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95 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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1.What are transposons?
A. Animal virions without their protein coat
B. Plasmids which create mutagenesis by reading frame shift
C. An early stage of bacterial endospore development
D. Episomal NDA which can combine with the bacterial genome or a variety of plasmids inter-changeably.
E. Infectious RNA
D. Episomal DNA which can combine wth the bacterial genome or a variety of plasmids inter-changeably
2. Which of the following microbic groups would not have mitochondria?
A. Yeasts
B. Mold
C. Rickettsia
D. Protozoa
E. None of the Above
C. Rickettsia
3. Of the following microscopes, which one can resolve the smallest objects?
A. Brightfield microscope
B. Ultraviolet microscope
C. Phase-contrast microsope
D. Dark-field microscope
E. Transmission electron microscope
F. Scanning electron microscope
E. Transmission elelctron microscope
4. Gram-positive bacteria that have their cell walls removed or badly dameaged stain:
A. Gram-positive
B. Gram-negative
C. Acid-fast
D. The same as their species with cell walls intact
E. Do not stain at all
B. Gram negative
5. The endorspore has at least two properties that make it resistant to many harsh environmental conditions. They are:
A. High water content and high motility
B. An abundance of outer membranes (coates, etc.) and low water content
C. Lack of NDA and heat-labile protein
D. Ability to multiply rapidly and produce energy
B. An abundance of outer membranes (coats, etc.) and low water content
6. Motility among eubacteria is dependent on the presence of:
A. Flagella
B. Pili
C. Capsule
d. Mesosome
A. Flagella
7. A bacterial pathogen is most likely to be:
A. A heterotroph
B. An autotroph
C. A thermophile
D. A halophile
E. A psychrophile
A. A heterotroph
8. A hypothetical bacterial growth medium permits only anaerobic spore-forming organisms to grow. Of these, the nonpathogenic members are purplewhile the pathogens are white. Such a hypothetical medium would be classified as:
A. Enriched medium
B. Selective medium
C. Differential medium
D. Selective and differential medium
E. Auxotrophic medium
C. Differential medium
9. An organism is isolated from the mud at the bottom of a hot (87 degree C) sulfur spring in Yellowstone National Park at a depth of 25 m, where there is little, if any, free oxygen. The organism is characterized as:
A. An aerobic psychrophile
B. An anaerobic psychrophile
C. An anaerobic thermophile
D. An anaerobic mesophile
E. An aerobic barophile
C. An anaerobic thermophile
10. In the anaerobic energy-derivation mechanism called fermentation the final electron acceptor is:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. An organic compound
D. A catabolic enzyme
E. Sulfates, nitrates
F. NADH
E. Sulfates, nitrates
11. A growing culture of bacteria in log phase was inoculated at 6 p.m. into growth medium. They endered the log phase at 7 p.m., and divided every 30 min. If the culture reached a cell concentration of 10 to the 9th power per ml at 12 midnight, at what time was growth one-half of the maximum?
A. 9:30
B. 11:00
C. 11:30
D. None of the above, but possible to calculate
E. Impossible to calculate on the information given.
E. Impossible to calculate on the information given.
13. Viral envelopes are composed of:
A. Nucleic acid
B. protein
C. Lipid or phospholipid
D. Polysaccharide
E. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipid or phospholipid
14. Which of the following is caused by a protozoan?
A. Diphtheria
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Malaria
D. Psittacosis
E. Epidemic typhus
C. Malaria
15. In general, when is a culture of bacteria most susceptible to a lethal agent?
A. In the logarithmic phase of growth
B. In the late stationary phase of growth
C. When the temperature is 10 degrees C below the optimum growth temperature
D. After it has formed dormant spores
E. during log death phase
A. In the logarithmic phase of growth
16. Energy yielding reactions are referred to as anaerobic respiraton if the final hydrogen acceptor is:
A. An organic compound
B. oxygen
C. destroyed
D. pyruvic acid
E. inorganic compound other than atmospheric oxygen
E. inorganic compound other than atmospheric oxygen
18. Invasion of a host cell by which of the following would produce the more immediate death of the host cell?
A. Lytic phage
B. Temperat phage
C. Plasmid
D. RTF (?)
E. Prophage
A. Lytic phage
19. The idea that an isolated colony is a pure culture is based upon which of the following statements:
A. Since only one colony is growing at that location, the cells of that colony must fulfill the same ecological niche and therefore belong to the same species.
B. Originally dispersed motile cells of one species have clumped together for reproductive purposes.
C. The cells of the colony all orinigated from a single cell and therefore are essentially genetically alike.
D. Cells will not conjugate on the surface of the agar with the lights on.
E. Only cells wich produce endospores will survive on solid media
C. The cells of the colony all orinigated from a single cell and therefore are essentially genetically alike.
20. An organism which can survive adequately both with and without oxygen is called a(n):
A. Aerobe
B. Facultative
C. Conditional anaerobe
D. anaerobe
E. Lethal mutation
B. Facultative
21-26 Microbial Group Characteristics
21. Eucaryotic, nonphotosynthetic usually motile
protozoa
22. Procaryotic, lacking a cell wall
Mycoplasma
23. Contains either DNA or RNA
viruses
24. Procaryotic, photosynthetic, often filamentous
Bacteria (maybe?)
25. Obligate intracellular parasites, lacking energy producing enzymes, elementary bodies
Rickettsia (or chlamydia?)
26. Eucaryotic, nonphotosynthetic, often filamentous
fungi
Some strains of Bacillus cereus when grown on the surface of an agar semium containing starch as the sole source of carbohydrate demonstrate large clear zones around the colonies if the surface of the agar is flooded with iodine (iodine will combine with intact stach to produce a blue-black complex). What conclusion would you draw about the following?
41. What is the explanation of the clear zone around the colonies?
A. The B. cereus must be lysogenic
B. the B. cereus is producing an antibiotic
C. The B. cereus is producing an amylase
D. The B. cereus is acidogenic
E. the B. cereus lacks a TCA cycle
C. The B. cereus is producing an amylase
Some strains of Bacillus cereus when grown on the surface of an agar semium containing starch as the sole source of carbohydrate demonstrate large clear zones around the colonies if the surface of the agar is flooded with iodine (iodine will combine with intact stach to produce a blue-black complex). What conclusion would you draw about the following?
42. From these data which of the following characterizations seem most appropriate?
A. B. cereus is producing an endocellular, constitutive enzyme which inactivates iodine
B. Iodine is inducing the transformation of B. cereus
C. The organisms of the colonies arereleasing an exocellular inducible enzyme which degrades starch
D. B. cereus must be growing by anaerobic fermentaion
E. B. cereus is producing lysozyme
C. The organisms of the colonies arereleasing an exocellular inducible enzyme which degrades starch
Some strains of Bacillus cereus when grown on the surface of an agar semium containing starch as the sole source of carbohydrate demonstrate large clear zones around the colonies if the surface of the agar is flooded with iodine (iodine will combine with intact stach to produce a blue-black complex). What conclusion would you draw about the following?
43. Which of the following characterizations are also supported by these data?
A. B. cereus is a chemoautotroph
B. B. cereus is a photoautotroph
C. B. cereus is a chemoheterotroph
D. B. cereus is a competent prottroph
E. B. cereus is a photoautotroph
C. B. cereus is a chemoheterotroph
Some strains of Bacillus cereus when grown on the surface of an agar semium containing starch as the sole source of carbohydrate demonstrate large clear zones around the colonies if the surface of the agar is flooded with iodine (iodine will combine with intact stach to produce a blue-black complex). What conclusion would you draw about the following?
44. What would you predict concerning the presence of a peroxidase (catalase) in B. cereus?
A. Present but inactive under the above conditions
B. Present and active in the organisms growing growing on the surface of the agar
C. Absent under the above cultural conditions
D. Never present in B. cereus
E. Must be present since acid is produced
B. Present and active in the organisms growing growing on the surface of the agar
Some strains of Bacillus cereus when grown on the surface of an agar semium containing starch as the sole source of carbohydrate demonstrate large clear zones around the colonies if the surface of the agar is flooded with iodine (iodine will combine with intact stach to produce a blue-black complex). What conclusion would you draw about the following?
45. What is indicated concerning its oxygen requirements?
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Microaerophilic
D. Facultative
E. No way to judge
A. Aerobic
1. Which of the following is characterisitic of ONLY prokaryotic cells?
A. Both DNA and RNA in the cell
B. Only DNA or RNA in the cell
C. ---(?)ribosomes
D. Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
E. Cell membrane containing sterols
D. Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
3. Which of the following statements is most descriptive of a virus that causes disease in humans?
A. It is capable of producing an exotoxin
B. Its envelope contains endotoxin materials
C. It is capable of binding to a receptor, entering the cell, replicating inthecell and causing cell dysfunction
D. It is capable of reproducing in the blood causing fever
E. It is equally likely to infect bacterial, fungal, plant or animal cells but it gained access too a human cell first.
C. It is capable of binding to a receptor, entering the cell, replicating inthecell and causing cell dysfunction
4. In normal human blood which type of white blood cell is usually found in the hightest proportion?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte
E. Lymphocyte
A. Neutrophil
5. Which of the following would be most likely to be associated with septic shock?
A. Rapidly spreading viral infection
B. Gram negative sepsis
C. Viremia
D. Localized but severe staphylococcal infection
E. Hemolysins
B. Gram negative sepsis
6. Finding bacteria in which of the following specimens would be of greatest clinical significance?
A. Swab of the nares
B. Urine
C. Pleural fluid
D. Sputum
E. Tears
C. Pleural fluid
7. All of the following could be seen with a bright field, visible light microscope except:
A. red blood cells
B. Mycobacteria
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
E. Viruses
E. Viruses
8. Which of the following white blood cells is found to increase in peripheral circulatoin in response to an acute primary bacterial infection acompanied by the accumulation of pus at the site of infection?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Megakaryocytes
E. Neutrophils
E. Neutrophils
9. A strain of a pathogenic oragnism which has lost its ability to cause an infection in normal hosts is referred to as:
A. An opportunistic pathogen
B. An endemic pathogen
C. An overt pathogen
D. An antbiotic sensitive pathogen
E. An avirulent strain of pathogen
E. An avirulent strain of pathogen
10. A microscope with a 10X ocular lens and a 45X objective lens would be capable of what magnification power?
A. 4.5X
B. 45X
C. 55X
D. 450X
E. 550X
D. 450X
11. Which of the following is associated with an inflammatory reaction occurring in the body?
A. Leucopenia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Elevated erythroctye sedimentation rate
D. Lack of C-reactive protein in serum
E. elevated number of RBC in circulation
C. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
12. Which of the following stages would occur earliest in the course of an acute infection?
A. Crisis
B. Acute phase
C. Convalescent phase
D. Latent phase
E. Prodromal phase
E. Prodromal phase
13. You would always expect to be able to find which of the following in the blood of a person suffering from fever?
A. Bacteria or viruses
B. Endogenous pyrogens
C. Exotoxins
D. Superoxides
E. Histamines
B. Endogenous pyrogens
14. The Gram reaction is determined by what bacterial structure?
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Capsule
D. ribosomes
E. Plasmids
A. Cell wall
15. Treating Gram-positive cells suspended in isotonic medium with lysozyme would produce what results?
A. Protoplasts
B. Acid fast reactin
C. Hemolysis
D. Increased cell growth
E. Lysis of the cells
E. Lysis of the cells
16. a toxoid is made from which of the following?
A. Bacterial capsule material
B. flagellin
C. Endotoxins
D. Exotoxins
E. Antibodies against the toxin
D. Exotoxins
17. Which of the following types of antibiotics would be expected to be least effective for treating mycoplasal infections?
A. Cell wall inhibiting- Penicillin and cephalosporins
B. Protein synthesis inhibiting - Tetracyclines
C. Antimetabolite - sulfa drugs
D. Membrane inhibiting - Polymixin
E. any of the above would be equally effective
A. Cell wall inhibiting- Penicillin and cephalosporins
18. Whic hof the following would be characteristic of endotoxins and not exotoxins?
A. Usually proteins excreted by living cells
B. Highly antigenic
C. Usually proteins encoded by plasmids in the bacteria
D. Produced by both bacteria and viruses but not fungi
E. Lipopolysaccharides of the bacterial cell wall
E. Lipopolysaccharides of the bacterial cell wall
19. Which of the following types of infectious disease does not produce identifiable symptoms in the infected host?
A. Latent infection
B. Subclinical infection
C. Chronic infection
D. Acute infection
E. Secondary infection
B. Subclinical infection
20. Which of the following terms is descriptive of bacterial DNA?
A. Multiple segments of linked linear molecules
B. Circular molecule
C. Single-stranded
D. Separated from cytoplasm by mesosome
E. Contains intron segments in structural genes
B. Circular molecule
21. Whic hof hte following statements best reflects the pathogenicity of the fungi as a group?
A. Ther are few fungal pathogens, but those species that are pathogenic often produce fatal infections
B. there are a large number of fungal pathogens, but they usually produce only mild infections that are never fatal.
C. There are few species of fungi that are pathogenic, and they usually become established only in hosts whose resistance is down
D. Even though there are many fungal patogens, infections by fungi are quicly and easily treated so they are of little pathogenic consequence
E. There are only a few fungal pathogens but those that are prduce serious pathogenic outcomes because of their ability to produce a wide variety of exotoxins
C. There are few species of fungi that are pathogenic, and they usually become established only in hosts whose resistance is down
22. You isolate a new bacterial species from a hot spring in Wyoming. It is characterized as a rod-shaped cell growing in long chains under aerobic conditions with an optimum temperaure of growth at 57 degrees C. Which of the following would be the most appropriate germs species name that you would give you isolate?
A. Streptobacillus thermophylicus
B. Streptococcus thermoli
C. Streptoacillus psychrophylicus
D. Bacillus aerobicus
E. Spirillum wrighticus (in honor of your microbiology instructor)
A. Streptobacillus thermophylicus
23. Finding acid fast, rod-shaped organisms in a sputum sample would indicate what?
A. the patient probably has a gram negative pneumonia
B. the patien is infected with Bacillus anthracis
C. The patient probably has a tetanus infectin
D. The patient is probably HIV infected
E. the patien probably has tuberculosis
E. the patien probably has tuberculosis
24. obligate anaerobes that are killed by even small amounts of oxygen would lack which of the following enzymes?
A. Catalase
B. Catalase, superoxide dismutase, and peroxidase
C. Enzymesof the Embden-Myerhoff pathway
D. Peroxidase
E. TCA cycle enzymes
B. Catalase, superoxide dismutase, and peroxidase
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacterial pili?
A. Structure providing motility
B. Structure allowing bacteria to adhere to tissues
C. Can be adapted to allow transfer of plasmids from one cell to another
D. Can be antigenic
E. Aids some bacteria in colonizing human tissue
A. Structure providing motility
26. what is/are the sgtructure(s) responsible for motility in bacteria?
A. flagella
B. cilia
C. pili
D. flagella, cilia, and pili
E. capsule and pili
A. flagella
27. Which of the following best characterizes viruses?
A. Extremely small, obligate intracellularly parasitic prokaryotic cells
B. Obligate intracellularly parasitic, self-replicating genetic material surrounded by a protective protein coat
C. Obligate intracellular prokaryotes lacking a cell wall but surrounded by a protective envelope derived from the cell in which they replicate
D. Usually obligate intracellular parasites that are deficient in energy producing mechanisms
E. small prokaryotic cells that have adapted to intracellular replication because of their extremely weak cell membrane
B. Obligate intracellularly parasitic, self-replicating genetic material surrounded by a protective protein coat
28. How could you improve the resolving power of a microscope system?
A. Increase magnification by introducing more lenses in the system
B. Increase the amount of light entering the system
C. shorten gthe wave length of light passed through the specimen
D. Increase the wave length of light passed through the specimen
E. Use living specimens rather than killed, fixed specimens
shorten the wave length of light passed through the specimen
29. Where is peptidoglycan found in bacteria?
A. Pili
B. Cell wall
C. Ribosomes
D. Capsule
E. cytoplasmic inclusion
B. Cell wall
30. The swelling at the site of a local inflammatory site produced by infectious injury is the result of which of the following?
A. Fluid and cellular exudation
B. Presence of bradykinin and other activators
C. Vascular dilation and fibrin clot formaiton
D. Activation of the complement system
E. Acton of the fibroblasts forming scar tissue
A. Fluid and cellular exudation
31. Each of the following paired structures are composeed of the same chemical material with the exceptio nof which of the following?
A. 70s ribosome: 80s ribosome
B. Bacterial genome: plasmid
C. Bacterial cell membrane: mesosome
D. Gram-negative outer wall: Gram-negative inner wall
E. BActerial RNA: Fungal RNA
D. Gram-negative outer wall: Gram-negative inner wall
32. What are plasmids?
A. Small, circular pieces of extrachromosomal DNA found in some bacterial cells
B. Regions of DNA in a bacterial chromosome that encode for exotoxins
C. Infectious viral particles
D. Factors that combine with rRNA to form ribosomes
E. The nucleic acid core of viruses
A. Small, circular pieces of extrachromosomal DNA found in some bacterial cells
33. Which of the following bacterial genera produces endospores and grows aerobically?
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Mycobacterium
E. Mycoplasma
B. Bacillus
34. From an exotic rain forest plant you isolate aglycopeptide that binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing its attachment to mRNA. You also demonstrate that it does not bind to the 40s ribosome. Your glycopeptide may have which of the following potentials?
A. Use as a cancer chemotherapeutic agent preventing protein synthesis in cancer cells
B. Use in isolating platn cell wall constituents
C. use in isolating plasmids from bacterial cells
D. Use as a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic for bacterial infections
E. Use as a cell wall inhibiting antibiotic for bacterial infections
D. Use as a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic for bacterial infections
35. Which of the following organisms would you not be able to grow on an enriched lab medium like blood agar?
A. Mycobacteria
B. Rickettsia
C. Gram positive bacteria
D. Gram negative bacteria
E. yeast cells
B. Rickettsia
36. What type of microscopic technique would be most appropriate for viewing Treponema pallidum in exudate from a sypilitic chancre lesion?
A. Gram stained smear using bright field microscopy
B. Acid fast stained smear using bright field microsopy
C. Unstained sample of exudate using dark field microscopy
D. negative stained specimen using phase contrast microscopy
E. Unstained sample of exudate using transmission electron microscopy
C. Unstained sample of exudate using dark field microscopy
37. The electron tansport system cytochromes are located where in a bacterial cell?
A. Capsule
B. Cell wall
C. Inner membrane of mitochondria
D. Cell membrane
E. Plasmid
D. Cell membrane
38. Dipicolinic acid is an important consituent of:
A. All prokaryotic organisms
B. All viruses
C. Cell walls of bacteria
D. Some viruses
E. Cortex of bacterial endospores
E. Cortex of bacterial endospores
39. Penicillins are only effective inkilling which of the following?
A. All bacteria and some viruses
B. Bacteria that are growing
C. Some bacteria, some fungi and some protozoa
D. Enveloped viruses
E. Mycoplasma ad bacterial endospores
B. Bacteria that are growing
40. The inflammatory response is triggered by:
A. Viral infections
B. The presence of endogens pyrogens in circulation
C. Any type of cellular injury
D. Any injury that causes a reduction in blood volume
E. Leucocytosis
C. Any type of cellular injury
43. Bacterial cells usually reproduce by what method when growing in culture?
A. Binary fission
B. Conjugation
C. Sporulation
D. Budding
E. Fragmentation
A. Binary fission
44. What term dexcribes the degree of pathogenicity of an organism?
A. Toxicity
B. Resistance
C. Encapsulation
D. virulence
E. Inflammatory response
D. virulence
45. Fever is an unreliable indicator of infection in which of the following cases?
A. 18 year old hemophiliac
B. 84 year old woman suspected of having pneumonia
C. 24 year old pregnant woman
D. 4 year old infant suspected of having a septicemia
E. All of the above
not sure i think its all
5. Which of the following white blood cells is found to increase to the greatest numbers in erpheral circulation in response to an acute primary bacterial infection accompanied by the accumulation of pus at the site of infection?
A. lymphocytes
B. eosinophils
C. basophils
D. megakaryocytes
E. neutrophils
E. neutrophils (?)
8. where are the electron transport system cytochromes found in bacterial cells?
A. DNA
B. Cell membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Ribosomes
B. Cell membrane
9. You would always expect to be able to find which of the following in the blood of a person suffereing from fever?
A. Bacteria or viruses
B. Endogenous pyrogens
C. Exotoxins
D. Super--(something)
E. Histamines
B. Endogenous pyrogens
14. Which of the following erms s descriptive of bacterial DNA?
A. Multiple of linked linear molecules
B. circular molecule
C. single-stranded
D. separated from cytoplasm by mesosome
E. Contains exon segments in structural genes
B. circular molecule
15. What is the primary function of the TCA (Kreb's) cycle in an aerobic bacterial cell growing in the presence of oxygen?
A. regeneratio of NAD from NADH
B. removal of electrons from intermediates to form NADH
C. formatio of NADH to be used by the mitochondria for oxidative phosphoryiation
D. formation of ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation
E. formatio of lactate to supply energy by substrate phosphoryiation
B. removal of electrons from intermediates to form NADH
16. Finding acid fast, rod-shaped organisms in a sputum sample would indicate what?
A. the patient probably has a gram negative pneumonia
B. The patient is infected with Bacilius anthracis
C. The patient probabl has a tetanus infection
D. The patient is probably HIV infected
E. The patient probably has tuberculosis
E. The patient probably has tuberculosis
17. Obligate anaerobes that are killed by even small amounts of oxygen would lack which of the following enzymes?
A. catalase
B. catalase, superoxide dismutase, and peroxidase
C. Enzymes of the Embden-Myerhoff pathway
D. Peroxidase
E. TCA cycle enzymes
B. catalase, superoxide dismutase, and peroxidase
18. whic hof the following methods would be used to count the number of living cells growing in a culture?
A. Microscopic enumeration using a Petroff-Hauser slide
B. change in optical density of a culture suspension
C. streak plate on a selective-differential medium
D. standard plate count
E. increase of wet weight of cells in culture
D. standard plate count
21. Which of the following compounds would be the most likely final electron acceptor in a bacterial cell that derives its energy by anaerobic respiration?
A. O2
B. pyruvate
C. lactate
D. inorganic nitrate
E. paroxide
D. inorganic nitrate
22. At what site on the operon does RNA polymerase bind?
A. regulator gene
B. structural gene
C. repressor protein
D. operator region
E. Promotor region
E. Promotor region
24. Penicillin could be expected to be bactericidal only in which of the following situations?
A. Gram-positive organism in log phase of growth
B. Mycoplasma in log phase of growth
C. Bacilius cerus in stationary phase of growth
D. Gram-negative culture in death phase of growth
E. Gram-positive culture in persistence phase of growth
A. Gram-positive organism in log phase of growth
25. Blood agar is an example of what type of culutre medium?
A. Chemically defined medium
B. General purpose medium
C. Enriched medium
D. Selective-differential medium
E. Transport medium
C. Enriched medium
26. Baceterial cells usually reproduce by what method when growing in culture?
A. Binary fission
B. conjugation
C. sporulation
D. budding
E. fragmentation
A. Binary fission
27. Which of the following terms is not descriptive of a RTF (resistance transfer factor)?
A. is a plasmid
B. carries the fertility factor genes on it
C. is capable of being transferred from an F+ cell to an F- cell
D. Carries genes that encode for (......) production
E. Renders a cell that receives it resistant to an antibiotic
not sure cant reed it but all are ture but D
28. Whic hof the following is characteristic of the genetic recombination mechanism known as transformation?
A. naked NDA is taken up by a competent bacterium
B. a temperate bacteriophage introduces bacterial genes into a lysogenic bacterium
C. genes are transferred when an (...) strain forms an intracytoplasmic bridge with an F- strain
D. a lytic bacteriophage enters a susceptible cell
E. genes are transferred by the transmission of a plasmid from an (...) (sorry)
A. naked DNA is taken up by a competent bacterium
29. What type of mutagenic agent produces thymine dimers in the DNA?
A. alkylating agent
B. ionizing radiation
C. proflavin dye
D. lysozyme
E. UV radiation
E. UV radiation
30. The mechanism of actio of tetracycline antibiotics is which of the following?
A. disruptio of cell membrane
B. metabolic analog incorporation
C. inhibition of protein synthesis
D. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
C. inhibition of protein synthesis
5. Which of the following white blood cells is found to increase to the greatest nubers in peripheral circulation in response to an acute primary bacterial infection accompanied by the accumulation of pus at the site of infection?
A. lymphocytes
B. eosinophils
C. basophils
D. megakaryocytes
E. neutrophils
E. neutrophils
15. What is the primary function of the TCA (Kreb's) cycle in an aerobic bacterial cell growing in the presence of oxygen?
A. regeneration of NAD from NADH
B. removal of electrons from intermediates to form NADH
C. formation of NADH to be used by the mitochondria for oxidative phosphoryiation
D. formatio of ATP by substrate-level phosphoryation
E. formation of lactate to supply energy by substrate phosphoryiation
B. removal of electrons from intermediates to form NADH
21. Which of the following compounds would be the most likely final electron acceptor in a bacterial cell that derives its energy by anaerobic respiration?
A. O2
B. pyruvate
C. lactate
D. inorganic nitrate
E. peroxide (?)
D. inorganic nitrate
22. At what site on the operon does RNA polymerase bind?
A. regulator gene
B. structural gene
C. repressor protein
D. operator region
E. promotor region
E. promotor region
24. Penicillin could be expected to be bactericidal only in which of the following situations.
A. Gram-positive organism in log phase of growth
B. Mycoplasma in log phase of growth
C. bacillus cerus in stationary phase of growth
D. Gram-negative culture in death phase of growth
E. Gram-positive culture in persistence phase of growth
A. gram-positive organism in log phase of growth
25. Blood agar is an example of what type of culture medium?
A. chemically defined medium
b. general purpose medium
C. enriched medium
D. selective-differential medium
E. transport medium
C. enriched medium
26. Bacterial cells usually reproduce by what method when growing in culture?
A. binary fission (?)
B. conjugation
C. sporulation
D. budding
E. fragmentation
A. binary fission (?)