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125 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The respiratory tracts are divided into two. What are those?
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Upper and lower tracts
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The upper respiratory tracts are ... ?
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Nasal cavity, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx
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The lower respiratory tracts are ... ?
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Lungs and bronchi
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Which infection is more dangerous, the lower or upper respiratory tract?
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Infections in the upper respiratory tract are fairly common; those in the lower respiratory tract are dangerous.
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Describe the innate immune response.
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The cells and mechanisms that defend the host from infection by other organisms, in a non-specific manner.
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Describe the adaptive immune response.
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It is adaptive immunity because the body's immune system prepares itself for future challenges.
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Why is the respiratory system the most accessible system in the body?
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Breathing brings in clouds of potentially infectious pathogens via respiratory tracts.
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Upper respiratory tract is essentially a sterile environment. True of False?
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False: Upper respiratory tract is continuously exposed to potential pathogens.
Lower respiratory tract is essentially a sterile environment. |
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How are respiratory pathogens transmitted?
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Respiratory pathogens are easily transmitted from human to human. They circulate within a community so that infections spread easily.
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Name two respiratory fungi which are the most dangerous?
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Aspergillus and Pneumocystis
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Fungi do not normally cause infection unless ... ?
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The patient is in some way immunocompromised.
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Pathogen, Legionella, only infects where?
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Lungs
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Streptococcus can cause infections at where?
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Middle ear infections, Sinusitis, and Pneumonia.
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Name the frequent sites of infection of the upper respiratory tracts.
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Middle ear, Mastoid cavity, Nasal sinuses, and Nasopharynx.
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Describe the significant defenses in the upper respiratory tracts.
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Mucociliary escalator (ciliated pseudostartified columnar ET) to trap pathogens and moves them up and out of the system; coughing to eliminate organisms forcefully
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Describe the significant defenses in the lower respiratory tracts.
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Alveolar macrophages in the alveoli helo protect against infection.
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Which is more danderous to have infection, in the upper or lower respiratory tract?
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The lower respiratory tract
Infections are more dangerous. |
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Describe innate immune response in the body defense mechanisms.
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The cells and mechanisms that defend the host from infection by other organisms, in a non-specific manner
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Describe adaptive immune response in the body defense mechanisms.
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It is adaptive immunity because the body's immune system prepares itself for future challenges.
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Why is the respiratory system the most accessible system in the body?
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Because breathing brings in clouds of potentially infectious pathogens.
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Some respiratory pathogens exist as part of the normal flora. Others are acquired from ...?
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Animal source, water, air etc
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Most dangerous fungi in respiratory infection are ...?
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Aspergillus and Pneumocystis
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Some pathogens are restricted to certain sites. Legionella only infects where?
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Lungs
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Some pathogens cause infection in multiple sites. Streptococcus can cause what?
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Middle ear infections, Sinusitis, and Pneumonia
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Frequent sites of infection are ...?
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Middle ear.
Mastoid cavity. Nasal sinuses. Nasopharynx. |
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Describe the significant defenses in the upper respiratory tract and the lower respiratory tract.
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The upper respiratory tract: Mucociliary escalator & Coughing.
The lower respiratory tract: Alveolar macrophages. |
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Bacteria that infect the respiratory system can be divided into groups. Describe four groups.
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a. Those that cause otitis media (middle ear infection), sinusitis, and mastoiditis
b. Those that cause pharyngitis c. Typical and atypical community-acquired pneumonia d. Hospital-acquired (nosocomial) pneumonia |
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Blood agar is used to detect what?
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Bacteria that produce enzymes to break apart the blood cells, which is called hemolysis.
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Beta Hemolysis in a blood agar indicates what?
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Complete Hemolysis,
Clear Zone Around Colonies on Blood Agar |
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Alpha Hemolysis on a blood agar indicates what?
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Incomplete Hemolysis
Greenish Zone Around Colonies on Blood Agar |
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Gamma Reaction on a blood agar indicates what?
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Absence of a Hemolytic Reaction
No Change Around Colonies on Blood Agar |
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Name a prominent American microbiologist- serological classification of beta-hemolytic streptococcal bacteria.
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Rebecca Craighill Lancefield
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Name the classification which is based on Serological Groupings.
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Lancefield Groups
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Describe a pathogen in Group A in Lancefield Groups.
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Streptococcus pyogenes
The most virulent human pathogen of the genus and beta hemolytic Often identified by rapid serological tests or by antibiotic resistance. |
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Describe a pathogen in Group B in Lancefield Groups.
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Streptococcus agalactiae.
Mildly to moderately virulent; esp. in children & elderly Usually beta or alpha hemolytic; some strains are gamma Detected biochemically. |
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Describe a pathogen in Group C in Lancefield Groups.
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Includes Streptococcus equi, which causes strangles in horses, and S. zooepidemicus- a subspecies of S. equi
- Causes infections in several species of mammals including cattle and horses. This can also cause death in chickens and moose. |
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Describe a pthogen in Group D in Lancefield Groups.
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Includes the fecal streptococci (enterococci)
Normal colon flora in humans & other animals Genus Enterococcus Several species; eg. Enterococcus faecalis Occasionally pathogenic; often in urinary tract infections Usually gamma reactive Detected biochemically |
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Name a infection which is swelling and irritation (inflammation) of the voice box (larynx) that is usually associated with hoarseness or loss of voice?
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Laryngitis
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What is the inflammation of the cartilage that covers the trachea (windpipe)?
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Epiglottitis
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What pathogen cause the epiglottitis?
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Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae or Streptococcus pyogenes.
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What pathogen cause the laryngitis?
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-Haemophilus influenzae & Streptococcus pneumoniae, could be fungal and viral.
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What pathogen cause the ottis media?
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Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae or Streptococcus pyogenes.
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What is the general term for infection or inflammation of the ear-fluid/pus/in the middle ear?
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Otitis media
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Mastoiditis is uncommon but very dangerous because...?
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Mastoid cavity is close to the nervous system and large blood vessels.
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Sinusitis's most common three causative agents are ...?
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Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis
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A classic form of pharyngitis is ...?
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Strep throat
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S. pyogenes can cause what (3 answers) ?
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Pharyngitis, scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome.
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Streptococcus pyogenes contains what in order to inhibit phagocytosis?
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M protein
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Scarlet fever is usually seen in who?
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Children under age of 18 years
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Symptoms of scarlet fever can include ... ?
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Very sore throat with yellow or white papules
Fever of 101˚F or higher Lymphadenopathy in neck Headache, body aches, and nausea |
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Diphtheria is caused by the toxin produced by what?
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae which is a potent inhibitor of protein synthesis
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Diphtheria can be accompanied by what?
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Plaque-like pseudomembrane in the throat
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Diphtheria is transmitted by what?
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Droplet aerosol, direct contact with skin, and fomites (clothing, furniture, soap, etc).
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What can make diphtheria life threatening?
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Toxemia (毒血症)
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What must be done as quickly as possible for treatment of diphtheria?
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Toxin neutralization
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Corynebacterium is poorly invasive, but effects of infection are due to what?
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Due to the exotoxin.
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What is the pathogenesis of diphtheria?
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a small Gram-positive bacillus, a potent inhibitor of protein synthesis.
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Describe the picornaviruses.
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Extremely small, non-enveloped, single-stranded RNA viruses
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Optimum temperature for picornavirus growth is ...?
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33˚C, which is the temperature in the nasopharynx
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50% that have rhinovirus infection are due to what?
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Picornaviruses.
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Parainfluenza virus contains what?
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Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
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What are the differences regarding transmission and pathology between influenza virus and parainfluenza virus?
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Parainfluenza virus replicates in the cytoplasm while influenza virus replicates in the nucleus.
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Parainfluenza is genetically more stable than influenza, and there is very little mutation so ... ?
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Little antigenic drift, and no antigenic shift
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Parainfluenza is a serious problem in elderly people. True or False?
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False: more serious in infants and small children.
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Bacterial pnemonia can be divided into two types. What are those?
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Nosocomial (hospital-acquired) and Community-acquired
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Nosocomial pneumonia is usually associated with Staphylococcus aureus or Gram-negative bacteria. True or False?
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True.
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Community-acquired pneumonia usually presents as what?
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A lobar pneumonia
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Community-acquired pneumonia is accompanied by what?
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Accompanied by fever, chest pain, and production of purulent sputum.
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Describe 4 stages of classical lobar pneumonia.
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1. Acute congestion - local capillaries become engorged with neutrophils.
2. Red hepatization - red blood cells from the capillaries flow into the alveolar spaces. 3. Grey hepatization - large numbers of dead neutrophils (are the first immune cells that reach the site of infection through a process known as chemotaxis) and degenerating red cells 4. Resolution - adaptive immune response begins to produce antibodies. Which control the infection. |
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Describe 2 types of atypical pneumonia.
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a. Coughing without sputum
b. Caused by a variety of bacterial pneumonia which can progress to the production of lung abscesses. |
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Typical bacterial pneumonia is a respiratory condition with what?
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Inflammation of the lung.
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Describe the Lobar Pneumonia.
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Streptococcus pneumonia that affects a part of a lobe in the lung or it may affect more than one lobes.
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Describe the Bronchial Pneumonia.
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Pneumonia spreads to several patches in one or both lungs and is most prevalant in infants, young children and aged adults
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Name the Gram-positive bacteria causing pneumonia.
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Gram-positive bacteria:
Streptococcus pneumoniae, often called "pneumococcus" , Staphylococcus aureus, with Streptococcus agalactiae. |
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Name the Gram-negative bacteria causing pneumonia.
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Gram-negative bacteria:
Haemophilus influenzae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Moraxella catarrhalis. |
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is treated with what?
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Penicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, and erythromycin.
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Chlamydia pneumonia is referred to as what?
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Walking pneumonia because no need for hospitalization.
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Mycoplasma pneumonia is a mild form of pneumonia. True or False?
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True.
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What kind of infection have had a significant role in the increase of tuberculosis?
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HIV and AIDS
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How many people are infected by tuberculosis in the world?
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An estimated 1.7 billion
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What leads to the evolution of drug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
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Noncompliance practiced by many patients who stop taking the drugs early because the treatment of tuberculosis require the daily administration of antibiotics for long period (at least 6 months)
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What are the initial symptoms of tuberculosis?
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Fever
Fatigue Weight loss Chest pain Shortness of breath Congestion with coughing |
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Tuberculosis is caused by ...?
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Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Describe the characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
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Rod-shaped bacillus
Acid-fast stain Nonspore forming Produces mycolic acid |
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M. tuberculosis cell wall interferes with what?
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Macrophage function (white blood cells which acts as phagocytes) and immune cells activation
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When Mycobacterium is ingested by macrophages, it inhibits the formation of what?
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Phagolysosome and eventually escape into the cytoplasm of the macrophage.
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Primary tuberculosis occurs when?
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When a host encounters pathogen for the first time.
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Describe the tubercles.
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Aggregates of enlarged macrophages filled with bacteria which are readily seen on X-rays
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Secondary tuberculosis can be due to ...?
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Reactivation of old lesions & gradual progression of primary tuberculosis into chronic disease.
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Describe the therapy for tuberculosis.
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Isoniazid (INH), Pyrazinamide (PZA)
Rifampicin (RFP) -> taken once a day for two months, followed by INH and RFP for nine more months. |
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Compliance for tuberculosis can be difficult because of ...?
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Because of side effects: the drugs are very toxic and most serious is liver toxicity.
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Pertussis infection is spread by ...?
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Spread by airborne droplets from patients in the early stages.
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What is the common name for pertussis?
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WHOOPING COUGH
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Pertussis is caused by ...?
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Bordetella pertussis
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Describe the characteristics of Bordetella pertussis.
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Gram-negative coccobacillus, which is a strictly human pathogen that has an affinity for ciliated bronchial ET.
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Symptoms of pertussis can be similar to those of a cold. True or False?
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True: that is why infected adults often spread the infection to schools and nurseries.
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Immunization against pertussis started in the 1940s and continues today as part of what?
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DTaP vaccination
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Bordetella pertussis has an affinity for what?
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Ciliated bronchial epithelium.
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After Bordetella pertussis attaching to ciliated bronchial epithelium, it produces what?
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A tracheal toxin.
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Describe the first stage of pertussis after an incubation period.
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a. Persistent perfuse and mucoid rhinorrhea (runny nose)
b. May have sneezing, malaise, and anorexia c. Most communicable during this stage |
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Most common complications of pertussis are what?
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Superinfection with Streptococcus pneumonia & Convulsions
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Inhalation anthrax produces ...?
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Produces a fulminate pneumonia which comes on suddenly with great severity and leads to respiratory failure and death.
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Anthrax primarily a disease of herbivores which are acquired from spores found in the soil of pastures. True or False?
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True!
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Inhalation anthrax is caused by...?
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Bacillus anthracis
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What is the characteristic of inhalation anthrax?
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Gram-positive rod
Spore-forming which germinate in human tissues |
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Pathogenesis of inhalation anthrax results from producing what?
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The powerful exotoxin
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Describe the characteristics of Legionella pneumophila.
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Gram-negative rod
Cannot be stained or grown using normal techniques |
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Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by a direct physical contact with infected person. True or False?
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False: Transmitted to humans as a humidified aerosol.
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Q fever is caused by ...?
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Caused by Coxiella burnetii
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Describe the characteristics of Coxiella burnetii.
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Gram-negative
Spore-forming Grows well in placenta of animals |
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Most cases of Q fever resolve spontaneously, but what can be given to shorten fever?
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Tetracycline
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Name the infection which is contracted by inhalation of bird droppings infected with Chlamydia psittaci.
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Psittacosis (Ornithosis)
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What antibiotics are effective for Psittacosis if given early.
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Tetracycline and erythromycin
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Majority of acute viral infections are in the lower respiratory tract and caused by what?
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Influenza virus & Respiratory syncytial virus.
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Differentiate between direct and indirect transmission.
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Direct – through droplets
Indirect – through hand transfer of contaminated secretions |
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Describe the characteristics of influenza virus.
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orthomyxovirus whose virions are surrounded by an envelope.
Genome is single-stranded RNA Allows a high rate of mutation Three major serotypes of virus: A, B, and C. |
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Influenza virus multiplies in where?
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The ciliated cells of lower respiratory tract.
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What will occur inside body if one is infected by influenza virus?
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a. Cellular synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins is shut down.
b. Ciliated and mucus-producing epithelial cells are shed. |
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Three bacteria which are common causes of superinfection are ...?
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus |
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The best treatments for influenza virus are what?
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Rest and fluid intake, conservative use of analgesics for myalgia and headache, and cough suppressants.
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What are useful to treat influenza virus only if the infection is diagnosed within 12-24 hours?
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Amantidine and rimantadine
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According to Lancefield, which group is the most virulent human pathogen of the genus?
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Group A (Streptococcus pyogenes)
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Parainfluenza and influenza virus replicates in where?
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Parainfluenza virus replicates in the cytoplasm.
Influenza virus replicates in the nucleus. |
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Describe the four stages in a classical lobar pneumonia.
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Acute congestion -> Red hepatization -> Grey hepatization -> Resolution
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Penicillin attacks where or what?
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The peptidoglycan found in bacterial cell walls.
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