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144 Cards in this Set

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What are the major target sites of antibiotics? (3)

Cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis and nucleic acid synthesis

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics?

Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth, bactericidal antibiotics kill the cell

How do antibiotics such as penicillin inhibit cell wall synthesis?

They contain beta-lactam structures which mimic the D-ala-ala binding site of transpeptidase which forms a cross links between peptidoglycan chains

How do some bacteria become resistant to penicillin and how is this combatted? (2)

- They produce B lactamases that degrade the ring structure of penicillin



- strains of penicillin are combined with clavulanic acid which is a beta lactamase inhibitor circumventing the organism's resistant to penicillin

How do antibiotics such as kanamycin and tetracycline, inhibit protein synthesis? (2)

Bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit creating fissures in the of cell membrane leading to cell lysis. only effective against aerobic bacteria

How do antibiotics such as fluoroquinolone and erythromycin inhibit nucleic acid synthesis? (2)

Erythromycin bind to 50s subunit and prevents incoming trnas from binding



Fluoroquinolone bind to DNA gyrase prevent in supercoiling of DNA and inhibiting replication

What is an anti metabolite?

Molecules such as sulphonamides that prevent folate synthesis

What are the two over all types of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

Natural resistance which is a lack of target structure or impermeable to the antibiotic



And developed bacterial resistance which is required by the bacteria

What are the three mechanisms by which a bacteria develops resistance to an antibiotic?

Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic, modification of the target or development of a pump that removes the antibiotic by efflux mechanism

What are the three main reasons why bacteria develop antibiotic resistance?

Selection pressure of the antibiotics darwinism, transfer of resistance genes and rapid cell division

What are the three types of transfer of resistance genes?

Transduction where DNA is transferred via bacteriophage transformation where naked DNA is taken from the surrounding environment, conjugation where two cells exchange DNA via plasmids

What is a resistome?

A reservoir of resistance genes sometimes present in non pathogenic bacteria

Give an example of enzymatic inactivation resistance

Resistance to beta-lactams in the case of penicillin occurs when beta-lactamases cleave the Beta lactam ring inactivating the antibiotic

Give an example of active efflux resistance mechanism

Tetracycline resistance is an example of this, cytoplasmic membrane protein pumps out the antibiotic immediately

Give an example of target modification resistance

A form of penicillin resistance involves transpeptidase having an altered shapes therefore penicillin can no longer bind and inhibit crosslinks of peptidoglycan chains

What are the two categories of fungus to kill insects?

Entomophthorales = invade and kill via spores and also host specific


Nematode trapping fungi (ascomyota) = forms traps when available nitrogen is low, used in biological control for nematodes

Describe how necrotrophs penetrate hosts using their appressaria formation (3)

The end of the germ tube swells and anchors to the leaf surface, there is an increase in turgor pressure and the peg punches through the plant cell wall

What are haustoria? (3)

Vascular like structures produced by fungi, penetrate only the cell wall and used to siphon sugars from a host

What are the two types of fungal plant diseases?

Necrotrophs- invade and kill the plant quickly and then live on the remains


biotroph found in living plants do not kill the host and possess Haustoria

Name 5 types of damage caused by plant bacterial diseases

- Soft rots


- Wilts = clogged vascular tissue


- blights= rapid destruction of plant tissue


- canker sores


- plant tumours

What are 3 factors produced by pathogens to cause damage?

Toxins = interfere with wholesale mechanisms of metabolism


enzymes =used to penetrate the Host that break down molecules for assimilation


growth regulators = of the growth of host a favour pathogen invasion

What are the seven factors of emergent / re emergence of diseases?

Demographics news 2 cities more crowded


transportation bolt processing economic development


international travel


microbial adaptation


biological warfare and breakdown of public health measures

What are the three types of epidemic control measures?

Eliminate= quarantine and isolate the source


Break connection between source and host


Raise level of herd immunity vaccinate

What is antigenic shift?

Gene exchange between different strains Leads to major changes in virus protein coat

What is antigenic drift? (2)

- Minor antigenic variation due to mutation


- hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase change leading to formation of a new strain

What is herd immunity?

Resistance of a population to an infection due to the immunity of the majority

What are the two types of epidemic?

Common source = surprise to a peak very rapid decline



propagated = slow rise and gradual decline

What is the difference between morbidity and mortality rate?

Mobility rate is the number of individuals become an ill and mortality rate is relationship between death and kisses

Define endemic epidemic and pandemic diseases

Endemic low levels at frequent intervals



epidemic sudden increase larger than expected



pandemic increase simultaneously over wide area

What is human papillomavirus (HPV)? (2)

-Causes warts



-sometimes oncogenic such as HPV 16 and 18 that cause cervical cancer

What are adenoviruses?(4)

-Mostly non serious infections


-Types 1-7 respiratory in nature


-Types 8 and 9 keratoconjunctivitis


-Types of 11 and 21 hemorrhagic cystitis (very serious)

What are paramyxoviruses? (3)

-Measles, mumps and rubella


-common childhood disease, congenital rubella can lead to blindness and mental retardation


- RNA genetic material

What are the three types of human herpesvirus?

Herpes Simplex Virus= HSV1: Cold sores, HSV2: genital herpes


Vericella zoster virus= VZV: chickenpox and shingles

How do anti flu drugs such as tamiflu and relenza work?

The block budding of cell membranes and exit of virions

How are influenza viruses defined?

By hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase antigens



E.g H1N1 : swine flu

Name the 4 main viral genuses with examples

Enterovirus= polio


hepatovirus=hepatitis A


rhinovirus=common cold


aphthovirus = foot and mouth

What are the four main methods of viral transmission?

Inhalation


ingestion


inoculation: through skin or mucous membrane


congenital:mother to the foetus

What are endotoxins? (3)

- Cause toxic shock


- lipopolysaccharide in outer leaflet of gram negative bacteria


- toxin blebs off


How does botulinum toxin work? (2)

- Bind glycoprotein on neurones



- inhibits acetylcholine release, preventing contraction leading to paralysis

How do phospholipase enzymes act as cytotoxins? (2)

-Removes the charged head group from phospholipids


-destabilize the membrane and cell dies

What are the three types of Exotoxins?

Enterotoxins= cholera toxin cytotoxins = phospholipase enzymes and neurotoxins= botox

Name the 3 stages of host Invasion for bacteria

-Colonisation of epithelial surfaces


-penetration of epithelial cells and


-penetration of deeper itssues

What are the two ways bacteria adhere to host surfaces?

Using peritrichous fimbrae with adhesins


Or non-fimbrial adhesins on bacteria surface

What are the two determinants of virulence of bacteria?

- Capsule = inhibits phagocytosis




- Toxins = cause damage

What is virulence and how is it measured?(2)

Degree of pathogenicity




LD50 - lethal dose to kill 50% of the population




Most virulent = lowest LD50

What are 3 problems encountered w/ Kochs Postulates?

- Some bacteria cannot be grown in laboratory media




- Ethical issues (AIDs, Ebola)




- No suitable animal model ( gonorrhea)

How is cause and effect of microbial infections (KOCHS POSTULATES) proven? (4)

- organisms extracted from lesions


- Grown/ cultured in lab


- Organism tested to see if disease reproduced in animal


- organism is then reisolated to confirm

Describe the stages of infection for a highly virulent pathogen e.g syphilis (3)

- Primary lesions




- secondary stage = spread to other tissues




- latent phase (years) tertiary symptoms develop ( insanity and death)

How do termites solve the problem of low nitrogen in wood?

They have Nitrgoen fixing spirochetes in their intestines that provide 60% of their nitrogen

What are tremorgens in relation to ruminants? (3)

- Chemicals produced by fungi




- Excite/inhibit smooth muscle, reducing rumen function




- Can also effect skeletal muscle ( "ryegrass staggers")

What is lichen? (2)

- Association of fungus + algae/cyanobacteria






- Algae provides sugars, fungus protects against dessication

What is the difference between hind gut fermenter + rumen fermenters?

Hind gut = Extension of lower small intestine, After stomach, first mech to evolve, poor efficient




Rumen = 4 Chambered stomach, Before stomach, More efficient

Describe how biofilm forms on catheters (3)

- S. epidermidis cells attach to catheter




- Plasma proteins coat catheter ( Conditional film)




- bacteria replicate forming antibiotic resistant biofilm

What are opportunistic pathogens?

Pathogens/bacteria that do not usually cause disease and are naturally commensal

What are the 3 benefits of microbiota?

- Synthesise and excrete vitamins ( K+ B12)




- prevent colonisation by pathogens ( compete w/ them)




- Antagonise other harmful bacteria

How is T-DNA exploited for genetic engineering? (2)

- Both hormone genes and opine gene removed




- replaced w/ desired gene between left and right border will be transferred

What is the purpose of agrobacteria integrating its T-DNA into the host plant cell? (2)

- T-DNA containing genes for auxin, cytokynin, + opines ( AA for bacteria)




- These encourage proliferation ( tumour formation) to develop disease

Describe the plant defence mechanism in response to agrobacterium infection ( 3)

- Detects flagella




- Causes production of Vip1, prevents T-DAN import




- Bacterial VirF is used to degrade Vip1

What happens during initiation of agrobacterium infection? (2)

- Vir A/G detects acetosygringone from wound site




- Branch structure forms between host and bacteria to exchange molecules

Name the 4 steps of agrobacterium infection

- Chemotaxis to wound




- Initiation




- Integration of T-DNA




- Post- integration tumour formation

What is crown gall disease?(2)

- Cause by naturally occuring soil bacteria




- affects near base of shoot

What are the pros (3) + cons (2) with anaerobic digestion?

Pros = Biogas, Free fertiliser, low odour and pathogen free




Cons = Methanogens ( long doubling time), Cause increase in hydrogen gas, acetogens formed

What are anaerobic digesters? (3)

- Used treat sludge




- Reduces organic matter by 50%




Broken down to CH3, CO2, and H2O

How does the activated sludge process differ from percalating filtration? (4)

- Microbes not attracted to surface




- 10x faster




- Higher running costs




- More sensitive to composition of incoming water

How does percalating filtration treatment work? (3)

- Microbes for biofilm on surface




- Microbes in top 0.5 M oxidise organic compounds




- below 0.5 oxidise NH4 -> NO3

How is waste concentration measured? by law must not exceed?

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)




Amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria in the dark over a set time




Must not exceed 20mgL^(-1)

What are the 3 objectives of waster water treatment?

- Reduce suspended solids




- Reduce pathogenic microbes




- RemoveNH4 ( Converted to NO3)



What problems arise from untreated waste/sewage? (4)

- Reduction in dissolved Oxygen -> death of aquatic life




- Solids cause silting ( blockage) in rivers




- Toxic




- Spread of pathogens

What are the problems of agricultural monoculture?

Mainly group susceptibility to the same disease

How is Bt toxin expressed in plants?(3 ) and why is this method of delivery used?

- Bacterial gene placed in front of promoter


- Transform the plant


- Larvae feed and ingest




- This method of delivery is most efficient

4 Advantages and 4 Disadvantages of trangenic soybeans?

Advantages = Pre or psot emergence, 1 Spray, 3x less toxic that others, COST




Disadvantages = Resistance transferred, some toxicity, reliance on herbicide, premium to monsanto

Describe the dual strategy for glycophosate resistance (2)

- Glycophosate oxidase breaks down glycophosate to glycine




- Resistance gene (CP4) allows shikimate pathway to work

How are plants made resistant to glycophosate? (3)

- Mutant AroA gene infront of strong promoter




- Plant version of gene still inhibited but not mutant




- Resistant crop grows, all weeds killed

What are the advantages of glycophosate? (4)

- Broad based




- Resistance is rare




- Does not persist in environment




- No toxicity to humans or animals ( no shikimate pathway)

What is Glycophosate and how does it work?

- powerful herbicide




- Shikimate pathway ( inhibits EPSP synthase)

What are the problems w/ convenional herbicides? (3)

- Hard to distinguish, similar plant species




- Poor environmental properties = persistence, non target toxicity




- Resistance

What are the advantages of Bt corn? (3)

- More effective pest control




- Low ratees of disease ( no wounds for infection)




- higher yields

What is ergot poisoning? (3)

- Toxins in ergot




- Joint pain, hallucenations, seizures, gangrene




- Salem witch trials

What are myotoxins? ( example, aflatoxins) (3)

- Toxic fungal metabolites




- Highly toxic and carcinogenic




- Affects man and livestock "turkey X disease2


What is listeriosis? (2)

- Affects fresh, raw veg, unpasteurised milk, cheese and raw meat




- Grows at 4 degrees

Name the 4 high risk groups for foodborne disease (listeria)

- Pregnant women




- Infants




- Elderly




- immunosuppressed

What are the major reasons for foodborne disease? (4)

- mass production of food


- mass processing


- New strains/ antibiotic resistance


- mass transport

What is phyate and phytase? (3)

- In animal feed, inorganic phosphate in phytate


- cannot be degraded by monogastric animals


- Microbial phytase added to feed to release phosphate

What is the problem with non-starch polysaccharides in the animal feed industry? (2)

- High arabinoglucans, increased viscosity reducing absorption




- combatted by including beta glucanase in feed

What 2 types of molecules contribute to flavour in alcoholic drinks and how?

Esters = Fruity character




Fusels alcohols = strong alcoholic flavours

What is similar about how camembert and roquefort cheese is made and what's the difference?

Both produced using mould (fungi)




Camembert = fungi grows on surface




Roquefort = fungi grows throughout cheese

What is rennet? (Cheese production) (3)

- Works best under acidic conditions




- Extracted from calf stomachs




- 90% of all cheese produced using Rennet

Describe an example of animal-bacteria symbiosis (2)

- vibriofisheri (bioluminescent bacterium)




- used as a lure or a disguise ( hawaiian squid)

What is dutch elm disease? (2)

- Caused by fungus




- Plant attempts to prevent fungus spreading ultimately ends up blocking its own xylem and pant dies

Describe dependent relationship between leafcutting ants, fungus and streptomycetes (3)

- Ants tend the fungal garden




- Hyphae sell and are eaten by ants




- Streptomycetes produce antibiotics

What are the adaptations of psychrophiles? (3)

- semi-fluid membranes ( unsat. fatty acids)




- Antifreeze molecules ( only eukaryotes)




- Altered proteins, more alpha helices and increase flexibility

What are the adaptations of hyperthermophiles? (2)

- no fatty acids in membranes




- Lipid monolayer NOT bilayer made of 2 phytane molecules (C40)

What are the adaptations of thermophiles? (2)

- Semi-fluid membranes (sat. fatty acids)




- Altered proteins= heat resistant conformations

Describe the method of autoclaving (3)

- 121 degrees Celsius




- 20 mins




-138kPa


kills all known microbes

3 General Properties of viruses

- Extracellular state (virions)




- Surrounded by protein




- metabolically inert

3 processes that occur once a virus has entered a cell?

- viral replication




- Virus redirects host machinery




- Virions produced ( late infection )

Describe the structure of a virion (2)

- Nucleic acid surrounded by protein coat ( capsid)




-Capsid made of capsomers ( made of 1 protein or several)

Describe helical symmetry in viruses (2)

- length determined by length of RNA




- Width determined by packing subunits

Described icosahedral symmetry in viruses (3)

- 20 faces




- 12 pentons




- 5-3-2 rotational symmetry

Describe the steps of the virus replication cycle (6)

1) attaches to receptors


2) pentration ( endocytosis into cell)


3) uncoating (nucleic acid exposure)


4) NA synthesis and protein synthesis


5) assembly of subunits/packaging


6) released of mature virions

How do virions exit the host cell?

Budding from the membrane

name the 3 basic cell structures of fungi

- Unicellular




- Dimorphic




- Filamentous

What is Ascomycota fungi? (3)

- Airborne spores ( asexual spores) "Conidiospores"




- 8 sexual spores ( ascospores) in an ascus




- Plant pathogen ( food spoilage)

What is Chytridomycota fungi? (3)

-Aquatic fungi




- Asexual + sexual flagellated spores




- Most primitive fungi

What is zygomycota fungi? (2)

- terrestrial




- Asexual, non-motile spore ( Zygospore)

What is basidomycota fungi? (4)

- Mushrooms and toadstools


- 4 sexual basidospores


-gills/ores of mushroom


- form mycorrhizal associations w/ trees

Characteristics of the right chronometer concerning phylogeny? (3)

- Molecule should be universally distributed




- DNA sequences of molecule should evolve slowly ( to reflect evolutionary distance)




- ribosomal DNA

Where do hetertrophs and autotrophs get their carbon?

Autotrophs = CO2 fixation




heterotrophs = organic molecules

What are methanogens? (2)

- Archaea = strict anaerobes




- CO2 as electron acceptor producing CH4

Where do; Chemoorganotrophs, chemolithotrophs, phototrophs obtain their energy?

Chemoorganotrophs = organic chemicals




Chemolithotrophs = Inorganic chemicals




Phototrophs = light

Describe a bacteria that oxidises iron (2)

- Thiobacillus ferroxidans




- large amounts of iron needed

Describe anoxygenic photosynthesis (3)

- H2/ H2S as electron donor




- for oxidative phosphorylation




- Sulphur formed

Name the 4 temperature classifications and associated temperatures

psychophiles = <15 degrees Celsius




mesophiles = 15-45 degrees




Thermophiles = 45- 80 degrees




Hyperthermophiles = 80-100 degrees

Why does a lag phase occur during bacterial growth? (4)

- Cells may be old




- Depleted ATP/ Ribosomes




- Injured cells




- Adjusting to new medium


What is the FesZ ring concerning bacteria?

Protein filament ring that contracts to break the cell walls allowing binary fission

Define mean doubling time

Time for a population of bacteria to double

3 Features needed for bacteria growth?

- carbon source




- nitrogen source




- growth factors ( Vitamins, nucleotides etc.)

4 Properties of flagella

- helical and rigid




- 20 nm diameter




- Subunit ( flagellin)




- biological rotary motor at base

4 properties of fimbriae

- pertrichous




- Straight or flexible




- Carry adhesins to attach to receptors




- Function = Protect against force, adhere to surfaces, obtain nutrients

name the 2 type of flagella

Polar = single (spins helically)




Peritrichous = several flagella

Name the 4 essential structures and 3 optimal structures of bacteria

Essential = membrane, wall, nuceloid, ribosomes




Optional = Flagella, fimbriae (pili), capsule

What is the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

Positive = thick cell wall, No outer membrane, homogenous ( single layer)




Negative = Thin cell wall, present outer membrane, Heterogenous cell wall ( multiple layers)

Describe process of gram stain (4 )

- Stain w/ crystal violet




- Stain w/ iodine




- Acetone




- Safranin

What colour do gram positive and negative bacteria stain?

Positive = PURPLE




Negative = PINK/RED

Name the 7 shapes of bacteria

1) Coccus ( cone )


2) Rods


3) SPiral


4) Spirochetes


5) square


6) Star


7) huge

Degradation of lignin by fungi leaves wood what shade?

PALE ( only cellulose left)

What is denitrification?

Inorganic nitrogen is converted to N2 gas under anaerobic conditions

Degradation of cellulose by fungi leaves wood what colour/shade?

BROWN ( only lignin left)

2 Most common food industry uses for microbes

Cheese = Rennet ( Chymosin)




Ale/lager = S. Cerevisiae/ s.carlsbergenesis

What is ammonification? (2)



- Decomp of N to release NH3




- Anaerobically/aerobically by bacteria and aerobically by fungi

What is nitrification? (4)

- nitrobacter + nitrosommonas


- Conversion of NH3 -> NO3


- Aerobic soils


- Can lead to eutrophication (Combatted with inhibitors)

What are bacteroids? (2)

- Nitrogen fixing cells that diffrentiate from rhizobia




- Occur inside nodules

What are the 2 main typea of mycorrhizal associations?

Ectomycorrhiza = mainly basidomycetes




Endomycorrhiza = manily zygomycetes and grasses

What is the difference between endomycorrhiza and ectomycorrhiza?

in ecto the hyphae grow between plant cells and in endo hyphae penetrate the cells

Unstable infection by mycorrhizal fungi can have what 3 outcomes?

- Germination and mycorrhiza formation




- Parasitisation = plant dies




- Rejection of fungi = Plant dies

What are pelatons in relation to mycorrhizal associations of fungi with species of orchids? (3)

- Coils of hyphae




- increases the SA between the two




- Short life span ( ultimately digested by orchid)

What is syntrophy?

Process by which a second organism lives off the products of another organism

Name 3 members of Enterobacteriaceae

E.coli




Shigella




Salmonella

How many species of leguminous plants that symbiontically associate with rhizobia are there?

15,000

Describe the anoxygenic photosynthesis by purple/green sulphur bacteria? (2)

- Cyclic electron transfer forms ATP




- Non cyclic forms NADH

Name a feature shared by eubacteria and archaea?

Linear Chromosomes

Where in the human body is the largest amount of bacteria?

The colon ( large intestine)

Under what conditions is bt toxin soluble?

high pH; above 9.5 ( insoluble in normal conditions)

What type of microorganisms are present in the stomach of ruminant animals? (4)

Fungi, Archaea,bacteria and protozoa