

1. "father of antisepsis"
2. cleaned hands and instruments in carbolic acid solution
3.invented stitches

Front 5

what is soap?

Back 5

1. an anionic sufactant. has both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic end. hydrophilic end dissolves in water and is capable of dissolving nonpolar grease molecules. hydrophobic portion dissolves dirt and oils. it allows water to remove normally insoluble matter by emulsification

Front 6

what is antibacterial soap?

Back 6

1. commonly triclosan which is concentration dependent. high concentration: capable of killing live microorganisms. low concentration: inhibits bacterial growth.

Front 7

what are hand sanitizers?

Back 7

a non water based hand hygiene agent. active ingredient is isopropanol or ethanol. needs to contain atleast 60% of alcohol to be effective.

HAND SANITIZERS ARE NOT MORE EFFECTIVE THAN SOAP AND WATER BASED CLEANING!

Front 8

what is a sign?

Back 8

objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer (coming from caregiver like doctor)

-fever, septicemia, chest sounds, rash, leukocytosis, antibodies

Front 9

what is a symptom?

Back 9

subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient

-chills, pain, ache, nausea, itching, headache, fatigue

Front 10

asymptomatic infection:

Back 10

although infected, the host doesn't show any signs of disease. unapparent infection so person doesn't seek medical attention.

Front 11

what is latency?

Back 11

after the initial symptoms in certain chronic diseases, the microbe can periodically become active and produce a recurrent disease; person may or may not shed it during the latent stage (ex= herpes)

Front 12

what is a chronic carrier?

Back 12

a person with a latent infection who sheds the infectious agent (constantly shedding)

Front 13

what is a sequelae?

Back 13

long term or permanent damage to tissues or organs

ex= leprocy (permanent damage to skin)

Front 14

what are incubation carriers?

Back 14

spread the infectious agent during the incubation period

Front 15

what are convalescent carriers?

Back 15

recuperating without symptoms

Front 16

what is a passive carrier?

Back 16

contaminated healthcare provider picks up pathogens and transfers them to other patients. (common with doctors and nurses)

Front 17

what is a vector?

Back 17

a live animal (other than human) that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another

ex= arthropods

Front 18

what is a biological vector?

Back 18

actively participate in a pathogens life cycle

Front 19

what is a mechanical vector?

Back 19

not necessary to the life cycle of an infectious agent and merely transports it without being infected

Front 20

which of the following is NOT true regarding streaking for isolation on solid plate media?
1. it is easy to tell if contaminated
2. it will dry out quickly unless refrigerated
3. it is not good for separating mixed cultures
4. it is favorable to use for short term experiments

Back 20

3. it is not good for separating mixed cultures

Front 21

which of the following characteristics about agar is false?
1.solidifies at temperatures under 40 degrees celsius
2.degradable by most organisms
3.liquefies at 100 degrees celsius
4. once solidified, can be incubated at temperatures up to 100 degrees celsius

Back 21

2. degradable by most organisms

Front 22

who described "animalcules" that he observed in teeth scrapings and rain water?

Back 22

leeuwenhoek

Front 23

Antiseptic and disinfecting activity is affected by:
1.concentration of compound
2.type of organism
3.time of exposure
4.all the above

Back 23

all the above

Front 24

During the gram staining procedure, 95% ethyl alcohol is used as the:

Back 24

decolorizing agent

Front 25

Spirit blue agar tests for the presence of ____ which is an exoenzyme that breaks down lipids.

Back 25

Lipase

Front 26

True or false:
A methylene blue stain uses cationic (positive) chromagen to dye bacteria

Back 26

True

Front 27

____ must be capable of killing 99.999% of a specific bacteria in 30 seconds

Back 27

Sanitizers

Front 28

What does a durham tube test for in a carbohydrate fermentation tube?

Back 28

Gas production

Front 29

In a MRVP broth tube, if a ____ product is formed, the tube color will change from methyl red to yellow, and is an indication of a negative MR test.

Back 29

Neutral

Front 30

___'s experiment dealing with a swan necked flask effectively disproved spontaneous generation

Back 30

Pasteur

Front 31

In a Simmons Citrate agar slant, organisms break down ___ into ___ which can be used in fermentation

Back 31

Citric acid, pyruvate

Front 32

A SIM agar deep tests for what?

Back 32

Sulfur, indole, motility

Front 33

True or false:
Cold kills bacteria, heat promotes growth

Back 33

False

Front 34

Exoenzymes are capable of breaking down large compounds into smaller compounds by what process?

Back 34

Hydrolysis

Front 35

What does the introduction of H2O2 do to cells?

Back 35

causes DNA damage

Front 36

What phase of bacterial growth is known as the "gearing up" phase?

Back 36

lag phase

Front 37

Which of the following is not an observational result from a TSI slant?
1.Black ppt
2.red color
3.yellow color
4.motility

Back 37

Motility

Front 38

What exoenzyme breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

Back 38

Catalase

Front 39

____ is a concept that states that individual isolated colonies are millions of microbial cells that arose from a single cell.

Back 39

Clonality

Front 40

____ is a property of a chemotherapeutic drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host.

Back 40

Selective toxicity

Front 41

A ____ is a propeller-like extracytoplasmic appendage in motile bacteria.

Back 41

Flagella

Front 42

24. If you grow two types of gram positive bacteria and two types of gram negative bacteria on a plate, and chemicals in the agar only allow the gram positive bacteria to grow, the media is said to be ___. On the same plate, if only one of the two types of gram positive bacteria have a color associated with their growth, the media is also said to be ____

Back 42

Selective; differential

Front 43

A ____ anaerobe grows best when oxygen is present, but can grow without it.

Back 43

Facultative

Front 44

26. If the concentration of solute is higher on the outside the cell membrane than inside the cell, the solution is __. As a result, water will flow ___the cell.

Back 44

hypertonic; out of

Front 45

____ is considered at its best when two points are distinct.

Back 45

Resolution

Front 46

____ is the theory that hypothesizes microorganisms are the cause of many different diseases.

Back 46

Germ theory of disease

Front 47

A _____ forms when bacteria lack essential nutrients or water. They are very hardy and long lasting.

Back 47

Spore

Front 48

30. The main difference in cell wall structure between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is the thickness of ____.

Back 48

Peptidoglycan

Front 49

Mannitol salt agar selects for ____ bacteria and differentiates bacteria through the presence of _____.

Back 49

gram + ; mannitol

Front 50

A ____ test is used to determine if cytochromes are present in aerobic bacteria.

Back 50

Oxidase

Front 51

A ____ is used to measure the absorbance of a sample by shining a beam of light through the sample.

Back 51

Spectrophotometer

Front 52

A _____ is used to kill microbes on living tissue but a ____ is used to kill bacteria on inanimate objects

Back 52

Antiseptic; disinfectant

Front 53

An ____ is a chemical produced by a microorganism that kills or inhibits the growth of another microorganism.

Back 53

Antibiotic

Front 54

The _____ is the minimum amount of antibiotic that it takes to kill bacteria.

Back 54

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Front 55

_____ is the exoenzyme that is tested for in a starch hydrolysis test. This enzyme breaks down starch molecules.

Back 55

Amylase

Front 56

38. Thioglycalate broth tubes are used to test for the ___ of bacteria by creating oxygen gradients within the tubes.

Back 56

Aerotolerance

Front 57

____ anaerobes cannot grow with oxygen present. Oxygen is toxic to them.

Back 57

Obligate

Front 58

The nitrate reduction test tests the ability of an organism to reduce ____ to ____.

Back 58

Nitrate to nitrite

Front 59

41. Draw the structure of an amino acid and give the by-product which is formed when an amino group of one amino acid forms a peptide bond with the carboxyl group of another amino acid.

Back 59

1. Draw a picture
2. H2O

Front 60

If a microscope has an ocular magnification of 7X and the objective has a magnification of 5X, what is the total magnification?

Back 60

35X

Front 61

What is the difference between a simple and negative stain? Be sure to include the reason why these stains are different.

Back 61

Simple: stains organism because stain is positively charged and bacterial cell wall is negatively charged. Stain sticks to cell membrane

Negative: stains background because stain is negatively charged and bacterial cell wall is negatively charged so stain is repelled.

Front 62

You just pulled your gelatin hydrolysis tubes from the cold room. Your cell phone rings and you leave your tubes on your lab bench for 20 minutes. After you come back, you read the results and your tube is liquefied. Is this a true positive test? Why or why not?

Back 62

False positive because gelatin melts at room temperature whether gelatinase is present or not.

Front 63

Explain the results that you would get if bacteria is able to perform starch hydrolysis (don’t forget to discuss the iodine addition).

Back 63

Clear halo would form around the bacteria because amylase is the exoenzyme that the cells excreted to hydrolyze starch. Iodine stains starch so if the starch was broken down due to amylase presence, the iodine would have no starch to bind to, resulting in a clear halo.

Front 64

Describe the relationship between zone of inhibition and minimum inhibitory concentration.

Back 64

The larger the zone, the smaller the MIC and vice versa

Front 65

What is the benefit of using oil in when looking at bacteria under the microscope?

Back 65

Oil helps to increase resolution because it has a similar refractive index to glass so the light will not bend.

Front 66

Would you expect a urinary tract pathogen to be urease positive or negative? Why or why not?

Back 66

You would expect this bacteria to be urease positive because it could break down the urea present in urine as a source of energy.

Front 67

What will happen to a red blood cell, which has an internal ion concentration of about 0.9 percent, if it is placed into a beaker of pure water?

Back 67

It would swell with water and possibly burst.

Front 68

During the performance of a simple staining procedure, you failed to heat fix your E. coli smear. How would you expect the slide to look after staining and why?

Back 68

You probably would not get a very good smear because most of the bacteria was probably washed away with rinsing. Heat fixing increases adherence of the bacteria to the slide.

Front 69

A) Describe the cell wall structure of both gram positive and gram negative bacteria.
B) List the four steps of a Gram Stain. Be sure to include the reagent used in each step as well as the function of that reagent.
C) Describe why gram negative bacteria stain differently than gram positive bacteria.
D) Identify which color gram positive and gram negative bacteria stain.

Back 69

A) G+: thick layer of peptidoglycan, no LPS layer
G-: thin layer of peptidoglycan, LPS layer

B) Crystal violet: primary stain
Iodine: mordant
Alcohol: decolorizing agent
Safranin: counterstain

C) The LPS layer is washed away leaving the thin peptidoglycan layer. Because the peptidoglycan layer was not shrunk much by the decolorizing agent, the crystal violet-iodine molecules can escape and the safranin can enter to make the cells look pink.

D) G+: purple
G-: pink

Front 70

List five things you should do every lab period to ensure you and everyone around you is safe.

Back 70

Find this answer in slides

Front 71

Who constructed a microscope that could magnify up to 30-100X?

Back 71

Leeuwenhoek

Front 72

Who reported that living things were composed of little boxes or cells after looking at a piece of tree bark?

Back 72

Hooke

Front 73

What is the germ theory of disease?

Back 73

The theory that proposes that microorganisms are the cause of many diseases

Front 74

Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?

Back 74

Louis Pasteur

Front 75

Who developed postulates that validated the germ theory of disease?

Back 75

Robert Koch

Front 76

Who was considered the father of microbiology?

Back 76

Robert Koch

Front 77

Who was Spallanzani?

Back 77

1st to prove microorganisms were the cause of diseases but didn't get credit for it.His experiment effectively disproved spontaneous generation. Critics argued that "air" was required for spontaneous generation which paved the way for pasteur

Front 78

Who believed that meat turned into flies and maggots?

Back 78

Louis Pasteur

Front 79

Who developed techniques for culturing microorganisms?

Back 79

Robert Koch (Koch's Postulates)

Front 80

What are the techniques for culturing microorganisms that Koch developed?

Back 80

1. pure cultures (use of aseptic technique)
2. agar
3. petri dishes

Front 81

Describe agar.

Back 81

1. not degradable by most microorganisms
2. liquefies at 100 degrees C
3. solidifies at temps under 40 degrees C
4. Once solidified, can be incubated at temps up to 100 degrees C

Front 82

What is a colony?

Back 82

A cell, group of cells, or organism that is descended from and genetically identical to a single common ancestor, such as a bacterial colony whose members arose from a single original cell

Front 83

What is clonality?

Back 83

A concept that states that individual isolated colonies are millions of microbial cells that arose from one single cell

Front 84

What can we tell from an agar streak plate?

Back 84

1. types of colonies (overall shape)
2. morphology (colony edges and elevations)

Front 85

What does a streak plate determine?

Back 85

Determines "WHAT" is in the culture

Front 86

What does serial dilution and plating determine?

Back 86

Determines "HOW MUCH" is in a culture

Front 87

Standard dilutions are often referred to as:

Back 87

10-fold dilutions. Means 1 ul of your sample into 9 ul of your dilution medium; sample decreases in number by a factor of 10

Front 88

What amount can be pipetted using a P1000?

Back 88

100 ul- 1000 ul

Front 89

What amount can be pipetted using a P200?

Back 89

20 ul - 200 ul

Front 90

What amount can be pipetted using a P20?

Back 90

2 ul - 20 ul

Front 91

What values do we see when reading a P20?

Back 91

tens
ones
tenths

Front 92

What values do we see when reading a P200?

Back 92

hundreds
tens
ones

Front 93

What values do we see when reading a P1000?

Back 93

thousands
hundreds
tens

Front 94

Dilutions ____ cell number and dilution factor ____ cell number

Back 94

decrease; increase

Front 95

What is the spot plating method?

Back 95

Instead of using the entire plate and spreading 1 mL of a single dilution, can actually plate 4 separate dilutions on a single plate.

-spot 25 ul aliquots of each dilution tube onto an appropriately labeled quadrant
-count the number of colonies within each spot
-adjust the number to a per mL basis

Front 96

What is TNTC for spot plating?

Back 96

more than 30 colonies per spot

Front 97

What is TFTC for spot plating?

Back 97

less than 5 colonies per spot

Front 98

For spot plating, most clinicians and researchers choose plates between ___ and ___ colonies per plate for cfu/mL calculations because it is the most accurate

Back 98

10 to 20

Front 99

What is TNTC for spread plating?

Back 99

more than 250 colonies

Front 100

What is TFTC for spread plating?

Back 100

less than 25 colonies

Front 101

For spread plating, most clinicians and researchers choose plates between __ and ___ colonies per plate for cfu/mL calculations

Back 101

25 to 50

Front 102

UTI's are only considered active in ___ cfu/mL or greater amounts

Back 102

10 ^ 5

Front 103

The ___ the lens, the ___ the magnification

Back 103

Longer; greater

Front 104

The ___ the magnification, the ___ the resolution

Back 104

Greater ; poorer

Front 105

What is resolution?

Back 105

The ability of lenses to reveal fine detail or two points distinctly seperated

Front 106

What does resolution depend on?

Back 106

1. Light wavelength. (shorter wavelengths = better resolution)
2. Numerical aperture of the lens

Front 107

What is numerical aperture?

Back 107

-dependent upon max angle of light entering lens
-refractive index (the amount light bends) between the objective lens and the slide

Front 108

What does oil increase?

Back 108

Resolution (more light makes it to the objective)

-use of oil immersion increases magnification approximately 2.5-fold

Front 109

What is a direct stain?

Back 109

Stains the organism

Front 110

Burgundy
Label Term: Commune

Back 110

wines from a single commune (village) allowed own AC

Front 111

What gives color to a stain?

Back 111

Chromophores (charged ions). Can be acidic (-) or basic (+)

Front 112

Why do we "fix" an organism?

Back 112

1. to prevent autolysis (bursting)
2. to increase adherence
3. to kill the bacteria (depends)

Front 113

Always begin focusing on the ___ possible power

Back 113

Lowest

Front 114

As you switch from low to high power, the field of view becomes ___.

Back 114

Darker (to deal with this the iris diaphragm needs to be opened to allow in more light)

Front 115

As you switch from low to high power the field of view becomes ___

Back 115

Smaller

Front 116

What is parfocal?

Back 116

In focus with one lens= in focus with all

Front 117

What are the three parts that differential staining is divided into?

Back 117

1. primary stain
2. decolorizing agent
3. counterstain

Front 118

What is a primary stain?

Back 118

Imparts color to all cells

Front 119

What is a decolorizing agent?

Back 119

may or may not remove the primary stain from the entire cell or certain cell structures

Front 120

What is a counterstain?

Back 120

Provides color contrast to primary stain

Front 121

In a ____ organism, 90% of cell wall is made of peptidoglycan

Back 121

Gram +

Front 122

In a ___ organism, 10% of cell wall is made of peptidoglycan

Back 122

Gram -

Front 123

Which type of organism has an outer lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer?

Back 123

Gram -

Front 124

What is the primary stain used in gram staining?

Back 124

Crystal Violet which dissociates into CV+ and CV-

Front 125

What is the mordant used in gram staining?

Back 125

Iodine which makes CV-I complexes

(mordant is what "locks" molecules together)

Front 126

What is the decolorizing agent used in gram staining?

Back 126

Alcohol which washes away outer layer of Gram - along with CVI. CVI in gram + cells stays in layer of peptidoglycan so stays PURPLE.

Front 127

What is the counterstain used in gram staining?

Back 127

Safranin which gives gram - its pink color

Front 128

What gives gram - organisms a pink color?

Back 128

Safranin (the counterstain used in gram staining)

Front 129

What is the cell wall lipid content of Gram +? Gram -?

Back 129

Gram + = low lipid
Gram - = high lipid (because of 2nd layer)

Front 130

How susceptible to penicillin are Gram + organisms? Gram -?

Back 130

Gram + = quite susceptible
Gram - = Less susceptible

Front 131

What are common sources of error with gram staining?

Back 131

1. loop too hot during culture transfer (this kills microbes)
2. excessive heat during heat fixing (can cause slide to break or microbes to boil)
3. alcohol (decolorizing agent) left on too long (causes variable results)

Front 132

What is acid fast staining used for?

Back 132

Used for bacteria that won't gram stain

Front 133

Describe acid fast bacteria:

Back 133

- resist decolorization with acid alcohol
- carbol fuschin contains phenol which solubilizes traditional cell walls
- methylene blue serves as a counter stain

Front 134

What do acid fast bacteria contain?

Back 134

Contain mycolic acids in their membranes which make them impermeable to traditional staining procedures

Front 135

What color are acid fast cells?

Back 135

Red

Front 136

What do capsule stains look like?

Back 136

Appear as a clear halo surrounding the stain bacterium and slide background

Front 137

What does "PEA" in PEA agar stand for?

Back 137

Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol Agar

Front 138

What is PEA agar selective for?

Back 138

Selective for gram + bacteria, inhibits the growth of gram - bacteria

Front 139

What inhibits gram - organisms in PEA agar?

Back 139

Phenyl ethyl alcohol inhibits DNA synthesis of gram - organisms, which is why they fail to grow

Front 140

What type of bacteria is commonly grown using PEA agar?

Back 140

Staphylococcal species

Front 141

What does "MSA" in MSA agar stand for?

Back 141

Mannitol Salt Agar

Front 142

What does MSA agar contain ?

Back 142

contains a high concentration of salt which inhibits the growth of gram - bacteria and most gram + bacteria

Front 143

What does MSA agar select for?

Back 143

Staphylococcal species. These bacteria are halophilic which means "salt loving". They prefer to grow in elevated salt environments

Front 144

What makes MSA agar differentiable?

Back 144

Contains mannitol. This can be used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Front 145

Does S.aureus or S.epidermidis ferment mannitol in MSA agar?

Back 145

S.aureus ferments mannitol, and the resulting acid produced changes the color of the media from red to yellow. S.epidermidis doesn't ferment mannitol so colonies appear white

Front 146

What color do colonies appear in MSA agar with S.epidermidis bacteria?

Back 146

White

Front 147

What color is the media of MSA agar when S.aureus ferments mannitol?

Back 147

Changes from red to yellow

Front 148

What is the indication of a positive reaction on Pseudomonas P agar?

Back 148

agar color will change from a dull beige color to anywhere from a light green to a dark blue

Front 149

What is pseudomonas P agar selective for?

Back 149

Pseudomonas species. Other gram - and gram + bacteria won't grow on this agar.

Front 150

What does Pseudomonas P agar contain that promote the production of pigments?

Back 150

MgCl2 and K2SO4

Front 151

What antibiotic is Pseudomonas resistant to?

Back 151

Irgasan is a broad spectrum antibiotic that inhibits the growth of other bacteria. Pseudomonas is resistant to this antibiotic so it will still grow.

Front 157

Is MacConkey agar selective, differential or both?

Back 157

Both selective and differential

Front 158

What is Mac agar selective for?

Back 158

Selective for gram - bacteria because the crystal violet dye and bile salts inhibit the growth of gram + bacteria

Front 159

What is Mac agar differential for?

Back 159

Differential in that it contains the carbohydrate(sugar) lactose and a pH indicator. If lactose is fermented, colonies will appear pink (+ reaction), if they dont ferment lactose the colonies will be white (- reaction)

Front 160

What does the starch hydrolysis test test for?

Back 160

Tests for the presence of the exoenzyme amylase

Front 161

What does amylase do?

Back 161

Amylase breaks down starch into smaller compounds that the bacteria can use

Front 162

Starch media has ___ included in the agar.

Back 162

Starch

Front 163

In the starch hydrolysis test, when we pour iodine on the plate after the bacteria have grown, the iodine reacts with ___ in the agar turning it ___.

Back 163

Iodine reacts with the starch in the agar turning it black

Front 164

What indicates a positive result for the starch hydrolysis test?

Back 164

If the bacteria is amylase + and can break down starch, a CLEAR AREA will appear around the region where the bacteria grew

Front 165

What does spirit blue agar test for?

Back 165

Tests for the presence of lipase, an exoenzyme that breaks down lipids

Front 166

What indicates a positive result for the spirit blue agar test?

Back 166

+ test indicated by a zone of clearing around the bacterial growth

Front 167

What does spirit blue dye in the medium tend to migrate towards?

Back 167

Tends to migrate towards areas of lipid clearing; is considered an indicator of lipolysis

Front 168

What is the purpose of the OF glucose medium?

Back 168

Determines whether an organism is oxidative or fermentative, which means it determines if the sugar can be fermented in the presence or absence of oxygen

Front 169

How many tubes were used per organism in the OF glucose medium?

Back 169

Two tubes per organism. One tube was overlaid with mineral oil.

Front 170

OF glucose medium: what is a negative test?

Back 170

If both tubes were still green, the test is negative, no fermentation of glucose occurred.

Front 171

What colors of the tubes in the OF glucose medium indicated that the organism was oxidative?

Back 171

If the non mineral oil tube was yellow but the mineral oil tube remained green; meaning it could break down sugar in the presence of oxygen

Front 172

What colors of the tubes in the OF glucose medium indicated that the organism was fermentative?

Back 172

If the + mineral oil tube was yellow but the non mineral oil tube remained green; meaning it could only break down sugar in the absence of oxygen

Front 173

How could we determine if the organism was oxidative and fermentative in the OF glucose medium?

Back 173

If both tubes were yellow

Front 174

What does OF glucose medium contain other than glucose?

Back 174

Contains a small amount of peptone. BACTERIA THAT CAN'T FERMENT CAN BREAK DOWN THE PROTEINS IN THE PEPTONE AND THIS CAUSES THE MEDIUM TO TURN FROM A NORMAL GREEN TO A VERY DARK BLUE, this usually occurs at the top of the tube where oxygen levels are highest.

Front 175

What does the Carbohydrate Fermentation tube contain?

Back 175

A carbohydrate, a pH indicator and a durham tube

Front 176

What color is sterile/uninoculated media in the carbohydrate fermentation tubes?

Back 176

dark red

Front 177

What color is indicated by fermentation in the carbohydrate fermentation tubes?

Back 177

If fermentation occurs, it will result in change from red to yellow. Record this as "A" for acid production

Front 178

What happens if gas is produced during fermentation of the carbohydrate fermentation tube?

Back 178

A gas bubble will become trapped in the durham tube

Front 179

Can bacteria that can't ferment still grow in the carbohydrate fermentation tube?

Back 179

Yes! bacteria that can't ferment may grow in the media, but there will be NO COLOR CHANGE and is considered a negative reaction

Front 180

What does the MR test measure?

Back 180

MR test measures the end products of the fermentation reaction. if it stays red, acid end products were produced. if it turns yellow, neutral end products were produced.

+ test = red
- test = yellow

Front 181

What does the VP test test for?

Back 181

VP test tests the presence of a specific neutral end product.

After adding VP reading 1 and 2 we shook the tube and let it be exposed to oxygen for 15-30 minutes.

+ test= change from dark brown/copper to deep red/purple

Front 182

What is the pH baseline for methyl red?

Back 182

pH 4.4

Front 183

What happens if the pH of the medium is below 4.4 for the MRVP test?

Back 183

STAYS RED

Front 184

What happens if the pH of the medium is above 4.4 for the MRVP test?

Back 184

turns YELLOW

Front 185

What is the MRVP test used to differentiate between?

Back 185

Used to differentiate between E. Coli and Enterobacter species

Front 186

What does the nitrate reduction test test for?

Back 186

Tests the ability of the organism to reduce nitrate (NO3) to nitrite (NO2) or even further to ammonia (NH3)

Front 187

What indicates a + test after adding nitrate A and B reagents in the nitrate reduction test?

Back 187

RED (indicates nitrate was reduced to nitrite)

Front 188

What are the two possibilities that exist if no color change occurred after the addition of nitrate a and b reagents in the nitrate reduction test?

Back 188

- no reduction occurred
-nitrate was reduced even further past nitrite to ammmonia or nitric oxide

Front 189

What must we add in the nitrate reduction test if no color change was observed after adding nitrate a and b reagents?

Back 189

Zinc dust.

red= no reduction occurred since NO3 is still present in the test tube
no color change= organism reduced but was reduced past nitrite

Front 190

What indicates nitrate + test in the nitrate reduction test?

Back 190

-if nitrite (pink color) is detected in the inoculated medium after the addition of reagents A and B
-no color is detected in the medium after the addition of zinc dust

Front 191

What indicates nitrate - test in the nitrate reduction test?

Back 191

-nitrite is not detected (no color change) after the addition of reagents A and B
-pink color develops after the addition of zinc dust

Front 192

What does the catalase test test for?

Back 192

Tests for the presence of the enzyme catalase

Front 193

What does catalase break down?

Back 193

Catalase breaks down H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) into oxygen and water

Front 194

What will happen if a bacterium is catalase +?

Back 194

When we add H2O2 to bacteria growing on a plate we will see BUBBLES (this is the oxygen escaping from the water)

Front 195

What will happen if a bacterium is catalase -?

Back 195

No bubbles will form

Front 196

What type of bacteria are generally catalase +?

Back 196

Aerobic bacteria that don't ferment and require oxygen to grow

Front 197

What does H2O2 damage?

Back 197

Damages DNA.

Front 198

What does the oxidase test test for?

Back 198

Tests for the presence of cytochrome c, a specific protein in the electron transport chain

Front 199

What indicates a + test in the oxidase test?

Back 199

formation of a BLUE color after the addition of the oxidase reagent to bacteria growing on a plate

Front 200

What indicates a - test in the oxidase test?

Back 200

NO COLOR CHANGE (the oxidase reagent is colorless without the presence of a cytochrome c protein to react with)

Front 201

What does the gelatinase test test for?

Back 201

Tests for the presence of the enzyme gelatinase

Front 202

Indication of a gelatinase + organism:

Back 202

will liquefy the gelatin in the tube

Front 203

Indication of a gelatinase - organism:

Back 203

gelatin will remain solid

Front 204

At what temperature does gelatin liquefy?

Back 204

Liquefies at temperatures above 28 degrees C

Front 205

What does the urea hydrolysis test test for?

Back 205

Tests for the presence of the enzyme urease

Front 206

Indication of a urease + organism:

Back 206

Indicated by a color change from a light orange to a HOT PINK color

Front 207

Indication of a urease - organism:

Back 207

Light orange color

Front 208

Urease liberates ____ from urea

Back 208

Ammonia (NH3) which is a waste product of protein digestion

Front 209

What does urea medium contain?

Back 209

Contains phenol red. The pH prepared urea medium is 6.8 so phenol red is yellowish-orange

Front 210

What causes the pH to go up in the urea hydrolysis test?

Back 210

As ammonia builds up in the medium, the pH goes up, and the phenol red indicator changes color from yellowish orange to hot pink

Front 211

What does phenylalanine deamination test for?

Back 211

Tests for the organisms ability to remove an amino (NH2) group from the amino acid phenylalanine - this process is called deamination.

The liberated amino group is converted to ammonia, and you are left with PHENYLPYRUVIC ACID

Front 212

What is added to the tubes after incubation in the phenylalanine deamination test?

Back 212

FeCl3 added to the tubes after incubation reacts with the phenylpyruvic acid and results in a color change from reddish orange to green

Front 213

+ test for phenylalanine deamination:

Back 213

GREEN

Front 214

- test for phenylalanine deamination:

Back 214

NO COLOR CHANGE AFTER ADDING FECL3

Front 215

What does the ornithine decarboxylase broth contain?

Back 215

-Contains glucose. Most all bacterial species can ferment the glucose, and the resulting acid that results from fermentation will activate the pH indicator and the broth will turn YELLOW.

-contains the amino acid ornithine. Some bacteria can decarboxylate, or remove the CO2 (carbon dioxide) from ornithine. Removal of CO2 from ornithine leaves an amine by product which raises the pH.

Front 216

Indication of ornithine decarboxylase + organism:

Back 216

Broth will change from purple to yellow then BACK TO LIGHT PURPLE COLOR

Front 217

Describe the medium of SIM agar deep:

Back 217

Semi-solid so we can evaluate motility by looking for "spreading growth" from the stab line

Front 218

What does the SIM agar deep medium contain?

Back 218

Contains tryptophan. When tryptophan is broken down by bacteria, INDOLE IS PRODUCED

Front 219

What is produced in the SIM agar deep medium when tryptophan is broken down?

Back 219

INDOLE

Front 220

What do we add to the SIM agar deep medium after incubation of the tubes?

Back 220

Add Kovac's reagent which will react with the indole and produce a cherry red color

indole + = cherry red ring at top of tube
indole - = no color change (remains yellow) after adding kovacs reagent

Front 221

Indication of indole + organism:

Back 221

red color in top of tube

Front 222

Indication of indole - organism:

Back 222

tube remains yellow

Front 223

What causes a black precipitate to form in the SIM agar deep medium?

Back 223

If an organism can reduce sulfur to hydrogen sulfide, the hydrogen sulfide will combine with the iron to form ferric sulfide.

Blackening of the medium indicates the reduction of sulfur and is a POSITIVE test

Front 224

What does black precipitate indicate in SIM agar deep medium?

Back 224

Indicates the reduction of sulfur and is a POSITIVE test

Front 225

What is the sulfur reduction test in the SIM agar deep medium useful for?

Back 225

Differentiating enteric organisms

Front 226

What does TSI stand for?

Back 226

Triple Sugar Iron Agar

Front 227

What is TSI agar?

Back 227

Differential medium that contains lactose, sucrose and a small amount of glucose (dextrose) , ferrous sulfate and the pH indicator phenol red

Front 228

What does TSI agar contain?

Back 228

lactose, sucrose, a small amount of glucose (dextrose), ferrous sulfate and the pH indicator phenol red

Front 229

What does TSI agar differentiate between?

Back 229

Used to differentiate enterics based on the ability to reduce sulfur and ferment carbohydrates

Front 230

When will TSI agar turn yellow?

Back 230

If an organism can ferment any of the three sugars present in the medium the medium will turn yellow

Front 231

When will a black precipitate form in the TSI agar?

Back 231

If an organism can reduce sulfur, the hydrogen sulfide gas which is produced will react with the iron to form iron sulfide which appears as a black ppt

Front 232

What will indicate that the TSI agar fermentation produced gas?

Back 232

fissures in the medium or entire butt blown out of tube

Front 233

What is an anionic surfactant?

Back 233

(soap) that contains a hydrophilic end which interacts with water and a hydrophobic end which interacts with dirt, grease and oil

Front 234

What has NO effect on viruses?

Back 234

antibacterial soap

Front 235

what is NON water based?

Back 235

hand sanitizers - need to contain at least 60% alcohol to be effective. Added benefit of viral inactivation

Front 236

Microbial abundance:

Back 236

microbial cells are everywhere in abundance and the types of species is very diverse.

-100 trillion microbial cells in the human gut which is 10 times the # of human cells in the adult body

Front 237

Germ Theory of Disease:

Back 237

Microorganisms are the cause of many diseases

Front 238

Koch's postulates:

Back 238

1. a microorganism must be found in all individuals suffering the disease, can't be in abundance in healthy animals
2. microorganism must be isolated from a diseased individual
3. the isolated microorganism must cause the disease in a healthy organism after being induced
4. the microorganism must then be reisolated from the now sick organism

Front 239

Agar:

Back 239

useful for growing microorganisms because it can't be degraded by most microorganisms

-liquefies at 100 degrees C
-solidifies at temps under 40 degrees C

Front 240

incubation:

Back 240

growing an organism in an incubator at an optimum temperature

Front 241

inoculation:

Back 241

introduction of a microorganism to an agar, media or living organism

Front 242

isolation:

Back 242

culturing an individual species (only one type of bacteria)

Front 243

identification:

Back 243

use of differential medias

Front 244

pellicle:

Back 244

solid bacteria surface growth in media

Front 245

turbid:

Back 245

uniform growth throughout media (cloudy)

Front 246

sediment:

Back 246

solid bacteria growth in the bottom of the media

Front 247

media classification:

Back 247

-solid (plate and slant)

-semisolid

-liquid

Front 248

motility test:

Back 248

testing a microorganism's ability to actively move

Front 249

positive result:

Back 249

bacteria growth has spread throughout semi-solid media

Front 250

negative result:

Back 250

bacteria growth stays in the area where it was first stabbed in

Front 251

cfu/mL

Back 251

colony forming units per mL (how many colonies formed on the plate)

Front 252

serial dilution:

Back 252

consecutive reduction of the concentration of bacteria by adding media with bacteria to media which has no bacteria

Front 253

10-fold dilution:

Back 253

add 1 mL of your sample to 9 mL of media without bacteria

Front 254

magnification:

Back 254

enlarging something's image

Front 255

resolution:

Back 255

ability of lenses to reveal fine detail or two points distinctly seperated

Front 256

numerical aperture:

Back 256

maximum angle of light that can enter the lens and refractive index between the lens and the slide

Front 257

chromophore:

Back 257

a charged ion that gives a different color when in an acidic (+) or basic (-) solution

Front 258

direct stain:

Back 258

stains the organism

Front 259

negative stain:

Back 259

stains field/background

Front 260

why do we "fix" slides?

Back 260

to prevent autolysis, to increase adherence, and to kill bacteria

Front 261

primary stain:

Back 261

imparts color to all cells (first stain used)

Front 262

decolorizing agent:

Back 262

may remove primary stain (removes first stain from SOME cells)

Front 263

counterstain:

Back 263

provides color contrast to primary stain (stains the cells that had the primary stain removed by the decolorizing agent)

Front 264

capsule:

Back 264

tight arrangement of secreted chemicals that adhere to a bacteria's surface

Front 265

slime layer:

Back 265

an irregular arrangement of secreted chemicals

Front 266

endospore:

Back 266

form when bacteria lack essential nutrients or water, very hardy, long hastin

Front 267

gram staining:

Back 267

tests a bacteria's cell wall peptidoglycan content

Front 268

positive gram staining:

Back 268

bacteria is dyed purple (indicates a large peptidoglycan content in the cell wall)

Front 269

negative gram staining:

Back 269

bacteria is dyed pink (indicates a small peptidoglycan content in the cell wall)

Front 270

acid fast stain:

Back 270

testing a bacteria's cell wall for mycolic acids

Front 271

acid fast positive stain:

Back 271

bacteria is dyed pink (indicates mycolic acid content in cell wall)

Front 272

acid fast negative stain:

Back 272

bacteria is dyed blue (indicates no mycolic acid content in cell wall)

Front 273

capsule stain:

Back 273

testing for the presence of a viscous coat surrounding bacteria (involves a negative stain)

Front 274

positive capsule stain:

Back 274

a clear halo forms around the bacteria (capsule present)

Front 275

negative capsule stain:

Back 275

no clear halo (no capsule present)

Front 276

spore stain:

Back 276

tests for the formation of spores

Front 277

positive spore stain:

Back 277

small green stain within the cells or in the surrounding matrix (spore present)

Front 278

negative spore stain:

Back 278

no small green stained spores (no spores present)

Front 279

selective media:

Back 279

prevents growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired organism

Front 280

enriched media:

Back 280

contains factors which enhance the growth of desired organism

Front 281

differential media:

Back 281

contains factors some bacteria can change in a recognizable way that allow it to be distinguished from other bacteria

Front 282

Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)

Back 282

selective: selects for staphylococcus and inhibits gram -

+ = growth
- = no growth

Front 283

MacConkey Agar

Back 283

tests for the presence of lactose fermenters

selective: bile salts and crystal violet inhibit gram + organisms

differential: pH indicator and lactose differentiate lactose fermenters

+= colonies grow (gram -) colonies turn PINK (lactose fermenters). most coliforms are lactose fermenters

Front 284

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

Back 284

differential: tests for ability to ferment mannitol

selective: inhibits gram -

+= agar around colony will be yellow (gram + organism can ferment mannitol)

Front 285

Pseudomonas P Agar

Back 285

differential: tests for color creation

selective: inhibits all microorganisms except pseudomonas

+= growth with a blue, green, red or dark brown (organism is a pseudomonas species)

- = no growth

Front 286

Blood Agar

Back 286

enrichment media: has 5% sheep or bovine blood

differential: tests for hemolysis

3 tests (alpha, beta, gamma)

alpha hemolysis= partial hemolysis, green to brown halo around colony

beta hemolysis= complete hemolysis - a clear area forms around colony

gamma hemolysis= no hemolysis (agar stays RED)

Front 287

enterobacteriacae:

Back 287

gram -

non spore forming bacilli found in the intestinal tract

Front 288

carbohydrates

Back 288

organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

(CH2O)n

Front 289

exoenzyme

Back 289

secreted enzymes that break down carbohydrates (work outside the cell)

Front 290

endoenzyme

Back 290

enzymes that are not secreted but work inside the bacteria (work inside the cell)

Front 291

oxidative

Back 291

organisms that require oxygen to catabolize nutrients

Front 292

Fermentative

Back 292

organisms that don't require oxygen to catabolize nutrients

by-products of fermentation are usually acidic organic end products or gas

some organisms can catabolize in the presence and absence of oxygen

Front 293

starch hydrolysis plate

Back 293

tests for the presence of exoenzyme amylase

+= after iodine is added to plate there is an area around the bacteria that doesn't turn blue black. clear zone indicates there was no starch for the iodine to bond to. (indicates the presence of amylase, bacteria produces amylase)

- = after iodine is added to plate the whole plate turns blue black. (amylase is not present, bacteria doesn't produce amylase)

Front 294

spirit blue agar

Back 294

testing for the presence of exoenzyme lipase

+ = clear area where bacteria is growing and a blue halo around the bacteria (indicates the presence of lipase, bacteria produces lipase)

- = dye has been pulled away from the bacteria (lipase is not present, bacteria doesn't produce lipase)

Front 295

OF glucose

Back 295

testing to see if the bacteria is able to catabolize glucose and if it is oxidative or fermentative

+ for oxidative = yellow layer formed in the upper part of the test tube (should show no yellow production in the tube that had mineral oil added)

+ for fermentative: yellow formed throughout the test tube (should show a yellow formed throughout the tube for those that had mineral oil added)

- = no yellow color formed (bacteria is not able to catabolize glucose)

Front 296

Carbohydrate (sucrose, glucose, or lactose) fermentation tubes

Back 296

testing to see if the bacteria is able to catabolize the carbohydrate that is in the media

+ = yellow color formed (carbohydrate catabolized acid end product produced) ; gas seen in durham tube (carbohydrate catabolized gas end product produced)

- = media stays red and no gas is seen in the durham tube

Front 297

MRVP

Back 297

test to distinguish between to bacteria found in fecal contaminated samples, (E.COLI AND ENTEROBACTER SPECIES)

MR test: tests for the presence of a pH around 4.5
+= after methyl red is added the tube stays red (high pH, E.coli present)
- = after methyl red is added the tube turns yellow (neutral pH, enterobacter species present)

VP test: tests for the end product acetoin
+ = after VP 1 and 2 reagents added a reddish pink color forms (acetoin present)
- = after VP 1 and 2 reagents added a brown/copper color forms (no acetoin present)

Front 298

TSI slant agar

Back 298

tests to see if bacteria can catabolize glucose, sucrose, lactose, produce end product gas or produces end product H2S

+ gas formation= agar breaks up due to gas formation (bacteria produces gas as an end product of fermentation)
+ glucose fermentation= bottom of tube turns yellow (bacteria ferments glucose)
+ for glucose, sucrose, and lactose fermentation= the entire agar in tube turns yellow (bacteria ferments glucose, sucrose and lactose)
+ for H2S production= bottom of agar turns black (bacteria produces H2S as an end product of fermentation)

BACTERIA CAN SHOW ANY OR NONE OF THESE + RESULTS

Front 299

Simmins citrate agar

Back 299

tests to see if organisms can break citric acid down to pyruvate

+ = agar changes from blue to green (bacteria can break down citric acid)

- = agar stays green (bacteria can't break citric acid down)

Front 300

deamination

Back 300

the removal of the amino group of an amino acid (NH2)

PH IS LOWERED

Front 301

decarboxylation

Back 301

removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the amino acid

PH IS RAISED

Front 302

what is the by product of a peptide bond formation?

Back 302

water

Front 303

what is used to break a peptide bond?

Back 303

enzyme uses a molecule of water

Front 304

Gelatin hydrolysis test

Back 304

tests for the presence of exoenzyme gelatinase

+= presence of a liquid after removal of the tube from incubator and recooling the gelatin tube (indicates the presence of gelatinase, bacteria produces gelatinase)

- = no liquid present, after removal of the tube from incubator and recooling the gelatin tube

Front 305

Urea test tube

Back 305

tests for the presence of exoenzyme urease

+ = tube turns hot pink (pH is now basic, indicates the presence of urease, bacteria produces urease)

- = tube stays yellow (pH is neutral)

Front 306

Phenylalanine deaminase

Back 306

tests if the bacteria is able to break down phenylalanine into phenylpyruvic acid

+ = after 1-% FeCl3 is added a GREEN COLOR forms on top of agar (indicates the presence of phenylpyruvic acid, bacteria can deaminate phenylalanine)

- = after 1-% FeCl3 is added COLOR REMAINS THE SAME

Front 307

Motility Indole Ornithine Tube (MIO)

Back 307

tests if bacteria has motility, produces an end product indole, can decarboxylate ornithine or ferments glucose

+ for motility= bacteria growth has spread throughout semisolid media
- for motility= bacteria stays in the area where it was first stabbed in
+ for indole production= after kovacs reagent is added to the tube, a red ring forms (indicates the presence of indole, the bacteria produces indole as an end product)
- for indole production= after kovacs reagent is added to the tube there is NO color change
+ for ornithine decarboxylation= a dark purple color forms in the agar (high pH , indicates ornithine is being decarboxylated, bacteria can break down ornithine)
+ for glucose fermentation= yellow color forms in the agar (low pH , indicates glucose is being fermented, bacteria ferments glucose)
- for glucose fermentation= tube color stays the same

Front 308

Sulfur Indole Motility agar (SIM)

Back 308

tests if the bacteria produces an end product H2S, produces an end product indole or has motility

+ for H2S production= part of tube turns black (bacteria produces H2S as an end product of fermentation)
+ for indole production= after kovacs reagent is added to the tube a red ring forms (indicates the presence of indole, the bacteria produces indole as an end product)
+ for motility= bacteria growth has spread throughout the agar

Front 309

obligate aerobe

Back 309

can't grow without oxygen present

Front 310

obligate anaerobe

Back 310

can't grow with oxygen present; oxygen is toxic, will kill bacteria

Front 311

microaerophiles

Back 311

grow best at suboptimal atmospheric oxygen levels (7-10%)

Front 312

facultative anaerobes

Back 312

grow best when oxygen present, but can grow without it

Front 313

aerotolerant anaerobes

Back 313

can't use oxygen for growth but aren't killed by it

Front 314

Metabolism

Back 314

-series of oxidation reduction reactions
-transfer of electrons to different molecules
-aerobic=metabolism occurs in the presence of oxygen
-anaerobic= metabolism occurs in the absence of oxygen
-facultative= metabolism occurs in both the presence and absence of oxygen

Front 315

Thioglycollate tubes

Back 315

have an oxygen gradient (lots of oxygen at top- no oxygen at bottom)

looking to see where bacteria grows in the tube

obligate aerobe- bacteria grows at the top only

obligate anaerobe- bacteria grows at the bottom only

microaerophile- bacteria will grow in a single band somewhere in the middle

facultative anaerobe- bacteria will grow best at top but there will be some growth throughout

aerotolerate anaerobe- bacteria will grow uniformly throughout the entire tube

Front 316

Oxidase test

Back 316

tests for the presence of cytochromes (tests if aerobic respiration is occurring)

+ = after placing 1 drop of oxidizing reagent on the bacteria you see a blue color form (aerobic respiration is occurring in the bacteria)

- = no color change takes place (aerobic respiration is not occurring at that moment)

Front 317

Catalase test

Back 317

tests for the presence of catalase enzyme (breaks down H2O2 a natural by product of aerobic respiration, H2O2 can damage DNA so must be removed)

+ = after placing a drop of H2O2 on the bacteria, bubbles start to form (indicates catalase is present)

- = after placing a drop of H2O2 on the bacteria, no bubbles form

Front 318

Nitrate Reduction Test

Back 318

tests ability of an organism to reduce nitrate (NO3) to nitrite (NO2) or even further to ammonia (NH3)

+ for nitrate reduction to nitrite= when nitrate reagents A and B are added, a red color forms (indicates nitrate has been reduced to nitrite , test stops here if red color forms -bacteria reduces nitrate to nitrite)

IF NO RED IS FORMED ZINC IS ADDED

+ for nitrate reduction to nitrite and then nitrite reduction to ammonia = no color change happens when zinc is added (zinc binds to nitrate to produce a red color. so , if there is no nitrate in the media then no red color will be produced, indicates bacteria reduced nitrate to nitrite and then nitrite to ammonia)

- = red color forms when zinc is added (indicates no reduction has happened at all and the nitrate is still there in full amount)

Front 319

autoclave

Back 319

a type of sterilization in which an object is heated (moist heat) in a pressurized chamber

Front 320

thermal death time (TDT)

Back 320

time required to kill a specific bacteria at a specific temperature

Front 321

decimal reduction time (DRT)

Back 321

time required to kill 90% of organisms present

Front 322

heat sensitivity rule of thumb

Back 322

cold inhibits growth; heat kills bacteria

Front 323

Dry heat

Back 323

less efficient at heat transfer than moist heat (need hotter temperatures or longer times)

end result = ash and different types of gas

Front 324

moist heat

Back 324

highly efficient way to transfer heat

mechanism: enzyme denaturation and protein coagulation (clumping)

Front 325

autoclaving

Back 325

uses pressure within a closed vessel to raise water's boiling temperature

KILLS SPORES

Front 326

electromagnetic spectrum

Back 326

shorter wavelength= higher energy

longer wavelength= lower energy

Front 327

DNA structure

Back 327

-double helix
-phosphate backbone: hydrogen bonds between backbone groups reason for double helix shape

Front 328

ionizing radiation

Back 328

enough energy to create free radical (free electrons)

(electrons have a negative charge)

Front 329

types of DNA repair enzymes

Back 329

light repair= photolyses are activated by light and repair damage

dark repair= not dependent on the presence of light for activation

Front 330

semipermeable

Back 330

some things can pass through but not all

Front 331

diffusion

Back 331

solute movement that results from kinetic energy

- this occurs in the cell when the solute that is moving is capable of traveling through the membrane

Front 332

osmosis

Back 332

specific type of diffusion involving water

-occurs when there is a difference in concentration of an impermeable solute between the environment outside the cell and the environment inside the cell. water moves so the concentration of solute to water is equal

Front 333

hypotonic

Back 333

there is a higher solute concentration inside the membrane (low outside concentration, high inside concentration)

- net flow water in

Front 334

hypertonic

Back 334

there is a higher solute concentration outside the membrane (high outside concentration, low inside concentration)

-net flow of water out

Front 335

halophilic

Back 335

salt loving

Front 336

facultative halophilic bacteria

Back 336

bacteria that can tolerate a 10% salt environment

Front 337

extreme halophiles

Back 337

bacteria that require 15%-20% salt environment to grow

Front 338

psychrophiles

Back 338

bacteria that grow at 0 degrees to 20 degrees celsius (VERY COLD)

Front 339

psychrotrophs

Back 339

bacteria that grow at 15-35 degrees C (CAN HANDLE COLD)

Front 340

mesophiles

Back 340

bacteria that grow at 20-40 degrees C (NORMAL)

Front 341

thermophiles

Back 341

bacteria that grow at 40-90 degrees C (HOT)

Front 342

hyperthermophiles

Back 342

bacteria that grow at 65-115 degrees C (VERY HOT)

Front 343

know what molecules are likely to pass through membrane and which are not

Back 343

hydrophobic molecules can easily pass through (non polar carbon molecules)

hydrophilic molecules don't pass easily through (ionic molecules, have a charge)

Front 344

know about pH

Back 344

more H+ = more acidic = lower pH

less H+ = more basic = higher pH

Front 345

antimicrobial agent

Back 345

something that inhibits bacterial growth or kills bacteria

Front 346

disinfectants

Back 346

chemical agents used on inanimate objects (to inhibit or kill bacteria)

Front 347

antiseptics

Back 347

chemical agents used on living tissue (to inhibit or kill bacteria)

Front 348

sanitizers

Back 348

must be capable of killing 99.999% of a specific bacterial population in 30 seconds

Front 349

bacteriostatic

Back 349

doesn't kill bacteria, temporarily inhibits bacterial growth

Front 350

antibiotic

Back 350

chemotherapeutic agent that can be used topically (on skin) or absorbed internally (taken as a pill) to inhibit bacterial growth (bacteriostatic) or kill the bacteria (bacteriodcidal)

Front 351

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Back 351

the minimum amount of a specific type of antibiotic that is needed to inhibit the growth of bacteria

Front 352

Disinfectant test tube

Back 352

tests to see if a certain bacteria can grow in a tube mixed with disinfectant (tested at different times)

+ = no bacteria growth seen in tube (disinfectant can stop the growth of that type of bacteria - given the time of interaction)

- = bacteria growth seen in tube (disinfectant cant stop the growth of that type of bacteria- given the time of interaction)