Micro One-Liners

Front 1

1. Cause of nausea, vomiting (onset < 6 hr) after eating cold cuts, or potato salad, or mayonnaise, or custards implicated. TOW?

Back 1

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 2

2. Staphylococcal food poisoning is mediated by what?

Back 2

Enterotoxin

Front 3

3. Tx of staphylococcal food poisoning

Back 3

Rehydration

Front 4

4. Cause of nausea and vomiting, +/- diarrhea (onset < 6 hr) after eating reheated rice. TOW?

Back 4

Bacillus cereus

Front 5

5. What makes bacterial spores resistant to heat?

Back 5

dipicolinic acid core

Front 6

6. Cause of nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea w/ rapid onset (6-12 hr) after eating reheated meat or gravy implicated. TOW?

Back 6

Clostridium perfringens

Front 7

7. Persistent dyspepsia in those not receiving NSAIDs is tested for what?

Back 7

Helicobacter pylori

Front 8

8. Increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.

Back 8

H. pylori colonization

Front 9

9. Indications to treat H. pylori-associated PUD

Back 9

Presence of organism

Front 10

10. Standard first line treatment for PUD due to H. pylori is what?

Back 10

PPI + clarith + amox

Front 11

11. Hx of acute onset of diarrhea with rice-water stools, vomiting, dehydration in a pt during travel to South America. TOW?

Back 11

Vibrio cholerae

Front 12

12. Sx and Sn of cholera are due to what?

Back 12

A-B toxin causes ↑ cAMP

Front 13

13. Cholera pathogen is isolated from stool by culture on thiosulfate- citrate-buffered sucrose (TCBS) agar. Why sucrose (and not glucose)?

Back 13

Differential fermentation (+) by V. cholerae on sucrose

Front 14

14. The comma-shaped Cholera organisms are microscopically similar to

Back 14

Campylobacter

Front 15

15. Tx of cholera involves

Back 15

Rehydration (tetracycline in severe cases)

Front 16

16. Secretory diarrhea, fever and vomiting during travel are caused by

Back 16

Enterotoxic E. coli

Front 17

17. Secretory diarrhea w/ fatty, foul-smelling stools in campers, hikers; also day-care outbreaks are caused by

Back 17

Giardia lamblia

Front 18

18. Following ingestion of 15-25 cysts and excystation, trophozoites with flat ventral surface adhere at brush border of enterocytes and contribute to malabsorption. TOW?

Back 18

Giardiasis

Front 19

19. Dx of giardiasis is confirmed by

Back 19

Stool antigen (+)

Front 20

20. Specific Rx of giardiasis involves

Back 20

Metronidazole

Front 21

21. Protracted, secretory diarrhea w/ large fluid loss in AIDS is caused by (clue: acid-fast organisms)

Back 21

Cryptosporidium >> Cyclospora > Isospora

Front 22

22. Frank bloody diarrhea, after eating undercooked meats or drinking fruits drinks, is caused by prepared foods or water, contaminated w/

Back 22

E. coli O157:H7

Front 23

23. Mechanism of blood loss in hemorrhagic enterocolitis involves

Back 23

Shiga toxin (a cytotoxin)

Front 24

24. Complication of hemorrhagic enterocolitis in children

Back 24

hemolytic uremic syndrome

Front 25

25. Profuse diarrhea, fever, vomiting, and dehydration in infants is caused by

Back 25

Rotavirus

Front 26

26. Mechanism of rotaviral diarrhea involves

Back 26

Villus destruction

Front 27

27. Infantile watery diarrhea and fever are caused by

Back 27

Adenovirus 40,41

Front 28

28. Outbreak of nausea, vomiting, fever in adults is caused by

Back 28

Norovirus

Front 29

29. Cause of nausea/vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea +/- bloody 8-48h after eating eggs or poultry or peanut butter?

Back 29

Non-typhoidal Salmonella

Front 30

30. Primary gastroenteritis progressing to chronic carrier state of Salmonella in bile ducts is common due to

Back 30

Abx use

Front 31

31. Abx used to treat septic phase salmonella gastroenteritis is

Back 31

ciprofloxacin

Front 32

32. Cause of fevers (>103°) abdominal pain, headaches; little diarrhea; macular rose-colored spots (rash). PE: bradycardia; hepatosplenomegaly (+/-) in a pt with hx of travel (to tropics)?

Back 32

Salmonella typhi

Front 33

33. Cause of occult-bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramping and fever, 2d after ingestion of salad from meat-contaminated cutting-boards?

Back 33

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 34

34. Abx for campylobacter enteritis with prolonged, high fevers in pregnancy, and HIV is

Back 34

Erythromycin

Front 35

35. Cause of dysentery-like illness with fever + abdominal cramps, tenesmus + blood & mucus in children?

Back 35

Shigella sonnei

Front 36

36. Tx of dysentery due to Shigella flexneri or S. dysenteriae in elderly involves

Back 36

ciprofloxacin

Front 37

37. Cause of dysentery-like illness in the northern region after eating cheese; pseudoappendicitis or pseudo-crohn syndrome?

Back 37

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 38

38. Cause of dysentery-like illness in a patient on broad-spectrum abx?

Back 38

Clostridium difficile

Front 39

39. Diarrhea due to Clostridium difficile is mediated by

Back 39

Toxin A (enterotoxin) + toxin B (cytotoxin).

Front 40

40. Clostridium difficile diarrhea is confirmed by

Back 40

EIA for stool toxins

Front 41

41. Tx of Clostridium difficile diarrhea involves

Back 41

PO vancomycin > metronidazole + ORS [oral rehydration solution]

Front 42

42. Health-care associated spread of Clostridium difficile diarrhea and protracted outbreak is due to

Back 42

Contact mode of transmission of spores

Front 43

43. Cause of dysentery involving abdominal pain, tenesmus, stools with mucus + blood in a patient, who recently traveled to tropics; CBC: eosinophilia?

Back 43

Entamoeba histolytica

Front 44

44. Positive stool test using microscopy for trophozoites w/ intracellular RBCs confirms

Back 44

Amebic dysentery

Front 45

45. Rx of amebic dysentery involves

Back 45

Metronidazole + iodoquinol

Front 46

46. Abscesses in liver or peritonitis in travelers w/ or w/o hx of amebic dysentery is confirmed by

Back 46

Serology for E. histolytica

Front 47

47. Chronic abdominal pain, diarrhea; follows intestinal obstruction; cholangitis; liver abscess, in children in Southern States. Lab: O & P (+) for eggs (oval with a thick coarse shell). TOW?

Back 47

Ascaris lumbricides

Front 48

48. Ova & Parasite test using microscopy for oval eggs (with a thick coarse shell) in stool confirms what?

Back 48

ascariasis

Front 49

49. A child has stomach ache, distended abdomen, poor appetite. “Pearl-colored earthworm”-like organisms in the stool. Major immune response against this infection?

Back 49

IgE

Front 50

50. DOC of ascariasis is

Back 50

Mebendazole

Front 51

51. Vomiting, cramping, diarrhea, epigastric pain, weight loss in an immigrant from developing country is caused by

Back 51

Strongyloides stercoralis

Front 52

52. DOC of strongyloidosis is

Back 52

Ivermectin

Front 53

53. Pt w/ high dose steroids or HIV/AIDS develops pulmonary infiltrates (+ eosinophilia) and/or gram negative sepsis. TOW?

Back 53

Invasive strongyloidosis

Front 54

54. Weakness, fatigue, lightheadedness, dyspnea, pruritis; pallor; iron- deficiency anemia. CBC: elevated eosinophils. TOW?

Back 54

Hookworm infection

Front 55

55. Fever, periorbital edema, subconjunctival hemorrhages, muscle weakness, rash, after ingestion of undercooked meat (e.g., pigs, wild game). Lab: ↑ CPK, LDH & eosinophilia. TOW?

Back 55

Trichinellosis

Front 56

56. Vague abdominal pain, bloating, altered appetite after ingestion of sushi. CBC: megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency); eosinophilia with mild leukocytosis. TOW?

Back 56

Diphyllobothriasis (fish tapeworm)

Front 57

57. Dx of tape worm infection is confirmed by

Back 57

proglottids in stool

Front 58

58. Tx of tape worm infection involves

Back 58

Praziquantel

Front 59

59. Fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in an immigrant from Africa or Orient; pt recalls an itch within a day of fresh water exposure. RUQ ultrasound (+); CBC: eosinophilia. TOW?

Back 59

Schistosoma mansoni (Africa) S. japonicum (Far East)

Front 60

60. Stool in chronic stage of schistosomiasis yields

Back 60

large eggs with lateral spine.

Front 61

61. Rx of chronic stage of schistosomiasis involves

Back 61

praziquantel

Front 62

62. Patient with acute jaundice is HAV IgM (+). What should the family contact receive for prophylaxis?

Back 62

Inactivated HAV vaccine

Front 63

63. Patient with jaundice for

Back 63

Acute HBV infection

Front 64

64. Multiple sex partners, IDU, infants born to infected mothers are risk groups for which hepatitis virus

Back 64

HBV

Front 65

65. This is an enveloped, double stranded DNA virus w/a ss-break; transmitted by infective body fluids. TOW?

Back 65

HBV

Front 66

66. This asymptomatic man has hep serology: HBsAg (-), Anti-HBs (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), Anti-HBc IgM (-). TOW?

Back 66

Resolved hepatitis B

Front 67

67. This man has jaundice and HBsAg (+) > 6 months, Anti-HBs (-), HBeAg (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBV DNA > 20,000 IU/ml. TOW?

Back 67

Chronic active hepatitis B

Front 68

68. A pt w/ chronic active hepatitis with evidence of necroinflammation should receive

Back 68

Peg-IFNα 2a + lamivudine (or cidofovir)

Front 69

69. This man has no jaundice, but HBsAg (+) >6 months, Anti-HBs (-), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBeAg (-), persistently normal ALT. TOW?

Back 69

Inactive HBsAg carrier

Front 70

70. This man, at the time of annual physical exam, reveals Anti-HBs (+) and other markers are (-). TOW?

Back 70

HBV vaccination:

Front 71

71. Virologic confirmation of chronic jaundice in a pt w/ IDU or hemodialysis; vasculitis and glomerulonephritis is based on

Back 71

HCV RNA > HCV IgG

Front 72

72. Heterogeneous, immune-evasive quasispecies (mutants)generated during replication of hepatitis C virus in blood causes

Back 72

Chronicity in HCV

Front 73

73. Fulminant hepatitis in a patient, who has multiple sexual partners and is HBsAg (+); HBcIgM (-), can be fatal due to what?

Back 73

HDV superinfection.

Front 74

74. Acute onset of jaundice, nausea, right-upper quadrant pain, hepatomegaly in pregnant women in India. TOW?

Back 74

HEV infection

Front 75

75. Fever, arthralgia, carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum; elevated WBCs or ESR/CRP. Clinical Dx is confirmed by

Back 75

rising ASO titer

Front 76

76. Type II hypersensitivity due to molecular mimicry is the mechanism of a immunological sequel of streptococcal infection, called

Back 76

Acute rheumatic fever

Front 77

77. Tx of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) includes

Back 77

Benzathine penG.

Front 78

78. A man with IDU has flu-like symptoms;1-3 minor peripheral signs: (conjunctival hemorrhage, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots). vegetation in tricuspid valve) Blood Cx (BC) should yield

Back 78

S. aureus

Front 79

79. A pt w/ hx of extraction of impacted tooth 3 weeks ago now has subacute (native, mitral-valve) endocardits. BC should yield

Back 79

viridans streptococci.

Front 80

80. A pt w/ hx of St. Jude bypass [i.e. prosthetic valve] 2 months ago has now subacute bacterial endocarditis. BC should yield

Back 80

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 81

81. A pt with AIDS and recent hx of UTI has not subacute (native- mitral valve) endocarditis. BC should yield

Back 81

Enterococcus faecalis (or faecium)

Front 82

82. Tx of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to S. aureus (MSSA).

Back 82

Nafcillin +gentamicin

Front 83

83. Tx of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to S. aureus (MRSA).

Back 83

Vanco + rifampin

Front 84

84. Tx of subacute (native, mitral-valve) endocarditits due to viridans streptococci.

Back 84

PenG + gentamicin

Front 85

85. Tx of subacute (prosthetic-valve) endocarditis due to Staphylococcus epidermidis

Back 85

Vanco

Front 86

86. Tx of subacute (native mitral-valve) endocardits due to Enterococcus faecalis (or faecium)

Back 86

Ampicillin (high dose) + gentamicin

Front 87

87. Patient with enterococcal bacteremia fails to respond to vancomycin. Mechanism?

Back 87

D-Ala-D-Ala is changed to D- Ala-D-lac

Front 88

88. Hx of catheter-related endocarditis, involving prosthetic & native valves. WBC >9,000. BC (+) for budding yeast. Pt does not respond to AmphoB or fluconazole. Tx now?

Back 88

Caspofungin

Front 89

89. Patient with colon cancer has bacteremia due to what?

Back 89

Streptococcus bovis

Front 90

90. Hx of febrile, malaise, arthralgia, dyspnea, edema, palpitations. ST/T wave change, heart block, dysrhythmias. Imaging studies: chest XR w/ cardiomegaly. TOW?

Back 90

Coxsackievirus > echovirus > Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas)

Front 91

91. Rhinorrhea, red throat, and nasal pus are caused by

Back 91

Rhinoviruses

Front 92

92. Rhinoviruses and enteroviruses belong to picornavirus family, but the rhinoviruses differ from enteroviruses on

Back 92

Growth at 22°C/noninvasive

Front 93

93. Rhinovirus receptor in the nasal passages and upper tracheobronchial tree is

Back 93

ICAM-1

Front 94

94. Rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, coronavirus, RSV, metapneumovirus, and adenovirus all cause

Back 94

Upper-respiratory infections

Front 95

95. Sinusitis, otitis, laryngitis, exacerbations of bronchitis and asthma are mostly secondary to

Back 95

Viral URIs

Front 96

96. In HEENT, Streptococcus pneumoniae, non-typable Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis all cause

Back 96

Acute otitis media (AOM) & sinusitis

Front 97

97. AOM and sinusitis are empirically treated with amoxicillin + clavulanate. Why use clavulanate?

Back 97

Haemophilus and Moraxella are β-lactamase producers

Front 98

98. Cause of pharyngeal pain, dysphagia, fever; red throat + purulent exudate that responds to penicillin

Back 98

Streptococcus pyogenes (aka: Group A Streptococcus)

Front 99

99. GABHS is differentiated from GBBHS by what?

Back 99

Bacitracin sensitivity

Front 100

100. Common mode of acquisition of URI due to Streptococcus pyogenes?

Back 100

Infective droplets

Front 101

101. Major virulence factor (with anti-phagocytic function) of Streptococcus pyogenes

Back 101

M protein fibrils

Front 102

102. Damage in posterior pharynx and tonsils due to Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with what host reaction?

Back 102

Pyogenic inflammation

Front 103

103. DOC of acute bacterial pharyngitis in a pt w/ Pen allergy

Back 103

Erythromycin > clindamycin

Front 104

104. Pyogenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Back 104

Tonsillar abscess

Front 105

105. Toxigenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Back 105

Scarlet fever >> TSS (rare)

Front 106

106. Immunological complication of streptococcal pharyngitis

Back 106

Acute rheumatic fever

Front 107

107. Cause of fever, red throat + purulent exudate - pseudomembrane with lymphadenopathy, in a pt from Russia

Back 107

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Front 108

108. Gram/special stain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae should reveal

Back 108

Gram(+) rods w/ metachromatic granules .

Front 109

109. Virulence genotype of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is acquired by

Back 109

Transduction (phage mediated transfer of exotoxin gene)

Front 110

110. Isolate on tellurite agar culture of throat swab for a cause of diphtheria is confirmed by

Back 110

Immunodiffusion (ELEK) assay for toxin

Front 111

111. Mechanism of action of exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Back 111

ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (protein synthesis block).

Front 112

112. Damage to pharynx and cardiac myosites due to Corynebacterium diphtheriae is mediated by

Back 112

Cytotoxicity of A-B toxin

Front 113

113. Virologic Dx of URI symptoms, fever; red throat + purulent exudate; hepato-splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, in a teenager, is confirmed by

Back 113

heterophile antibody (+)

Front 114

114. Host cells preferentially infected by EBV are

Back 114

B cells

Front 115

115. EBV is biologically similar to what class of viruses?

Back 115

herpes viruses

Front 116

116. Host immune system controls the EBV infection, mediated by

Back 116

CD8+ T lymphocytes

Front 117

117. Rash occurs following which antibiotic(s) to treat infectious mononucleosis?

Back 117

amoxicillin

Front 118

118. Burkitt's lymphoma in some African population is a B-cell tumor due to oncogenesis by

Back 118

EBV

Front 119

119. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a B-cell tumor that is common in the Oriental population that consumes preserved fish, is due to oncogenesis by

Back 119

EBV

Front 120

120. Heterophile-negative infectious mononucleosis syndrome is due to ?

Back 120

CMV

Front 121

121. Gram-positive bacteria that cause acute otitis media (AOM)

Back 121

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 122

122. Gram-negative diplococci bacteria that cause AOM

Back 122

Moraxella catarrhalis

Front 123

123. Gram-negative coccobacilli bacteria that cause AOM

Back 123

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 124

124. > 7 days of nasal obstruction, rhinorrhea; purulent nasal drainage + frontal pain/tenderness is treated with

Back 124

Amoxicillin & Clavulanate

Front 125

125. DOC for acute mastoiditis in a young child is amoxicillin & clavulanate; why?

Back 125

Same etiology as AOM

Front 126

126. Cause of "seal-like barking" cough + episodic aphonia w/ symptoms of URI in a child

Back 126

parainfluenza virus

Front 127

127. Gram-stain-nonreactive organism that causes redness; purulent discharge at lid margin/eye corners, in a newborn

Back 127

Chlamydia trachomatis

Front 128

128. Most common cause of redness; tenderess; hyperpurulent d/c; eye stuck shut in AM, lid edema. Gram stain (+)

Back 128

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 129

129. Cause of fever, conjunctivitis, pharyngitis with rhinitis, cervical adenitis in a child.

Back 129

Adenovirus

Front 130

130. Cause of burning, gritty feeling in eyes; diffuse conjunctival injection &amp; profuse tearing + preauricular LN.

Back 130

Adenovirus

Front 131

131. Cause of foreign body sensation, lacrimation, photophobia, conjunctival hyperemia, and ulceration

Back 131

HSV-2>>1

Front 132

132. Cause of severe pain and skin lesions in dermatomal pattern involving the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

Back 132

VZV

Front 133

133. Cause of painful, swollen, red eyes, with conjunctival hemorrhaging and excessive tearing in an outbreak

Back 133

Enterovirus

Front 134

134. Cause of chorioretinitis in AIDS, but CMV antigen (-)

Back 134

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 135

135. Cause of painful keratitis, chronic corneal ulcers in contact lens users, unresponsive to abx.

Back 135

Acanthamoeba spp.

Front 136

136. In an infant w/ ?immunization, 2 wks of paroxysmal coughs, inspiratory "whoop" + post-tussive emesis. TOW?

Back 136

Bordetella pertussis

Front 137

137. Pertussis toxin inhibits chemotaxis via downregulation of C3a/C5a receptor, resulting in?

Back 137

lymphocytic leukocytosis in CBC

Front 138

138. Three major virulence factors of "whooping cough" pathogen?

Back 138

ADP-ribosylating toxin; tracheal cytotoxin; hemolysin

Front 139

139. Cause of fever + drooling, stridor, dyspnea in a child w/ ?immunization (pt appears septic)

Back 139

Haemophilus influenzae b

Front 140

140. Major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae associated with pneumonia and meningitis

Back 140

Capsular polysaccharide (antiphagocytic and anti-C3b)

Front 141

141. Since, absent spleen places host at increased risk for invasive H. influenzae infection, pre-exposure prophylaxis prior to elective splenectomy is ?

Back 141

Hib immunization

Front 142

142. Acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis (AECB) is caused by an organism that needs NAD + hematin for growth; β-lactamase (+). DOC?

Back 142

Ceftriaxone (severe) >. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
[Organism is Haemophilus influenzae]

Front 143

143. Most common cause of lower-respiratory infections in neonates (babies < 4 wk)?

Back 143

Streptococcus agalactiae (aka: group B streptococcus)

Front 144

144. Complicated illness in a newborn of a GBS-colonized mother is

Back 144

Sepsis or meningitis

Front 145

145. A mother colonized (recto-vaginally) w/ GBS is at risk for preterm baby or premature membrane rupture. She should receive

Back 145

Ampicillin

Front 146

146. An elderly comes up with an abrupt-onset fever, myalgia, headache, malaise, dry cough, sore throat and rhinitis, in winter. Illness could have been prevented w/ ?

Back 146

annual influenza vaccine

Front 147

147. Annual influenza vaccine protects at-risk subpopulation w/ 60% immune protection, and is composed of what 3 viruses?

Back 147

A:H1N1 + A:H3N2 + B

Front 148

148. Secondary spread of influenza occurs in a crowded setting (within 6 feet of infected person) via

Back 148

respiratory droplets

Front 149

149. Annual vaccine to prevent influenza is needed due to antigenic drift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?

Back 149

Mutation

Front 150

150. Occasionally serious pandemic of influenza occurs due to antigenic shift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?

Back 150

Reassortment of 8 genomic segments

Front 151

151. Treat persons with influenza <48 hours with

Back 151

Oseltamivir

Front 152

152. Bacterial superinfection, causing pneumonia, after influenza occurs in elderly (in LTCF) due to what?

Back 152

S. pneumoniae > S. aureus

Front 153

153. A seriously ill young adult w/ necrotizing pneumonia, poorly responding to vancomycin, should get

Back 153

Linezolid

Front 154

154. Cause of febrile illness + bronchiolitis in an infant; BAL viral culture (+).

Back 154

Respiratory syncytial virus

Front 155

155. Major cause of seasonal pneumonia outbreaks in the pediatric units via contact spread (by HCWs) is

Back 155

RSV

Front 156

156. Mechanism of asthmatic Sx + Sn w/ pathology in bronchioles in high-risk infants due to RSV is

Back 156

type III hypersensitivity

Front 157

157. Inhaled drug used in the sickest infants with bronchiolitis (yet questionable efficacy) is

Back 157

Ribavirin

Front 158

158. Insidious onset of fever, dry cough, malaise and sore throat in young adults. CBC: anemia; CXR: diffuse infiltrates. TOW?

Back 158

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Front 159

159. Dx of “walking pneumonia” in older children and young adults, while waiting for serology, is supported by

Back 159

cold agglutinin (IgM Ab against RBCs) titer ≥1:32
[organism is Mycoplasma pneumoniae]

Front 160

160. β-lactam abx is ineffective for Tx of mycoplasma pneumonia because

Back 160

Wall-less bacteria

Front 161

161. A male child with mycoplasma pneumonia now has systemic rash, covering 10% of his body. TOW?

Back 161

erythema multiforme (SJS)

Front 162

162. Cause of upper respiratory Sx, slow onset of cough (laryngitis) >2wks + CXR: patchy infiltrate, viral serology (+). TOW?

Back 162

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Front 163

163. Hx of rapid onset of high fever, cough, &amp; sputum, dyspnea; tachypnea in an elderly; CXR: lobar infiltrate; CBC: pronounced neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift. TOW?

Back 163

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 164

164. Gram-positive diplococci from sputum from a patient with lobar pneumonia yield α-hemolytic colonies and are confirmed by what test?

Back 164

Capsular swelling (Quelling rxn)

Front 165

165. α-hemolytic colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae is differentiated from viridans streptococci definitively confirmed by what test?

Back 165

Optochin sensitivity
[S. pneumoniae is optochin sensitive, S. viridans is not]

Front 166

166. Population w/ ↑ incidence of pneumococcal pneumonia

Back 166

AIDS

Front 167

167. ↑ incidence of colonization of what organism is seen in very young and elderly, crowding, following viral URI (↑ PAF [Platelet Activating Factor] receptors), fall/winter season?

Back 167

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 168

168. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted person-to-person via what?

Back 168

droplets

Front 169

169. Nasopharyngeal mucosal colonization is facilitated by

Back 169

IgA protease

Front 170

170. Streptococcus pneumoniae reaches lungs after nasopharyngeal colonization via

Back 170

aspiration

Front 171

171. Major virulence factor, facilitating invasion and dissemination of Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria

Back 171

Polysaccharide capsule

Front 172

172. Pneumococcal cell wall peptidoglycans, teichoic acid elicit

Back 172

Inflammation

Front 173

173. ↑ lung cell injury, bacterial growth, and bacteremia are caused by

Back 173

Pneumolysin (α-hemolysin)

Front 174

174. Multiple myeloma, C3 deficiency, agammaglobulinemia, asplenia - Hg SS, chronic diseases - COPD, cancer, diabetes, alcoholism, smokers are risk factors for mortality due to

Back 174

pneumococcal pneumonia

Front 175

175. Risk factor for poor prognosis of pneumococcal pneumonia

Back 175

Leukopenia

Front 176

176. Emipiric DOC of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in individuals w/ risk or comorbidity is

Back 176

Azithromycin or levofloxacin + ceftriaxone

Front 177

177. Pneumonia due to highly penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pen MIC >8) should receive

Back 177

moxifloxacin or vancomycin

Front 178

178. Mechanism of penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae is

Back 178

PBP alteration by mutation

Front 179

179. Pt w/ agammaglobulinemia or asplenia or sickle-cell anemia or ↓C3 should be vaccinated with

Back 179

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV: 23-valent)

Front 180

180. Hx: a patient w/ serious CAD now on a ventilator, acquires bronchopneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization. TOW?

Back 180

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (VAP- Ventilator Asissted Pneumonia)

Front 181

181. Cause of necrotizing pneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization of complicated viral illness

Back 181

Staphylococcus aureus (assume MRSA)

Front 182

182. Hx of a patient w/ seizure illness has fever, cough evolving over 2-4 wks; CXR infiltrate (+). Gram stain: polymicrobic. TOW?

Back 182

Anaerobes

Front 183

183. Empiric DOC of necrotizing pneumonia in a patient with seizure illness

Back 183

Clindamycin + levofloxacin

Front 184

184. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-positive diplococci in sputum Gram smear. TOW?

Back 184

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 185

185. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-negative rods in sputum smear. TOW?

Back 185

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 186

186. Cause of pulmonary embolism in a pt with IVDU

Back 186

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 187

187. Common cause of pneumonia in pts with CF

Back 187

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 188

188. Sputum of a patient with hospital-acquired pneumonia yields a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase (+)/ pyocyanin(+). TOW?

Back 188

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 189

189. Common cause of external otitis due to hot tub use is

Back 189

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 190

190. A patient with diabetes has osteomyelitis after penetrating foot injury. TOW?

Back 190

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 191

191. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal penicillin

Back 191

Piperacillin > imipenem

Front 192

192. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal aminoglycoside

Back 192

Tobramicin > gentamicin

Front 193

193. This pt >50 years, smoking hx, CMI↓ has pneumonia; diarrhea, renal failure. Urine antigen (+) for pathogen. Pt responds to azithromycin. TOW?

Back 193

Legionella penumophila

Front 194

194. Penicillin is ineffective against Legionnaire's dz because

Back 194

[Legionella pneumophilia is an] Intracellular organism

Front 195

195. Individuals with defective CMI response has poor prognosis of Legionnaire’s dz because

Back 195

Intracellular organism

Front 196

196. Asymptomatic patient with PPD (+)

Back 196

Latent tuberculosis infection

Front 197

197. Cough > 2 wks, fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, SOB; CXR: upper lobe infiltrate. TOW?

Back 197

Active infection due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 198

198. Oral drug regimen of choice for treatment of active TB (aka: 1st line drugs) is

Back 198

INH+RIF+PZA+EMB (oral) + Vit B6

Front 199

199. Pyridoxine is added to 4-drug therapy for TB because

Back 199

neuropathy (due to INH)

Front 200

200. Pt w/ TB fails to respond to 4-drug regimen w/ INH+RIF resistance because

Back 200

Multiply drug-resistant (MDR) TB

Front 201

201. Pt w/ MDR-TB fails to respond to INH +RIF+FQ+an injectable drug (amikacin, capreomycin, or kanamycin) because

Back 201

Extremely-drug resistant (XDR) TB

Front 202

202. Cause of TB-like Dz that does not respond to 1° TB Tx regimen, in a pt. w/ AIDS

Back 202

Mycobacterium avium – intracellulare (aka: MAC) [MAC = Mycobacterium avium complex, the group of bacteria this belongs to]

Front 203

203. Cause of chronic pneumonia in a patient with cancer, receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy; lung-CT: halo/crescent sign (+)?

Back 203

Aspergillus fumigatus

Front 204

204. Hx of chronic pneumonia w/ lung bpsy histopathology (+) for hyphae 2-4μm wide, septate, acute- angle branching. TOW?

Back 204

Aspergillus fumigatus

Front 205

205. Hx of TB-like LRI in a pt with outdoor activity; bronchoscopy: Giemsa (+) for 2-5 μm yeasts. TOW?

Back 205

Histoplasma capsulatum

Front 206

206. Pt with AIDS has blood culture (+) for histoplasmosis. DOC has effects on

Back 206

Ergosterol in cell membrane

Front 207

207. TB-like Dz w/ ulcerative skin lesions. lung bpsy histopathology (+) for large yeast w/ broad-based bud. DOC?

Back 207

itraconazole

Front 208

208. Hx of acute onset of cough, fever, infiltrate in a black male with CMI↓; histopathology of lung (+) for a large sac of endospores. DOC?

Back 208

Fluconazole (indefinite)

Front 209

209. Pt w/ aspiration pneumonia with cervico-facial lesion should respond to

Back 209

Penicillin G

Front 210

210. Granular specimen from draining fistulae from a pt with LRI on anaerobic culture should yield

Back 210

Actinomyces israelii

Front 211

211. Pt with AIDS or organ transplant has indolent pneumonia, w/ or w/o CNS abscess or granuloma. TOW?

Back 211

Nocardiosis

Front 212

212. Organism w/ characterization of Gram-positive branching, beaded, filamentous rod, weakly acid fast is

Back 212

Nocardia asteroids

Front 213

213. Hx of fever, cough, progressing to pulmonary hemorrhage in a pt who works at a wool-sorting factory; CXR: mediastinitis. TOW?

Back 213

Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

Front 214

214. Hx of non-productive cough, fever and dyspnea evolving over 2-4 wks. CXR (+): bilateral interstitial infiltrates, hypoxemia; ↑LDH, CD4 count <200/mm3 in a man who has sex with man (MSM). TOW?

Back 214

Pneumocystis pneumonia

Front 215

215. DOC of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

Back 215

TMP-SMX

Front 216

216. Pt has urinary urgency, frequency, dysuria; lab: pyuria (+) or nitrite (+). TOW?

Back 216

Cystitis due to E. coli

Front 217

217. Significant UTI is confirmed by semiquantitative MSU culture based on the threshold of

Back 217

> 1,000 cfu/mL

Front 218

218. Mode of acquisition of uropathogen is

Back 218

Endogenous

Front 219

219. Microbial (structure) factor favoring bacterial persistence /colonization and UTI is

Back 219

bacterial binding via fimbriae

Front 220

220. Factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI despite high osmolarity and urea concentrations and low pH is

Back 220

high bacterial growth rates

Front 221

221. Host factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI is

Back 221

Urinary stasis

Front 222

222. Host factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI despite frequent voiding and high urinary flow is

Back 222

Absence of bactericidal effects of secreted proteins

Front 223

223. Pyogenic inflammation in complicated UTI due to Gram- negative bacteria is due to

Back 223

Lipopolysaccharide

Front 224

224. Empiric DOC to treat community-acquired UTI in adults is

Back 224

ciprofloxacin

Front 225

225. These drugs inhibit DNA topoisomerases (DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV) by binding to DNA-enzyme complexes, thereby interfering with bacterial DNA replication. What?

Back 225

Fluoroquinolones

Front 226

226. Avoid fluoroquinolones for the empiric Tx of UTI in pregnant women; alternative is

Back 226

Nitrofurantoin

Front 227

227. Gram-positive bacteria that cause uncomplicated UTI in sexually active, young women are

Back 227

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Front 228

228. Differentiation of Staphylococcus saprophyticus from S. epidermidis (both coagulase negative) is based on

Back 228

novobiocin resistance [i.e., S. saprophyticus is resistant, S. epidermidis is not]

Front 229

229. In elderly or pt with risks of urinary stasis, fever, chills, flank pain, and CVA tenderness; Lab: pyuria, casts, nitrite+. TOW?

Back 229

Pyelonephritis due to E. coli

Front 230

230a. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinary frequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter: Clue: GNR; fermenter; encapsulated; intrinsic ampicillin resistance)

Back 230

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 231

230b. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinary frequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter: Clue: GNR; slow fermenter; red pigment; intrinsic drug resistance)

Back 231

Serratia marcescens

Front 232

230c. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinary frequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter: Clue: GNR; swarming growth [very motile]; slow fermenter; intrinsic drug resistance)

Back 232

Proteus mirabilis

Front 233

230d. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinary frequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter: Clue: GNR; non fermenter; oxidase+, blue pigment; intrinsic drug resistance)

Back 233

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 234

230e. Pt hospitalized > 72 h for comorbidity has urinary frequency, dysuria and foul-smelling urine; w/ flank pain, fever and chills, in the presence of a urinary catheter: Clue: GPC in chains; catalase-neg; grows in high salt; penicillin resistance)

Back 234

Enterococcus faecalis

Front 235

231. If a patient with complicated UTI is severely ill or not improving with therapy, do what rapid test next?

Back 235

renal ultrasound (to rule out urinary tract obstruction)

Front 236

232. For a patient with complicated UTI, once culture and sensitivity available, switch to what?

Back 236

Narrow-spectrum abx

Front 237

233. Genital chancre begins as a papule, ulcerates to form a single, painless, clean-based ulcer. TOW?

Back 237

Primary (1°) syphilis

Front 238

234. Cause of genital chancre, begining as a papule, ulcerating to form a single, painless, clean-based ulcer.

Back 238

Treponema pallidum

Front 239

235. Hx of pen-allergy in a non-pregnant woman, who has fever, "copper penny" macular lesions on the palms and/or soles; RPR(+). DOC?

Back 239

Doxycycline

Front 240

236. Hx of pen-allergy in a pregnant woman, who is RPR(+) and has tabes dorsalis (10-20yrs), or iritis, uveitis, iridocyclitis, Argyll- Robertson pupils. Manage how?

Back 240

Desensitization

Front 241

237. Hx of painful clustered vesicles with an erythematous base; urinary retention in a promiscuous woman. TOW?

Back 241

HSV-2 >> 1

Front 242

238. Giemsa stain of fluid from a herpetic lesion should reveal

Back 242

Multinucleated giant cells

Front 243

239. Patient with genital herpes does not respond to acyclovir because pt is infected with

Back 243

thymidine kinase deficient HSV

Front 244

240. A pregnant woman with 1° symptomatic HSV-2 infection is at risk of her baby developing

Back 244

neonatal (congenital) herpes

Front 245

241. Cause of painful genital ulcers (no induration); purulent, dirty grey base; painful inguinal adenitis (bubos), in a man with multiple sexual partners

Back 245

Haemophilus ducreyi

Front 246

242. Fastidious organism found within the granulocytic infiltrate of the penile ulcer and co-localized with neutrophils and fibrin, in a pt w/ chancroid is

Back 246

Haemophilus ducreyi

Front 247

243. All sex partners of pt with chancroid, regardless of symptoms, should be examined and treated with

Back 247

Azythromycin > ceftriaxone

Front 248

244. Most common cause of mucopurulent endocervical exudate (Gram stain non revealing) in a sexually promiscuous woman

Back 248

Chlamydia trachomatis D-K

Front 249

245. Dx of mucopurulent urethral discharge, dysuria, penile pruritis is based on

Back 249

NAAT of urethral specimen or urine (+)

Front 250

246. DOC of most frequent cause of nongonococcal urethritis

Back 250

Azythromycin > doxycycline

Front 251

247. Cause of rare genital ulcers, inguinal lymphadenopathy in men with cytology(-) for multi-nucleated giant cells, RPR (-) is:

Back 251

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3

Front 252

248. Hx of systemic Sx/Sn w/ cervical motion tenderness in a woman with turbo-ovarian abscess. TOW?

Back 252

PID

Front 253

249. Cause of mucopurulent urethritis, dysuria, penile pruritis [Smear (+):Gram-negative diplococci co-populated w/ PMNs] is

Back 253

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 254

250. Hx of frequent gonorrhea and disseminated gonococcal infection in a woman is due to deficiency in serum factors?

Back 254

Terminal complements

Front 255

251. Immune evasion of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in frequent mucosal infection is due to

Back 255

Antigenic variation of pili.

Front 256

252. Auxotrophic strains of N. gonorrhoeae (needing arginine for growth) and also with serum (complements) resistance are likely to cause

Back 256

Septic arthritis (aka: DGI - disseminated gonococcal infection)

Front 257

253. Most frequent complication of gonococcal (GC) infection in men

Back 257

Epididymitis

Front 258

254. Cause of "bull headed clap", urethral stricture, prostatitis is

Back 258

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 259

255. Urethritis is treated with ceftriaxone + azythromycin because

Back 259

Concurrent GC + Chlamydia

Front 260

256. An older woman with PID and tubo-ovarian abscess receives ceftriaxone, azythromycin, and metronidazole because

Back 260

Polymicrobic (endogenous) infection

Front 261

257. Cause of anogenital warts w/ histology (+): koilocytes is

Back 261

HPV 6 and 11

Front 262

258. Cause of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on pap smear w/ no clinical signs of infection is

Back 262

HPV 16 and 18

Front 263

259. Cause of koilocytotic cells and possible progression to squamous cell carcinoma

Back 263

HPV 16 and 18

Front 264

260. Next step to identify viral cause of ASCUS on pap smear w/ and further management in a woman of age > 29 years is

Back 264

Colposcopy > HPV DNA in bpsy

Front 265

261. Wet prep of vaginal discharge from a sexually promiscuous woman w/ vaginal pruritis; ectocervical erythema ("strawberry cervix") should reveal

Back 265

motile tissue flagellate

Front 266

262. Gram stain of vaginal discharge w/ fishy odor from a sexually promiscuous woman w/ vaginal pruritis but no erythema and normal cervix should reveal

Back 266

SECs stippled with Gram- variable organisms.

Front 267

263. DOC of bacterial vaginosis (BV) is

Back 267

metronidazole

Front 268

264. Disruption of normal vaginal flora and depletion of lactobacilli in pt with BV cause overgrowth of anaerobic Mobiluncus species and

Back 268

Gardnerella vaginalis

Front 269

265. Wet prep of curdy discharge (no odor), adhering to vaginal walls, from a pregnant woman w/ recent UTI, who now has severe vaginal pruritis; vulvovaginal area - erythematous should reveal

Back 269

budding yeasts with pseudohyphae

Front 270

266. Normal commensal of skin, GI & GU tracts; endogenous overgrowth of budding yeast, capable of >10 diseases. TOW?

Back 270

Candida albicans

Front 271

267. Mechanism of action of a PO DOC of vulvovaginal candidiasis is

Back 271

blocks C14α-lanosterol demethylase
[The DOC for vulvovaginal candidiasis is an Azole medication]

Front 272

268. Hx of flu-like illness, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash in a bisexual man. Lab: lymphopenia and transaminase elevations; monospot/all serology (-). TOW?

Back 272

Acute retroviral syndrome

Front 273

269. Time from infection (acquisition) to acute seroconversion detected by HIV serology (ELISA/ WBlot) is

Back 273

6-12 weeks.

Front 274

270. Hx of mononucleosis-like illness and lymphadenopathy in a man with MSM. Serology (-). What is HIV viral load?

Back 274

>10,000 copies/ml

Front 275

271. Host-cell receptor for HIV-1 infection

Back 275

CD4

Front 276

272. Homozygous for deletions in what gene renders resistance to infection and some protection against progression.

Back 276

CCR5

Front 277

273. Host cells that trap HIV and mediate the efficient transinfection of CD4+ T cells are

Back 277

Dendritic cells

Front 278

274. A man, who practices "sex with another man" has antibodies to HIV (ELISA and WB) but asymptomatic. TOW?

Back 278

Clinical latency

Front 279

275. What happens to HIV-1 virus when acute retroviral syndrome progresses to clinical latency?

Back 279

Virus continues to replicate low level.

Front 280

276. CD4 count of a man/woman who is HIV-1 (+) and has 2 of: Candidiasis, Invasive cervical CA, Coccidiodomycosis, Cryptococcosis, Cryptosporidiosis, CMV retinitis, HIV encephalopathy, HSV ulcers, histoplasmosis, isosporiasis, Kaposi sarcoma, Burkitt lymphoma, primary brain lymphoma, MAC or Myco. kansasii infection, Myco. tuberculosis, pneumocystis, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, Toxoplasmosis of brain, HIV-wasting syndrome

Back 280

CD4+ < 200/μL

Front 281

277. A man with HIV infection has lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea, oral thrush + herpes lesions. Expected CD4+ count is

Back 281

50 cells/μL.

Front 282

278. Most common cause of HIV- associated peripheral skin or mucosal ulcers

Back 282

HSV-1 (>> Histo > CMV > VZV > Syphilis)

Front 283

279. Most common cause of HIV- associated nodules (neoplasia)?

Back 283

HHV-8 (aka KSHV)

Front 284

280. Hx of fatigue, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, chills, night sweats, dry persistent cough w/ SOB and weight loss in a man with AIDS. Lab: PPD (-); blood culture (+) for AFB [Acid-Fast Bacilli]. TOW?

Back 284

Mycobacterium avium- intracellulare complex

Front 285

281. Common cause of retinitis, viral pneumonitis or esophagitis in AIDS

Back 285

CMV

Front 286

282. Hx: progressive CNS dz in a pt w/ AIDS: hemiparesis, visual, ataxia, aphasia, cranial nerves, sensory. MRI: ring- enhancing lesions. Toxo antibody (-). TOW?

Back 286

JC virus

Front 287

283. Definitive indication for initial HAART (CD4+ count) is

Back 287

CD4+ 350/mm3.

Front 288

284. Objective of ARV Tx is to reduce viremia to what level of genomic RNA/mL

Back 288

< 50 copies RNA/mL.

Front 289

285. Initial regimen of anti-retroviral therapy is

Back 289

Emtricitabine + Tenofovir + Efavirenz

Front 290

286. Abacavir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, zidovudine, tenofovir belong to what class of antiretrovirals?

Back 290

NRTIs

Front 291

287. Efavirenz, nevirapine belong to what class of antiretrovirals?

Back 291

NNRTIs

Front 292

288. Atazanavir, Lopinavir, Saquinavir belong to what class of antiretrovirals?

Back 292

Protease inhibitors

Front 293

289. This drug binds to gp41 and prevents conformational change required for viral fusion and entry into cells.

Back 293

enfuvirtide

Front 294

290. This drug inhibits integrase, responsible for insertion of HIV proviral DNA into the host genome.

Back 294

raltegravir

Front 295

291. A man has AIDS and CD4 <200cells/μL or thrush. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

Back 295

TMP-SMX (for PCP)

Front 296

292. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + pos toxo IgG. Chemoprophylaxis needed besides HAART is

Back 296

TMP-SMX (for Toxoplasma encephalitis)

Front 297

293. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + PPD >5mm induration. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

Back 297

INH + pyridoxine

Front 298

294. A man has AIDS and CD4 <50. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is

Back 298

azithromycin (for MAC)

Front 299

295. Hx of fever, a pustule at a cat scratch site, adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in a pt w/ AIDS. Warthin-Starry stain tissue (+). TOW (clue: bacillary angiomatosis)?

Back 299

Bartonella henselae

Front 300

296. Mnemonic of the leading causes of congenital infections

Back 300

ToRCH3eS-List -- To = Toxoplasma gondii, R = Rubella, C = CMV, H = HSV-2, H = HIV, H = HBV, S = Syphilis, List = Listeria monocytogenes

Front 301

297. Cause of chorioretinitis, intracraneal calcifications, and hydrocephalus in a neonate (mom at pregnancy had mono-like illness after eating raw meat) is

Back 301

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 302

298. Hx of deafness, cataracts, heart defects, microcephaly, or mental retardation in a child (of a seronegative mom, exposed to "Blueberry muffin baby" in a very poor neighborhood). TOW?

Back 302

congenital rubella syndrome

Front 303

299. Microcephaly, seizures, sensorineural hearing loss, feeding difficulties, petechial rash, hepatosplenomegaly, or jaundice in a neonate. PCR of urine should yield

Back 303

CMV

Front 304

300. Hepatosplenomegaly, neurologic abnormalities, frequent infections in a neonate w/ low CD4+ counts. Woman before birthing should have received

Back 304

Nevirapine

Front 305

301. Cause of vesicular skin lesions + conjunctivitis in a child (asymptomatic at birth)

Back 305

HSV-2

Front 306

302. Hx of cutaneous lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, saddle nose, saber shins. Hutchinson teeth, + CN VIII deafness in a neonate (mom is a prostitute). TOW?

Back 306

3° syphilis

Front 307

303. Neonatal septicemia or meningitis (mom had flu-like Sx and ate imported cheese during pregnancy). TOW?

Back 307

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 308

304a. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue1: maculopapular rash; off-white lesions on buccal mucosa, vaccine preventable virus)

Back 308

Measles

Front 309

304b. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue2: maculopapular rash; vaccine preventable virus)

Back 309

Rubella

Front 310

304c. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue3: scarlatina rash post pharyngitis)

Back 310

Scarlet fever (GAS)

Front 311

304d. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue4: vesicular rash, moderate pain)

Back 311

Chicken pox (VZV)

Front 312

304e. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue5: maculopapular "slapped face" appearance)

Back 312

Parvovirus B19

Front 313

304f. 1 of the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)? (Clue6: maculopapular rash and generalized sx/sn in an immunocompromised pt)

Back 313

HHV-6

Front 314

305. Cause of single or multiple scaly and/or crusted patches and/or plaques, affecting the scalp or beard area +/- inflammation.

Back 314

Dermatophytes

Front 315

306. KOH prep of scales from the scalp and plucked hairs from cutaneous mycoses may reveal?

Back 315

hyphae and spores

Front 316

307. Most common cause of cutaneous mycoses

Back 316

Trichophyton spp.

Front 317

308. Common cause of cutaneous mycosis with animal contact

Back 317

Microsporum spp.

Front 318

309. Oral DOC of cutaneous mycoses

Back 318

itraconazole

Front 319

310. Topical DOC of cutaneous mycoses

Back 319

terbinafine

Front 320

311. Dz w/ subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic

Back 320

Sporotrichosis

Front 321

312. Cause of subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic system producing nodules in a gardener, or from rose-thorn injury.

Back 321

Sporothrix schenckii

Front 322

313. Dimorphic fungus that grows at 37°C as cigar-shaped yeast, and produces septate hyphae and conidia (in daisy arrangement) at 25°C is

Back 322

Sporothrix schenckii

Front 323

314. DOC of sporotrchosis

Back 323

itraconazole.

Front 324

315. Cause of deeper and wider lesions with interconnecting subcutaneous abscesses arising from infection of several neighboring hair follicles, in young children.

Back 324

Staphylococcus aureus (Carbuncle)

Front 325

316. Cause of single or multiple, isolated or coalescent, small, superficial pustules progressing to erosions covered by stuck-on, honey-colored crusts, surrounded by erythematous halo, in young children.

Back 325

Staphylococcus aureus >> Streptococcus pyogenes (non- bullous impetigo)

Front 326

317. mecA (SCC) genes which encode PBP2a, w/ low affinity for β-lactams; confers resistance in Staphylococcus aureus against what?

Back 326

Nafcillin

Front 327

318a. Dz characterized by bullae and denuded areas after the blisters rupture, covered by thin, varnish-like light brown crusts; regional lymphadenopathy, in children.

Back 327

Bullous impetigo

Front 328

318b. DOC for bullous impetigo if lab: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yields GPC in chains.

Back 328

Penicillin G

Front 329

318c. DOC for bullous pemphigoid if: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yields GPC in clusters.

Back 329

Nafcillin

Front 330

319. Cause of spreading (butterfly-wing) erythema on the face that responds to empirical penicillin.

Back 330

Streptococcus pyogenes (Erysipelas)

Front 331

320. Cause of severe pain on his knee w/ site of injury is tender and erythematous. Blood culture may yield?

Back 331

Streptococcus pyogenes. (Cellulitis)

Front 332

321. What is the microbial factor that promotes degradation of C3b by binding to factor H, the serum β globulin factor

Back 332

M protein

Front 333

322a. Other causes of cellulitis: Clue1: cat/dog bite. What?

Back 333

Pasteurella multocida / Capnocytophaga canimorous

Front 334

322b. Other causes of cellulitis: Clue2: Salt water exposure. What?

Back 334

Vibrio vulnificus

Front 335

322c. Other causes of cellulitis: Clue3: Fresh water exposure. What?

Back 335

Aeromonas hydrophila

Front 336

322d. Other causes of cellulitis: Clue4: Neutropenia. What?

Back 336

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 337

322e. Other causes of cellulitis: Clue5: Human bite. What?

Back 337

Eikenella corrodens

Front 338

323. Most common cause of Dz characterized by fever/chills/ night sweats, localizing pain/tenderness or swelling/erythema; elevated ESR, CRP; elevated WBC and platelets. Radiology: periosteal elevation.

Back 338

Staphylococcus aureus (Osteomyelitis)

Front 339

324. Major antiphagocytic virulence factor of drug-resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is

Back 339

protein A

Front 340

325. Major neutrophil-damaging virulence factor of drug- resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is

Back 340

Penton-Valentine leukocydin

Front 341

326. Cause of vertebral, sternoclavicular or pelvic bone infections (in pt w/ IVDU) or osteochondritis of foot (following penetrating injuries through tennis shoes)?

Back 341

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 342

327. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt w/ underlying sickle cell Dz (blood culture +)?

Back 342

Salmonella typhimurium

Front 343

328. Cause of chronic, vertebral osteomyelitis (blood culture negative)?

Back 343

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 344

329. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt. w/ hx of cat bites; GNSR; fastidious growth of wound culture?

Back 344

Pasteurella multocida

Front 345

330a. Dz is characterized by fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals; yields bacteria. TOW?

Back 345

Septic arthritis

Front 346

330b. Septic Arthritis pathogen associations: Clue1: sexually active; blood culture negative; responds to ceftriaxone

Back 346

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 347

330c. Septic Arthritis pathogen associations: Clue2: Rheumatoid arthritis?

Back 347

S. aureus

Front 348

330d. Septic arthritis pathogen associations: Clue3: IVDU?

Back 348

S. aureus, P. aeruginosa

Front 349

330e. Septic arthritis pathogen associations: Clue4: Unpasteurized dairy products

Back 349

Brucella spp.

Front 350

330f. Other septic arthritis pathogen associations: Clue5: Diabetes

Back 350

GBS (Group B Strep)

Front 351

331a. Dz is characterized by arthritis in up to 6 joints (especially knees, feet), low back pain/stiffness, irritable eyes w/ or w/o redness, conjunctivitis, iritis, malaise. TOW?

Back 351

Reactive arthritis

Front 352

331b. Reactive Arthritis: Clue1: sexually acquired

Back 352

C. trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae

Front 353

331c. Reactive Arthritis: Clue2: non-sexually acquired

Back 353

Campylobacter, Salmonella

Front 354

332. Cause of bacteremia in neutopenic pts with central line or pts with prosthetic devices and catheters; blood culture (+) coagulase-negative bacteria.

Back 354

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 355

333. Cause of intraabdominal abscess w/ putrid pus; anaerobic bacteremia in pt with trauma or solid GI tumor?

Back 355

Bacteroides fragilis.

Front 356

334. A woman with obstetric infection has fever > 102°F, SBP < 90; diffuse sunburn-like rash or desquamation of palms and soles; multisystem Sx/Sns; vomiting, and diarrhea; blood culture negative. TOW?

Back 356

Staphylococcal Toxic shock Syndrome

Front 357

335. What is the toxin associated with staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

Back 357

TSST-1 (a superantigen)

Front 358

336. Cause of severe, watery diarrhea in a woman with toxic shock syndrome?

Back 358

Enterotoxin (coregulated with TSST-1)

Front 359

337. Cause of toxic shock syndrome, which responds to vancomycin and clindamycin?

Back 359

MRSA

Front 360

338. Hx: in a man w/ necrotizing fasciitis or myositis or gangrene, fever > 38.9°C (102°F), SBP < 90 ; diffuse sunburn-like rash or desquamation of palms and soles.. Multisystem involvement. Blood culture positive. TOW?

Back 360

Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

Front 361

339. What is the toxin associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome?

Back 361

SpeA (superantigen)

Front 362

340. DOC for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

Back 362

PenG + clindamycin

Front 363

341. Hx: Fever, chills, and hypotensive. Blood culture yields a GNR, oxidase (-), lactose fermenting organism on MacConkey agar. Immunological mediators of sepsis.

Back 363

IL-1 and TNF

Front 364

342. DOC for a line-associated infection in a pt w/ GI tumor; lab: positive blood cultures and β-D-glucan antigenemia?

Back 364

Fluconazole

Front 365

343. DOC for a neutropenic pt w/ line-associated infection w/ immune suppression (hematologic malignancy, organ or hematopoietic stem cell transplantation, chemotherapy); w/ positive blood cultures and β-D-glucan antigenemia?

Back 365

Caspofungin

Front 366

344. Cause of mononucleosis-like dz with fever, myalgia/ arthralgia w/ lab: leukopenia, LFT abnls, in a pt w/ solid organ transplant?

Back 366

CMV

Front 367

345. Lung biopsy reveals large cells with nuclear inclusions (Cowdry owl's eyes inclusion bodies) in a pt with AIDS and interstitial pneumonia. TOW?

Back 367

CMV

Front 368

346. DOC for CMV antigenemia in a febrile pt with solid organ tansplant?

Back 368

Gancyclovir

Front 369

347. Cause of hematuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, or ureteric stenosis, or interstitial nephritis in a severly immunocompromised pt?

Back 369

BK virus

Front 370

348. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who has flu-like symptoms; splenomegaly; lab: CBC: anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia. Blood smear: enlarged RBCs and Schuffner dots.

Back 370

mefloquine + primaquine

Front 371

349. Which drug is contraindicated in specific Tx of liver form of malaria in pts w/ G6PD deficiency?

Back 371

Primaquine

Front 372

350. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who has flu-like symptoms (fever > 103°F), seizure, hyperparasitemia (>2.5% of RBC), pulmonary edema, or renal failure, or severe anemia??

Back 372

quinidine and doxycycline.

Front 373

351. Cause of malaria-like illness in an immunosuppressed pt w/o travel hx; lab: blood smear has cross-over rings in the RBCs?

Back 373

Babesia spp.

Front 374

352. A pt from S. America has a week-long fever, anorexia, lymphadenopathy, mild hepatosplenomegaly, and myocarditis; a nodular lesion on the arm. Blood smear should reveal motile species of what?

Back 374

Trypanosoma cruzi

Front 375

353. Cause of a chronic-stage systemic dz w/ cardiomyopathy, megaesophagus, megacolon, and weight loss in a pt from S. America, who does not respond to nifurtimox.

Back 375

Trypanosoma cruzi

Front 376

354. Cause of protracted fever and Crohn's, celiac dz, ocular problems, and lymphadenopathy; duodenal biopsy demonstrating foamy macrophages in lamina propria?

Back 376

Tropheryma whipplei

Front 377

355. What is the most common cause of bacteremia associated w/ foreign device (prostheses, intravenous cathether, or central lines) in co-morbid, hospitalized pts?

Back 377

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 378

356. What is the cause of infections associated w/ ventilator support of respiration in co-morbid pts in the ICU?

Back 378

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 379

357a. Hx: fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status; Kernig's/Brudzinski's sign other focal neurologic findings, rash, headache, seizures + myalgia; CSF: WBC > 2000 or PMNs > 1200; glucose < 34, protein > 220

Back 379

Acute bacterial (pyogenic) meningitis (ABM).

Front 380

357b. CSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of Acute Bacterial Meningitis in a 6 mos-6yr old (or adults > 50 years) should reveal

Back 380

Gram-positive diplococcus

Front 381

357c. CSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of Acute Bacterial Meningitis in an older child or young adult should reveal

Back 381

Gram-negative diplococcus

Front 382

358. Most common cause of sepsis/meningitis in newborns/neonates?

Back 382

Streptococcus agalactiae

Front 383

359. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, nausea/vomiting, rash, diarrhea, meningeal signs, in older children in the summer months; CSF with 10-<1,000 WBC typical, mostly monos, moderately elevated protein?

Back 383

Enteroviruses (aseptic meningitis)

Front 384

360. Cause of aseptic meningitis in men with exposure to rodents?

Back 384

Leptospira interrogans

Front 385

361. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of tick bite and erythema migrans?

Back 385

Borrelia burgdorferi

Front 386

362. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of sex with multiple partners; CSF PCR(+)?

Back 386

HSV-2 > 1

Front 387

363. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, meningismus, in pts w/ solid organ transplant, malignancy, corticosteroid use. CSF glucose < 2/3 serum glucose, elevated protein, WBC > 5 with PMNs?

Back 387

Listeria monocyotgenes

Front 388

364. How does Listeria monocytogenes differ from other β-hemolytic bacteria?

Back 388

Gram-positive rods; tumbling motility

Front 389

365. Cause of chronic meningoencephalitis in a pt, who uses infliximab or native from endemic region; PE: papilledema. CXR (+). Lab: elevated monocytes on differential, low CSF glucose?

Back 389

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 390

366. Test to confirm subacute mengoencephalitis in a, immunocompromised pt (CD4 <100); vesicular skin lesions [CSF profile: protein 30-150mg/dl, monos 10-100]?

Back 390

CSF India ink

Front 391

367. Cause of meningoencephalitis after a hx of respiratory illness after travel to SW USA?

Back 391

Coccidioides immitis

Front 392

368. Test to confirm CNS pathology with fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures; temporal lobe involvement on MRI. Lab: no papilledema, CT (no brain lesion)?

Back 392

CSF PCR (+)

Front 393

369. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures, abnormal mental status with ataxia, hemi-paresis, in a pt w/ AIDS?

Back 393

JC virus > HHV-6

Front 394

370. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures or abnormal mental status with ataxia in an adult during outdoor activity?

Back 394

West-Nile virus > SLE

Front 395

371. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures, in a pt w/ AIDS (CD4 < 100). Brain CT or MRI: multifocal (ring-enhancing) lesions, affecting basal ganglia; Pt receives pyrimethamine + leucovorin + sulfadiazine for life

Back 395

Toxoplasma gondii (TE)

Front 396

372. Cause of confusion, stiff neck, irritability over wks to months, in immunocompromised pts; CT or MRI = multifocal lesions in midbrain, brain stem, &amp; cerebellum; wet mount CSF = motile macrophage-like organisms.

Back 396

Acanthamoeba spp. (GAE)

Front 397

373. Cause of severe headache and other meningeal signs, fever, vomiting, and focal neurologic deficits, frequently progressing to coma, in a healthy boy (summer diving activity)?

Back 397

Naegleria fowleri (PAM)

Front 398

374. Cause of seizures, chronic headache, symptomatic hydrocephalus, in immigrants from Mexico, Central or S. America); pt. successfully responds to praziquantel + anti- convulsant drug?

Back 398

Taenia solium (neurocysticercosis)

Front 399

375. Hx of fever, lymphadenopathy, chancre, and pruritus weeks ago, in a pt from Africa, progressing to headaches, somnolence, abnormal behavior; pt. responds slowly to pentamidine isothionate or suramin. TOW?

Back 399

Trypanosoma brucei (sleeping sickness)

Front 400

376. Hx of rigidity, muscle spasm, and autonomic dysfunction. Trismus or lock jaw due to masseter spasm in an infant w/ umbilical stump infection (secondary to poor birth delivery hygiene). Clostridial toxin interferes w/

Back 400

GABA and glycine

Front 401

377. Hx of foodborne (chili) afebrile illness w/ diplopia, dysarthria, dysphoria, dysphagia, alert, and descending flaccid paralysis in a pt w/ IDU skin poppers with black tar heroin. Clostridial toxin blocks the release of

Back 401

acetylcholine

Front 402

378. Immediate treatment of a male infant w/ constipation, a weak cry, and drooling, hypotonea and cranial neuropathy, after ingestion of home-processed honey.

Back 402

Equine immune globulin (infant botulism)

Front 403

379. Ingestion of a raw potato delivers a new vaccine protein to elicit an immune response. The immune structure to interact with the vaccine protein?

Back 403

Lamina propria mucosae

Front 404

380. Inflammation and the resulting increase in vascular permeability permit leakage into damaged or infected sites are effected by

Back 404

Phagocytic cells and acute phase proteins

Front 405

381. The serum of a pt, who has IgG and IgM deficiency, appears to fix complement in an assay for tetanus antibodies. What is the explanation?

Back 405

Activation of the alternate pathway

Front 406

382. A 3-year-old boy with genetic C3 deficiency has recurrent ear and lung infections due to pyogenic bacteria. Deficiency of what?

Back 406

B lymphocytes

Front 407

383. A very young child, w/ recurrent infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, now has numerous granulomas. TOW?

Back 407

Chronic granulomatous dz

Front 408

384. Treatment with which protease enzyme causes decrease in avidity of IgG w/o changing the specificity of the antibody?

Back 408

Papain

Front 409

385. Cells activated by both γ-IFN and CD40 are

Back 409

Macrophages

Front 410

386. High-dose chemo has caused severe bone marrow suppression in a pt with hematologic malignancy. Reversal is plausible with what?

Back 410

GCSF

Front 411

387. Function of the T-lymphocyte receptor (CD3) complex of transmembrane proteins?

Back 411

Signal transduction

Front 412

388. The MHC class I pathway presents an antigen directly to what?

Back 412

CD8+ T lymphocytes

Front 413

389. HSV infection can block the transfer of antigenic peptides from the cytoplasm to the ER of the infected cells. As a result of this, action of what cell type is compromised?

Back 413

CD8+ T cells

Front 414

390. Infection of the thyroid gland can induce the expression of MHC II molecules. Which cell types would initiate an autoimmune response, leading to Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

Back 414

CD4+ T cells.

Front 415

391. PPD skin test (+) in a pt , who was vaccinated against turberculosis in his native country, reflects response of what cell type?

Back 415

CD4+ T lymphocytes (Th1 response → γ-IFN)

Front 416

392. A man with hx of MI is given a morphine injection for a new episode of chest pain; 10 mins later, he has itching and urticaria. Mechanism of this reaction?

Back 416

mediators from sensitized mast cells

Front 417

393. Loss of skin pigments, sense of touch, inability to feel objects and pain in a pt from Africa, whose skin scraping contains AFB (Acid-fast bacteria), is caused by

Back 417

Th1-mediated DTH (delayed-type hypersensitivity) reactions

Front 418

394. A man with polycystic kidney dz, who receives a renal transplant and cyclosporine, develops a high temp and swelling and tenderness in the grafted kidney. TOW?

Back 418

Immunity to the donor MHC antigens.

Front 419

395. A man who now has progressive stupor and laryngeal spasms for 3 days after pt was being attacked by a wild bat in a cave a month ago should have received

Back 419

Inactivated rabies virus vaccine

Front 420

396. Alternative and lectin pathways of complements activated by

Back 420

bacterial surfaces

Front 421

397. Classic complement pathway is activated by antibody- antigen complexes involving antibody class type

Back 421

IgM >> IgG

Front 422

398. Chemotactic and anaphylotoxic complements are

Back 422

C3a, C5a

Front 423

399. Successful opsonization of all non-encapsulated bacteria are by complement

Back 423

C3b

Front 424

400. Defects or deficiency which complements predisposes individuals to infections caused by Neisseria spp., the causative agents of gonorrhea and meningitis

Back 424

C6-C9

Front 425

401. Antimicrobial (immune) response important for intracellular bacterial infections involves cell type

Back 425

Th1 CD4 T cells

Front 426

402. Immune response important for viral infections involves cell type

Back 426

CD8 cytolytic T cells

Front 427

403. Major antibody in secretions and plays a significant role in first-line defense at the mucosal level is

Back 427

IgA

Front 428

404. Main antibody in the initial "primary" immune response and allows good complement activation is

Back 428

IgM

Front 429

405. Fc region of this immunoglobulin binds to eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and is significant mediator of allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions

Back 429

IgE

Front 430

406. What on macrophages enables them to sense that the material is microbial in origin, and must therefore be eliminated quickly?

Back 430

Toll-like receptor

Front 431

407. These oxygen-dependent enzymes: NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase are involved in killing of what?

Back 431

Gram-positive bacteria

Front 432

408. These oxygen-independent enzymes/proteins: lysosome, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic proteins are involved in killing of what?

Back 432

Gram-negative bacteria

Front 433

409. Infections persist, because mφ [macrophage] activation is defective, leading to chronic stimulation of CD4+ T cells in what dz?

Back 433

Chronic granulomatous Dz

Front 434

410. Defective respiratory burst, predisposing chronic bacterial infection is associated with deficiency of what?

Back 434

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

Front 435

411. All nucleated cells express MHC I antigens

Back 435

HLA-A, B, C

Front 436

412. Antigen-presenting cells express MHC II antigens

Back 436

HLA-DP, DQ, DR

Front 437

413. Lymphocyte proliferation (T, B) and NK → cytotoxicity are undertaken by what cytokine?

Back 437

IL-2

Front 438

414. B-cell activation, IgE and IgG4 switch, ↓ TH1 cells/ Mφ, ↓ IFN-γ, TH0 → TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

Back 438

IL-4

Front 439

415. Mφ [Macrophage] activation; elevated expression of MHC and FcRs molecules on B cells, IgG2 class switching, increased IL-4 and TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?

Back 439

IFN-γ

Front 440

416. The Th1 response, driven primarily by IFN-γ leads to the activation of

Back 440

macrophages

Front 441

417. The Th2 response, driven primarily by IL-4 and IL-5, leads to the production of IgE and IgG4 and to the activation of

Back 441

mast cells and eosinophils.

Front 442

418. Variable T and B cells in DiGeorge's syndrome is associated with

Back 442

Thymic aplasia

Front 443

419. No B cells and immunoglobulins in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's) is associated with

Back 443

Loss of Btk tyrosine kinase

Front 444

420. Lack of anti-polysaccharide antibody and impaired T-cell activation causing Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with

Back 444

X-linked-defective WASP gene

Front 445

421. Inability to control B cell growth in X-linked lympho- proliferative syndrome is associated with

Back 445

SH2D1A mutant

Front 446

422. Glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage in Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by what autoantigen?

Back 446

basement membrane (collagen type IV)

Front 447

423. Hyperthyroidism in Myasthenia gravis is caused by what autoantigen?

Back 447

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Front 448

424. Progressive muscle weakness in Grave's Dz is caused by what autoantigen?

Back 448

Acetylcholine receptor

Front 449

425. Brain degeneration, paralysis in Multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by what autoantigen?

Back 449

Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein

Front 450

426. Localized allergies (e.g., drug allergy, asthma, hay fever) and anaphylaxis (food, drug) w/ systemic inflammation throughout circulation are associated with reaction?

Back 450

Type I hypersensitivity

Front 451

427. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Ab’s produced vs RBC membrane Ag’s, mismatched blood (transfusion rxn), and allergies to antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, sulfa drugs) are associated with reaction?

Back 451

Type II hypersensitivity

Front 452

428. Grave's Disease, Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture's syndrome are all associated with reaction?

Back 452

Type II hypersensitivity

Front 453

429. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness to horse diphtheria anti-toxin, systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis are all associated with reaction?

Back 453

Type III hypersensitivity

Front 454

430. Poison ivy, erythematous induration in tuberculin skin test, and transplantation/graft rejection are all associated with reaction?

Back 454

Type IV hypersensitivity