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282 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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The bacteria Clostridium difficile don't cause problems until they grow in abnormally large numbers in the
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intestinal tract
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Mumps is a disease caused by the virus that usually spreads through salive and can infect many parts of the body, especially the..
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parotid salivary glands
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One of th sidee effects of Clostridium difficile is...
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diarrhea
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All of the following put you at greater risk of contracting Clostridium difficile except...
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swimming once a day
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Clostridium difficile is...
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anaerobic
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Clostridium difficile is most commonly contracted after which of the following?
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a round of antibiotics
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Which of the following is NOT a way mumps can be spread?
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burping
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The word "mumps" originally meant _______, and came to be applied to the disease because of the side effects it causes.
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to mumble
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The most common preventative measure against mumps is...
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getting a vaccine
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Which of the following are symptoms of Clostridium difficile?
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fever, abdominal pain, dehydration
d. all of the above |
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Chlamydia is a gram _____ bacteria; that lives inside a host cell as an ______ intracellular parasite.
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Negative; obligate
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The chlamydia bacterium has a unique cell wall that aparently prevents the ____ from using the ________ inside phagocytes.
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Phagosome; lysosome
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Chlamydia is transmitted through ___ ___ or ____ sex
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vaginal, anal, oral
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Chlamydia can be prevented by _______ and ______
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condoms; abstinence
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In 2002 approximately ____ cases of Chlamydia were reported in the US, but the actual infection rate may be ____ times that number
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850,000, 5-7
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Syphilis was first recognized at the turn of the _____ century when ____ returned from the West Indies
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15th; Columbus
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Syphilis mimics symptoms of ____ and ____.
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gonorrhea; Chlamydia
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The bacterium T. Pallidum is ______ and cannot survive long _____the host mainly because of heat, drying, soap and high oxygen changes.
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Fastidious; outside
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Risk of infection from an infected syphilis partner is ____% - ____%
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12-30%
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Syphilis is a ______, thin regular coiled cell with a Gram _____ cell wall.
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Spirochete; negative
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Yellow fever is also known as all of the following EXCEPT:
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Dengue fever
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Yellow fever is a viral disease that has caused large epidemics in
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Africa & Americas
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Which of the following is the primary animal reservoir for yellow fever
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Wild birds, mammals, mosquitos
D. all of the above |
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Over the last 20 years, the number of yellow fever epidemics has
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Increased
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Yellow fever is usually accompanied by
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Jaundice
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Which of the following is not true about mononucleosis?
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Its most common amoung people 35-65 yrs of age
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Mononucleosis is usually passed from one person to another by
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Kissing
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Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of mononucleosis?
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hearing loss
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How is mononucleosis treated?
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Only symptoms are treated
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What is the incubation period for mono?
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4-6 wks
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Which of these type of Vaginitis is not spread by sexual intercourse?
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Noninfectious vaginitis
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Vaginitis is caused most often by?
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Bacterial, fungal and parasitic
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Bacterial vaginitis can result in?
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fishy milky discharge
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Prevention of vaginitis includes?
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wearing cotton underwear
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Which method is used to diagnose vaginitis?
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Gram stain
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Candida albican can affect all of the following except
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trachea
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Candida albican can cause which of the following problems
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in the kidney, can cause blood in urine
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Treatment for Candida albican include which of the following?
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Antibiotics, Antifungals, OTC
D. all of the above |
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People who suffer from Candida albican have all of the following symptoms except?
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loss of appetite
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Imbalance in your system initiated by exposure to and use of the following except?
(Vaginitis) |
eating yogurt
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Which types of hepatitis are typically caused by ingestion of contaminated food or water?
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Hepatitis A & E
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What are not symptoms of hepatitis?
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light sensitivity
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What type of hepatitis can be transmitted by sexual contact?
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Hepatitis B
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Hepatitis can be caused by
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chemicals, viruses, inherited diseases
D. All of the above |
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Which type is the most common cause of acute viral hepatitis?
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Hepatitis B
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How many people worldwide does Schistosomiasis infect?
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More than 200 million
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The symptoms of schistosomiasis are caused by:
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egg production
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What country is schistosomiasis found?
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Antigua
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Up to how long can the parasite live after leaving the host snail?
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48 hrs
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The parasitic worms grow in what part of the body?schistosomiasis
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inside blood vessels
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Scientists discovered the increase in paralytic poliomyelitis was probably due to
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an increase in public sanitation and hygiene
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Which one of these individuals was assumed to be infected with the polio virus in early adulthood?
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Franklin D. Roosevelt
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Religious leaders in _____ urged a boycott of the polio vaccinations, claiming the US was using the vaccines to infect Muslims with HIV or to make them infertile.
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Nigeria
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The polio virus is one of the ____ viruses and consists of a _____.
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Smallest; icosahedral capsid
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Polio virus is made up from a
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Single-strand RNA molecule
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A Zoonotic disease is a disease that is transmitted by ______ to _______ by direct or indirect contact
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Wild mammals to humans; Domestic animals to humans
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The rabies infection cycle is completed when
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the virus replicates in the salivary glands and is shed in the saliva
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Most common carrier of rabies in the state of Texas is
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coyotes
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When is the dianosis of rabies often determined?
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during an autopsy
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All of these are treatments for an exposure to rabies except?
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suturing the open wound
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How many herpes viruses are known to infect humans?
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8
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Name the two most widely known Herpes viruses?
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Herpes simplex 1 & 2
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How long does the Herpes virus last?
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Lifetime
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What is the mode of transmission for most Herpes virus?
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contact
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What types of diseases are associated with the Herpes virus?
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STD
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What do the initials HPV stand for?
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Human papillomavirus
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What type of cancer was recently linked to HPV?
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Cervical
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What is the name of the vaccine that helps protect against cervical cancer?
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Gardasil
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How many doses are needed of the vaccine? HPV
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3
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What is one of the common manifestations of HPV?
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genital warts
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When bacteria multiply rapidly in the middle ear, pus production and continued fluid secretion increases. This fluid is referred to as:
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effusion
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Which of the following could be a cause for both otitis media and pneumonia?
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Streptococcus pneumonia
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For a vaccine to be effective against bacterial otitis media, it must, at the very least:
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contain antigens that induce a protective immune response in the middle ear against the three most common infecting bacteria
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The major difference between otitis media with effusion and acute otitis media is:
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otitis media with effusion does not involve signs or symptoms of infection while acute otitis media is a middle ear infection
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Children are more likely to suffer from otitis media than adults because
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the eustachian tubes in a child are shorter and straighter than in an adult
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Which of the following statements is true?
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Bacterial pneumonia can occur at the same time as viral pneumonia
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The two types of pneumonia are:
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Community acquired pneumonias and nosocomial pneumonias
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Why are cephalosporins now prescribed for pneumonia caused by S. pneumonia
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Many isolates of S pneumonia are resistant to penicillin and its derivatives.
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Diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia may be difficult because:
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the lack of acute illness in patients that has given rise to the name "walking pneumonia"
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why are people who require mechanical ventilation particularly at risk for pneumonia?
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The breathing tube bypasses the normal defenses of the respiratory tract, prevents coughing and may allow the stomachs contents back up into the esophagus where they can be aspirated and harbor bacteria
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What name did the media give the Irish cook who infected dozens of people with typhoid fever?
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Typhoid Mary
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What bacterium causes typhoid fever?
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Salmonella typhi
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When was typhoid bacteria discovered?
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1874
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What prevention methods can be used for typhoid fever?
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Avoid risky foods, avoid contaminated water, get vaccinated
D. all of the above |
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Where would you most likely be exposed to typhoid fever?
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Asia
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What is one symptom of a hookworm infection?
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itching rash at point of contact
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Hookworms have a complex life cycle that beigns and ends in the?
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small intestine
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What is the most common transmission of hookworms?
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Contaminated soil
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What is a serious health problem that can be caused by a hookworm infection?
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Anemia and protein deficiency caused by blood loss
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Why are hookworms considered zoonotic?
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can be passed from animals to humans
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What is the scientific name for "new world" hookworm?
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Necator americanus
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The most significant risk of hookworm infection is ____
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Anemia
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What is new world hookworm's mode of attachment?
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Oral attachment
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How many eggs does the average female new world hookworm lay?
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5,000 - 10,000
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What is used for treatment of hookworms in the intestinal stage and during the stage the parasite is still migrating under the skin?
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Albendazole
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What is the primary source of infection for traveler's diarrhea?
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food and water contaminated with fecal matter
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The most significant risk of traveler's diarrhea is ____
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dehydration
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The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is ____
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ETEC
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When should you consult your doctor about traveler's diarrhea?
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after a week
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All are reasons one should NOT take antibiotics for traveler's diarrhea EXCEPT:
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can cure the infection
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RSV is an acronym for
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Respiratory syncytial virus
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RSV is characterized by all of these signs and symptoms except:
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diarrhea
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A member of what group of people would be at greater risk of developing a life threatening case of RSV
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Premature infants
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For a patient that is admitted to the hospital for severe RSV, he would probably receive all of the following except:
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antibiotics
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During which of these holidays would you be the most concerned about a newborn being exposed to RSV at a family gathering?
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Christmas (December)
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The signs and symptoms of pharyngitis are all of these except:
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chest pain
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When diagnosed with viral pharyngitis a patient should be advised to do all of the following except:
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complete all of their antibiotics
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Pharyngitis can be caused by many different microorganisms including all of these except:
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E. coli
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Streptococcal pharyngitis can affect other body systems including all of these except:
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hair loss from toxins
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A physician will run a number of tests when evaluating a patient with pharyngitis to differentiate between a viral and bacterial infection. The most common test would be
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Rapid strep test
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What is the most common type of Botulism?
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food borne
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Which of the following is not a symptom of Botulism?
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contracted muscles
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On average, how many cases of botulism are reported in the United States each year?
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110
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What is the cause of most food borne botulism outbreaks in the United States?
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home processed foods
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Which of the following helped reduce the fatality rate of Botulism over the past few decades?
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Modern food preservation, respiratory support systems, cardiac support systems
D. all of the above |
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Which of the following are symptoms of African Sleeping Sickness?
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Joint pain, intermittent fever, enlarged spleen
D. all of the above |
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How does african sleeping sickness effect the sleep patterns of those afflicted?
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Sleepy during the day, insomnia at night
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How do people become infected with African Sleeping Sickness?
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being bitten by the tsetse fly
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Where is the only place where African Sleeping Sickness occurs?
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Sub-Saharan Africa
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What system if most affected by African Sleeping Sickness?
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Nervous
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How is influenza transmitted?
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Aerosol droplets
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Which of these is NOT a COMMON symptom of the flu?
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vomiting
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Who should get the flu vaccine each year?
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Children 6mos-19yrs, adults over 50, health care workers
D. all of the above |
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On average, how many people die each year in the US from the flu?
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36,000
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A person should not get the flu vaccine if they are allergic to ____
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eggs
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Tuberculosis generally affects what system of the body
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respiratory
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What techniques is used to diagnose Tuberculosis
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skin testing, chest x-rays, acid-fast staining
D. all of the above |
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Tuberculosis is caused by a _____
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bacterium
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If a person's reaction to the TB skin test is a raised area of 2mm, this would indicate a _______ result
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negative
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What organ does Tuberculosis typically affect?
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lungs
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Cat scratch fever, also known as cat scratch disease, is a _____ disease.
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bacterial
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Cat scratch fever can be contracted by a cat or kitten by which contact:
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licking, biting, scratching
D. all of the above |
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Cat scratch fever can be resolved by which methods?
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Antibiotics; or without any treatment
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The duration of the disease (cat scratch fever) lasts:
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2 to 4 months
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After being infected with the disease,(cat scratch fever) most humans are:
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immune to the disease for the rest of their lives
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Symptoms and signs of ehrlichiosis include all of the following except:
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seizures
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All of the following are effective ways to prevent ehrlichiosis except:
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burning matches
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Which of the following is the best way to remove a tick?
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fine tipped tweezers
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Ehrlichiosis is:
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a tick borne disease, several bacterial diseases, zoonotic
D. all of the above |
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Ehrlichiosis is transmitted:
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by ticks
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The bacteria assocated with acne is named what?
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Propionibacterium acnes
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The earliest known documentation of acne can be found where?
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Ancient Egypt writings
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Propionibacterium acnes can be commonly found where?
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your skin
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Teenagers are more susceptible to acne because of what?
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increase in hormonal production
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Other names for acne include what?
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zits, blackheads, whiteheads
D. all of the above |
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Scalded skin syndrome is caused by what organism?
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Staphylococcus aurea
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The appearance of the skin with an infection from Scalded Skin syndrome most closely resembles what?
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skin that has been burned with hot water
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What group of people are most likely to suffer from Scalded Skin syndrome?
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Infants
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The usual outcome after an infection with Scalded Skin Syndrome is what?
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full recovery
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Of the following, which is not a treatment of Scalded Skin Syndrome?
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isolating carriers of Staphylococcus aureas from patients
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What does the abbreviation HIV stand for?
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Human Immunodeficiency Virus
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HIV can be isolated from all 4 of these, but only one can be considered a source of infection. Which one?
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blood
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The HIV virus is believed to be a hybrid virus related to a virus from what animal?
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monkey
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Which of the following is not a common mode of transmission of HIV?
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airborne (endospore)
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What is HIV clcassified as?
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retrovirus
|
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What was Lyme disease named after?
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first recognized outbreak was in the city of Old Lyme, Connecticut
|
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Lyme disease is caused by what?
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the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
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What is an early symptom of Lyme disease?
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rash at the site of a tick bite
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You find a tick on your leg. What method should you use to remove it to avoid infection?
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gently remove tick with forceps without crushing it
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What is the most common mode of transmission of Lyme disease?
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vector (biological)
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What is the organism that causes chicken pox?
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Varicella-zoster virus
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How is chicken pox spread?
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through the air, direct contact, mother to unborn child
D. all of the above |
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How are Shingles contracted?
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reactivation of the chicken pox virus
|
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How long does chicken pox normally last?
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7-10 days
|
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When is chicken pox contagious?
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2 days before the rash appears and until all blisters have crusted over
|
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What causes ringworm?
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Dermatophytes
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Which of the following is NOT a form of ringworm?
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Tinea ovalis
|
|
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How many different species of ringworm are there?
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39
|
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Who is susceeptible to ringworm infections?
|
Humans, dogs, cats
D. all of the above |
|
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How is ringworm normally treated?
|
topical ointment
|
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The last natural case of smallpox was recorded in
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1977
|
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Small pox was often confused with what childhood disease?
|
chicken pox
|
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River blindness is transmitted by
|
the black fly
|
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A statue in Africa dedicated to sufferers of River blindness depicts
|
a blind man being led by a young boy
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The U.S. Government recently stockpiled smallpox vaccine in 2001 in response to
|
bio-terror attack threat
|
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Smallpox is deadly in approximately _______ of all cases.
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30%
|
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___________ first demonstrated that cowpox could be used to vaccinate against small pox.
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Edward Jenner
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River blindness symptoms occur approximately _______ after initial infection.
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2 to 3 years
|
|
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River blindness, Onchocerca volvulus is caused by
|
a parasitic nematode
|
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New research indicates that blindness in O. volvulus cases could be linked to
|
bacterial infection
|
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Which of the following is NOT a possible manifestation of the plague?
|
Hematologic plague
|
|
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which of the following is the causitive agent of the plague?
|
Yersinia pestis
|
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_____ are the principal agents in the transmission of the plague bacterium.
|
Fleas
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Death can occur as quickly as _____ days after the appearance of symptoms.Plague
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2-4 days
|
|
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Bubo is:
|
a swollen lesion that occurs in Bubonic plague
|
|
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Dengue fever is caused by
|
a single-strand RNA flavivirus
|
|
|
Dengue fever is carried by:
|
Aedes mosquitos
|
|
|
Dengue fever is also called:
|
breakbone fever
|
|
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Dengue fever is endemic to:
|
Southeast asia and India
|
|
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Cases of dengue fever in Mexico have increased _____% since 2001.
|
600%
|
|
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Which one of the following is the morphological form of a pinworm?
|
nematode
|
|
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What is the name of the condition caused by pinworm infection?
|
enterobiasis
|
|
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What region of the body does the pinworm take up residency?
|
intestine
|
|
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In what location are the eggs of the pinworm lain and hatch on the host?
|
anus
|
|
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What is the most common treatment of pinworm?
|
Mebendazole
|
|
|
One of the primary conditions of flukes disease is
|
Katayama fever
|
|
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After development in the water, each egg releases a miracidium which will then invade a _______ host. Fluke
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snail
|
|
|
In humans, maturation from metacercariae into adult flukes takes approximately
|
3 to 4 months
|
|
|
Humans can become infected with metacercariae by ingesting
|
fresh water fish
|
|
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The parasitic disease caused by fluke infection is called?
|
schistosomiasis
|
|
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What is the name of the bacteria that causes Hansen's disease?
|
Mycobacterium leprae
|
|
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Where can Mycobacterium leprae be cultured?
|
footpads of armadillos
|
|
|
What is the total number of new cases of Hansen's disease reported each year?
|
300 to 500
|
|
|
The microbe that causes Hansen's disease is a
|
mesophile
|
|
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The following are all types of Hansen's disease except:
|
epidermidis leprosy
|
|
|
The bacteria that causes gas gangrene is:
|
Clostridium perfringes
|
|
|
Gas gangrene is caused by a
|
Gram positive bacteria
|
|
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Another name for gas gangrene is
|
clostridial myonecrosis
|
|
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The most potent exotoxin produced by gas gangrene is
|
alpha toxin
|
|
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Gas gangrene is also known as clostridial myonecrosis. What is another form of gas gangrene?
|
anaerobic cellulitis
|
|
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The bacteria associated with acne is named what?
|
d. Propionibacterium acnes
|
|
|
The earliest known documentation of acne can be found where?
|
d. Ancient Egypt writings
|
|
|
Propionibacterium acnes can be commonly found where?
|
c. your skin
|
|
|
Teenagers are more susceptible to acne because of what?
|
c. increase in hormone production
|
|
|
Other names for acne include what?
|
a. zits b. blackheads
c. whiteheads d. all of the above |
|
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Scalded Skin Syndrome is caused by what organism?
|
d. Staphylococcus aurea
|
|
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The appearance of the skin with an infection from Scalded Skin Syndrome most closely resembles what?
|
d. skin that has been burned with hot water
|
|
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What group of people are most likely to suffer from Scalded Skin Syndrome?
|
c. infants
|
|
|
The usual outcome after an infection with Scalded Skin Syndrome is what?
|
d. full recovery
|
|
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Of the following, which is not a treatment of Scalded Skin Syndrome?
|
c. chemotherapy
|
|
|
How many cases of salmonellosis are reported in the U.S. each year?
|
40,000
|
|
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What is the normal treatment for salmonellosis?
|
hydration
|
|
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What body system does salmonellosis affect?
|
digestive
|
|
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Food contaminated with _____ is the way salmonellosis is transmitted.
|
feces
|
|
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What other disease is caused byb the salmonella bacterium?
|
typhoid
|
|
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What is the normal port of entry of cholera?
|
mouth
|
|
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What is the common portal of exit for cholera?
|
feces
|
|
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What body system does cholera affect?
|
digestive
|
|
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What blood type is more susceptible to severe cholera?
|
"O" blood type
|
|
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How does cholera make you ill?
|
exotoxins
|
|
|
The first symptoms of Pertussis to appear are:
|
runny nose, sneezing, mild cough and low grade fever
D. all of above |
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What is another name for Pertussis?
|
whooping cough
|
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Before the vaccine was invented, pertussis killed 5,000 to 10,000 people in the US each year. Since the vaccine, the number of deaths has been reduced to less than:
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30
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How long is the incubation period for pertussis?
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between 7 to 10 days, but as long as 21 days
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If your child has prolonged coughing episodes, at what point does he/she need to be examined by a doctor?
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coughing makes child red/purple, followed by vomiting, followed by "whooping" sound
D. all of the above |
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Which Queen of England had a daughter die from diptheria?
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Queen Victoria
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What was one of the first effective treatments for diptheria?
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Inserting tubes into the throat to prevent airway obstruction
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As diptheria progresses, the patient may experience:
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difficutly swallowing/breathing, double vision, slurred speech, going into shock
E. all of the above |
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If left untreated, what percentage of people can die from diptheria?
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40-50%
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Diptheria is preventable by having your child vaccinated. This is a combination vaccine known as
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DTP or DTaP
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What are the four deadly strains of Ebola?
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Ebola-Ivory, Ebola-Sudan, Ebola-Zaire, Ebola-Reston
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In what year was Ebola first recognized?
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1976
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How many cases have ever been reported in the U.S.? ebola
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Zero
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Early symptoms can easily be mistaken for what disease? ebola
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Malaria
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Ebola can be transmitted mainly by only the following:
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Airborne
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What is the incubation range for the Ebola virus?
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2-21 days
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In Ebola-Reston, what animal is thought to be a reservoir host?
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monkeys
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Marburg is in the same family as what other virus?
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Ebola
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When was Marburg Haemorrhagic fever initially detected?
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1967
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What is the incubation time for Marburg?
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3-9 days
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In fatal cases how long does it take to die from this disease?Marburg
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8-9 days
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What age groups are most susceptible to Marburg?
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Adults
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What microorganism contributes to the cause of gastric ulcers?
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Helicobacter
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This microorganism was first detected by ______, while conducting biopsies in ulcer patients.
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J. Robin Warren
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Where do gastric ulcers normally occur?
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In the mucosa of the stomach and upper part of the small intestines
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With what blood type has the highest rate of finding ulcers occured in?
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"O"
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What habits or factors aggrevate gastric ulcers, but were once thought to be the cause?
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High sugar diets
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Trichinosis is caused by eating what type of food?
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Eating raw or undercooked meat from animals infected with the worm Trichinella
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What is one way Trichinosis can be transmitted human to human?
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Cannibalism
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What medicines can cure Trichinosis once it has encysted in the muscles?
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There is no cure once it has encysted in the muscles.
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What is one symptom normally found in the first phase of Trichinosis?
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mimics influenza - diarrhea, nausea, fever
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What is a preventable measure to take to avoid getting Trichinosis?
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Cooking meat thoroughly
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The symptoms of viral conjuctivitis include all of the following except:
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Green and yellow discharge from the eyes
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How is conjunctivitis transmitted?
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Direct contact with the infected person's eye drainage or drainage from cough
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Conjuctivitis is commonly known as
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pink eye
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How does one treat viral conjuctivitis?
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Warm washcloth placed on the eyes several times per day
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Bacterial conjuctivitis is caused by which bacteria?
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Staphylococci, Pneumococci, Streptococci
D. All of the above |
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The symptoms for measles include all of the following EXCEPT:
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loss of motor skills
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How are measles transmitted?
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From person to person via aerosol droplets containing virus particles
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After transmission occurs, the measles virus replicates in all of the following body systems EXCEPT:
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reproductive system
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What is used to treat measles patients?
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No specific treatment for measles
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For internation travelers, what is acceptable evidence of immunity to measles?
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documented administration of vaccine, laboratory evidence, birth before 1957, documentation of physician-diagnosed measles
E. All of the above |
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Lymphodema is
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improper functioning of lymph systems
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W. bancrofti is
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the worm that causes 90% of lymphodema cases
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Elephantiasis is less intense in _______ because ________.
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natives, immunologically resistant
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Blood samples must be taken at night to identify disease (lympodema) because:
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microfilariae are nocturnally periodic
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How is elephantiasis treated?
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yearly treatment of DEC
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Anthrax has a polypeptide capsule and a tripartite composed of 3 proteins, what are these proteins?
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Edema factor, protective agent, lethal factor
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When vaccinated for anthrax, how are inoculations administered?
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6 inoculations over 1.5 years with yearly booster
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When animals infected with anthrax die, how should their carcasses be disposed of?
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burned or chemically decontaminated before burial
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In the 2001 attacks on the Hart Office Building, ______ was initially used because strain was feared to be ______ resistant
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ciprofloxacin, penicillin
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Central spores of anthrax develop under all growth conditions EXCEPT:
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living body of host.
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