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144 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Binding of the antigens and antibodies is known as


A. oponization


B. Cross reaction


C. complement fixation


D. Activation


E. all of the above

oponization

large complex molecules are ____ antigens


A. poor


b. antibody


c good


D weak


E all of the above

good

an example of nonspecifc barrier to infection


A. unbroken skin


b. lysosome in saliva


c cilia in trachea


d mucous membrane

lysosome in saliva

which of the following is the end product of the complement


a cascade reaction


b membrane attacked complex


c interferon


d lymphokines


e complement 9

membrane attacked complex

Matching




immunization with horse serum

artificial passive immunity

Matching




action of neutrophil

phagocytosis

Matching




cillia in trachea

physical barrier

Matching




recovery from mumps

natural active immunity

Matching




accumilation of fluid

inflammatory reaction

A cancer associated with infections includes


a cervical cancer


b burkih's lymphoma


c t-cell leukemia


d. hepatocellular carcinoma


e all of the above

all of the above

Production of IgE and degranulation is involved in


a. type i allergic reaction


b type ii allergic reaction


c type iiiallergic reaction


d type iv allergic reaction


e none of the above


type i

Which of the following bacteria is pyrogenic?


a. steptococus


b bacillus


c staphlococus


d. neicerria


e c and d

c and D


staph and neicerria

complication of genital gonorrhea in both men and women is


a arthritis


b blindess


c infertility


d pelivic inflammatory disease (PID)


e none of the above

infertility

Matching




furuncle

skin infection by staph aurus

Matching




endocarditis

heart colonization by veridian strep

Matching




mycobacterium

acid fast bacteria

Matching




bacillus

gram + aerobic bacilli

Matching




diptheria

pseudomembrane

which of the following bacteria produces food poisoning?


a streptococus pyrogenes


b enterobacteria


c staphlococus aurus


d pseudomonas aregonisa


e none of the above

staph aurus

the genus of large aerobic gram + rods are called___


a pyrogenic


b bacillus


c infectivity


d pyrogenic


e hetrophillic

bacillus

which of the following produces toxic shock syndrome?


a E coli


b enterobacteria


c staph aurus


d none of the above

staph arus

A lethal kind of food poisoning resulting from the injestion of food in which _____ has grown and produced a toxin


A. bacillus cerus


b. clostridum tetani


c bacillus antrhasis


d clostridium botulinium


e staphlococus aurus

clostridium botulinium

A toxin produced by a gram + bacterium acts in several ways on the CNS and results in a generalized muscular spasm


A. botulin


B tetanospasmin


C. lecithin


d hemolysin


e none of the above

tetanospasmin

this toxin of streptococus pyrogenes that causes red rashes and fever


A. toxic shock syndrome toxin


B. leukocidin


c hemolysis


d erythrogenic toxin


e none of the above

erythrogenic toxin

Virulence of neceiria gonnarhea is related to


a flagellum


b spore


c pilli


d protease


e c and D

c and D


protease and pili

Meningitis is the most common complication of the ____ infection


a bacilus cerus


b. neissaria menengitis


c e coli


d staph aureus


e none of the above

neissaria menengitis

which of the following is found in all viruses


a. nucleic acids


b. proteins


c envelope


d capsid


e a, b, and d



a b and d

viruses that do not destroy their hosts are called lysogenic


true or false

true

retroviruses have an unusual enzyme called reverse transriptase that converts single stranded RNA to double


true or false

true

paroviruses are _____ stranded viruses


a double stranded


B single stranded


C non stranded


D circular

single

the use of aspirin is not recommeneded in the case of chicken pox because of the risk of _____ disease


a encephalitis


b reye syndrome


C dissimated


d lymphoma


E mono



reye syndrome

what is the cause of kissing disease?


a hepadenavirus


b epstien-barr virus


c western blot test


d VCV


e HSV



epstien-barr virus

The most specific test for AIDS is called


a ELISA


B. latex agglutination


c wetern blott test


d adizothymidine


e. depressed t cells

western blott test

viruses can multiply essential nutrients


true or false

true

Eveloped viruses released from infected cells by the ____ process


A. fusion


b budding


c maturation


d lysis


e all of the above

budding

the colonies of staphlococi is large and pigmented in solid media


true or false

true

for identification of gram - coci which of the following tests are reqiured


A. net test


b. MSA


C blood agar


d a and c


e none of the above

a and c


blood agar and net

The cause of bubbling in the catalase test is the production of ____


A. n2


b Co2


C. O2


D. none of the above

O2

The first test for identification of unknown is


A. oxidase test


b enterotube test


c catalase test


d gram staining


e NET test

gram staining

The color of the partial hemolysis on blood agar is


a clear


b green


c red


d yellow


e gold

Green

Matching




enterotube

proteus vulgaris

matching




NET test

Neisseria gonorrhea

Matching




Optochin test

Strep pneumonia

matching




blood agar test

hemolysis

When an individual encounters an antigen for the first time, _____ antibody to that antigen is detecable in the serum within days, or weeks




A. IgG


b. Ig A


c IgD


d IgM


E IgE

IgM

Matching




beanshaped

neisseria gonorrhea

Matching




Encapsulated containing SSS

Strep Pneumonia

Matching




Tetanus

Clostridum Tetani

Matching




Coliform Bacteria

E Coli

Matching




Spore former block-shaped angular rods

Bacillus Anthracis

By what mechanisms does lacriamation (tearing) provide defence from microbial infection


A. provide a chemical barrier


b provide a physical barrier


c conatins lysosomes


d A & C


e none

A and C

The maturation of T cells will be done in the ____


A bone marrow


b lymph nodes


c thymus


d stem cells


e none

thymus

barriers involved in the 1st line of defence are




a physical


b chemical


c genetic


d. A, B and C


e none

A b and c

True or false




Endotoxins of gram negative bacterium produce fever by resetting the thermostat in the hypothalamus

true

______ main work is in phagocytosis




A basophils


b neutrophils


c erythrocytes


d esionophils


e lymphocytes

neutrophils

Steptococus pyrogenes grow in _____




A. 7.5% NaCL


b. blood agar


C MSA


D blood agar


E B and D

B and D

Genetic defences include


a species specificity


b racial differences


c ethnic differences


d individual differances

species specificity

T/F

Serum can clot and plasma cannot

F

Attraction of phagocytic cells due to the chemical stimulus from the microorganism is called


A. ingestion


b microbial killing


c chemotaxis


d migration


e A and B

chemotaxis

The maturation of B cells will be done in ____


A bone marrow


b lymph node


C thymus


D stem cells


E none

bone marrow

Matching




Placental tranferal and milk

Natural passive immunity

Matching




post chicken pox

Natural active immunity

Matching




DPT

Artifical active immunity

Matching




Tetanus antitoxin

artificial passive immunity

Matching




Species

native natural immunity

This enzyme (membrane attack complex) digests hole in the cell membrane of Bacterial cells and enveloped viruses thereby destroying them


a interferon


b complement


c lymphokine


d cytokine


e none

cytokine

Opsonins are effeictive because they coat the surface of bacteria, facilitate their ingestion by


A. T cells


b antibodies


c b cells


d phagocytosis


e monocytes

phagocytosis

Herpes simplex I becomes latent i the ____


A sacral ganglion


b DRG


c Trigeminal ganglion


d none

trigeminal ganglion

Virus- like agents with atypical chemical and physical properties that cause the spongiform encephalopathies is called ____


a virion


b virus


c bacteria


d prions


e mycoplasma

prions

Matching


associated with an allergy

IgE

Matching




Sedondary response, memory antibodies

IgG

Matching




Associated with mucous membranes

IgA

The smallest unit of a complex antigen able to bind to an antibody is ____


A antibody response


b epitope


c antigenic response


d hapton


c none

epitope

Allergic response requires two exposures to allergen


T/F

T

______ delayed inflammation of the joints and heart due to various streptococci antigen


A scarlet fever


b pneumonia


c acute glomerulonephritis


d rheumatic fever

Rheumatic fever

Toxic shock syndrome is a disease process caused by a toxin produced by ____


A neisseria gonorrhea


b staphylococus aureus


c staphlococus epidermis


d streptococus pyrogenes


e none

staph aureus

Pharyngitis or tonsillitis (strep throat), is the result of an infection associated with ___


a strep mitis


b strep pyrogenes


c strep pneumonia


d staph aureus


e E coli

Strep pyrogenes

Matching




vaccination against polio

artificial passive immunity

Matching




no antigen memory

passive immunity (general)

Matching




injection of Hep. B antibodies

artificial active immunity

Matching




Fetus recieves tetanus antibodies

natural passive immunity

Matching




Recovery from mumps

natural active immunity

Memory cells are ___


A b cells only


b B and T cells


c macrophages


d t cells only


E B, T, and macrophages

B and T

THe term for a constant number of cases during a long period of time in a specific geographic locale is ___


A pandemic


B endemic


C epidemic


D sporadic


E prvalence

Endemic

Matching




Flu vaccination

artifical active immunity

Matching




enterobacterium clocae

enterotube

Matching




Staph aureus

MSA test

Matching




spore former

bacillus cerus

Matching




Nesseria meningitis

NET test

For identifying of Gram + bacilli which of the following tests are required


A gram staining


B. A and C


C. Blood agar hemolysis


D none



A and C

Latent viral infection implies that the virus is inserted into the host's cell:


A. plasmid


b. ribosome


c cytoplasmic membrane


d chromosome

chromosome

Beubonic plague is caused by:


A. yensinla pestis


b strep pneumonia


c hemophillus influenza


d borella pneumonia


e mycobacterium TB

yensila pestis

Complex viruses are enclosed by a


A. Capsid


B. nucleoprotein capsule


C nuclear cytoplasmic membrane of the host


D lipopolysaccharaide capsule

mem. of the host

VIruses are separated from all other micricrobes by


A their method of propagation


B their capsid configuration


C Their method of transmission


D their susceptibility to antibiotics

Propagation

An example of a complex virus


a. herpes virus


b adenovirus


c piconavirus


d papovavirus

herpes

DNA viruses replicate within :


a the cytoplasm


b the nucleolus


c the nucleus


d first by nucleus then cytoplasm

nucleus

Treschome is a disease of the


a skin


b oropharyngeal


c eyes


d eliminatory


e genitals

eyes

chlamydia trachomatis causese a venereal disease known as


a granuloma inguinola


b chancre


c chanroid


d lymphogranuloma venerum


e bejel

lymphogranuloma venerum

Ricket's in men cause:


A typhoid


b dysentry


c typhus


d food injection


e pneumonia

typhus

Rickettsiarickettsi causes


A. primary atypical pneumonia


b trench fever


c Q fever


d rocky mtn. spotted fever


e rickettsialpox

rocky mtn.

Nongonoccal urethritis may be caused by :


1. chlaymidia tracheomatis


2. chlamydia psittaci


3. mycoplasma hominis t-stain


4. neisseria gonnohrea


5. hemophilus veginelus

1 and 3

primary syphilis is charcterized by :


a. purulent urethral discharge


b open lesions termed chancre


c macropapliar rash over all of the body


d gumma type lesions

open leasions termed chancre

In the USA, the clinical pattern of pulmonary TB is usually:


a. asymptomatic or subclinical


b. overt


c easily recognizeable


d not recognizable


e freqently misdiagnosed

Asymptomatic

Lyme disease is transmitted by


A. respiratory droplets


B. wound contamination


C mosquitos


D ticks

ticks

An effective common household disinfectant is


A hydrogen peroxde


b bleach


c formaldehyde


d alcohol


e bath soap

bleach

T/F


Disinfectant is a chemical that is applied topically to the skin

F

The term "typhus fever" refers to diseases caused by :


A mycoplasma


b chlamydia


c rickettsia


d brucella

rickettsia

Hemophilus influenzae causes:


A chanroid


b influenza type A


C influenza type B


d purrlent meningitis

meningits

One of the following is widely used as an antiseptic because it is relatively non toxic to animal cells and tissues and very effective as a germicide against most bacteria, fungi, and viruses


A iodine


B. mercuochrome


C hydrogen peroxide


D 70% ethyl alcohol



iodine

Herpes virus vericellae causes


A genital herpes


B infectious mononucleosis


C chicken pox


D. measles

Chicken pox

Borrella Burgdoferi is the cause of :


A Yaws


B Lyme's disease


C bejal


D pinta

lymes disease

The major symptomatic feature of Reye's syndrome is


A severe encephalopathy


B meningits


C liver failure


D vomiting

severe encephalopathy

"slow viruses" are generally viruses that infect the CNS




T/F

True

The most detrimental food poisoning is caused by:


A staph aureus


B strep pyrogenes


C salmonella


D clostridum botulism

Clostridum Botulism

Tetanus occurs at the highest incidence in


A infants and children


B teenagers


C young adults less than 50


D adults older than 60

older than 60

Matching




MSA no growth

Strep pyrogenes

Matching




MSA acid production

Staph aureus

Matching




no acid production

Staph epidermis

Diptheria can be an infection of the


A the GI


B the respiratory tract


C. the liver


D all of the above

respiratory

T/F


Herpes virus is an eveloped double stranded DNA virus

F

Coliform Bacteria include all of the following except


A e coli


B eterobacteria


C serratia marcescens


D proteus vulgaris

proteus vulgaris

Viruses penetrate into animal cells by ___


A absorption


B engulfing


C fusion


D b and C


E NONE

b and C

_____ can grow on MSA and produce acid (yellow)




A staph epidermis


B Staph pyrogenes


C staph aureus


D strep salivarius


E none

staph aureus

The zone of complete hemolysis on the blood agar is ____


a clear


b green


c red


d yellow


e gold

clear

The constant number of reported diseases cases in a particular country would be called ____


a epidemic


b pandemic


c endemic


d prevalence

endemic

lysosome is an enzyme which __________


A creates the cell wall in gram + bacteria


B creates the cell wall in gram - bacteria


C breaks down cell wall of bacteria


D is found in tears and saliva


E Both C and D

Both C and D

which line of defence is for long term immunity


A. 1st


B 2nd


C 3rd


D 4th

3rd

Which of the following can grow in the MSA?


A staph aureus


B. strep mitis


C staph epidermis


D both A and C

both a and c

Which of the following are catalase (+)?




A staph aureus


B staph saliverius


C staph epidermis


D both A and C

both A and C

Which of the folowing are catalase (-)?



A. strep pneumonia


B. strep mitis


C step salivaris.


D all of the above

all of the above

Which is the most superior structure on the microscope in lab


A base


b arm


c ocular lens


d nose peice

ocular lens

All of the following are prokaryotic cells except:


A. bacteria


B. fungi


C algae


D heminth worms


E. B, C, and D

B , C, and D




what a dumb ass question....

The ___ filament provides movment for the microbe:


A pili


b fimbrae


c axial


d none

axial

T/F


Bacillus can be seen in palisades and can be paired?



T

WHich represses the trancription of DNA?


A control locus


b regulator


c stuctural locus


d none

reuglator

Point mutation includes ___ in a few hours


A addition


B substitiution


C removal


D all of the above

all of the above

This type of mutation occurs when there is a displacement of an amino acid in the code?


A point mutation


b missence mutation


c nonsense mutation


d both B and C


E spontaneous mutation

missense

All of the following are hemolytic types of bacteria except


A strep pneumonia


b strep mitis


c neisseria gonorrhea


d branhamella catarrhalis

branhamella catarrhalis

______ is gram (-) bacillus


A e coli


B pseudomonas aeruginosa


C proteus vulgaris


D bacillus cerus


E A, B, and C

A, B and C

T/F


Spores can be stained through gram staining



F

Ingration of viral DNA into Bacterial DNA is the initiation of the ____ phase of the bacteriophage replication


A. lytic


B. lysogenic


C acute


D none

lytic

For identification of gram + bacili, which tests are required


A. gram staining


B MSA


C. Blood


D A and C


E none of the above

A and C

______ can grow on MSA without acid production


A staph epidermis


B strep pyrogenes


C staph aureus


d strep salivarius


e none

staph epidermis

______ is the fastest test for detection of sterp from staph




A MSA


B. Enterotube


C. catalase test


D optochin test


E net test

catalase