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255 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the filaments called that branch out from molds?
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hyphae
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Give 3 examples of serious infectious diseases that occur without bacterial penetration through epithelial surfaces (aka ingresses)
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cholera
whooping cough infections of the urinary bladder |
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What are the fillaments collectively called?
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mycelium
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Does cholera (or milder relative traveler's diarrhea) need to enter host cells to cause disease?
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No
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What are the 2 primary mechanisms that prevent the establishment of many fungal infections?
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neutrophil phagocytosis and killing
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What disease is an example of how when internal tissues are damaged or defense mechanisms disrupted, circulating bacteria can cause serious disease?
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subacute bacterial endocarditis
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What is the most important host defense in the elimination of fungi?
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T cell-mediated immunity
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What is subacute bacterial endocarditis usually caused by?
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oral streptococci that invaded heart valves damaged by a previous disease (usually rheumatic fever)
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What are the asexual reproductive structures of fungi?
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conidia
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Name two infectious agents that can be acquired through blood transfusions
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HIV, HBV (hepatitis B virus)
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Give an example of an agent which causes a disease by causing intoxication (v. infection).
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Clostridium botulinum
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Name 2 types of parasites
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protozoa and helminths
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Glomerulonephritis is an example of what type of immunity?
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Humoral (antigen-antibody complexes deposited on the glomerular membrane of the kidneys)
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Are protozoa 1 or 2 celled? Prokaryotes or eukaryotes?
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1-celled eukaryotes
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The production of tubercles or granulomas are associated with what type of immunity?
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Cellular
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Name 5 important protozoal parasites
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Plasmodium species, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Leishmania, and trypanosomes
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Do prokaryotes have membrane-bound organelles?
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No
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Transmission of protozoa from one host to another usually depends on
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arthropod vectors
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How many bacteria is in our large intestine?
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10 trillion to 100 trillion
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Classification of protozoal pathogens (name 4)
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Amebas, flagellates, ciliates, and apicomplexans (sporozoa)
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What class of protozoa extend by pseudopods and then stream their cytoplasm in desired location?
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Amebas
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Do bacteria have a cytoplasmic membrane?
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Yes
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What protozoal class have a gliding motility?
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Apicomplexans
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What is in the core section of the LPS in gram negative bacteria?
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ketodeoxyoctanoic acid and a heptose
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Name 2 main types of helminths
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roundworms and flatworms
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How do large, necessary hydrophilic compounds (B12, larger sugars, chelated iron) cross the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria?
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translocation by special proteins
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How many cells are helminths? Prok or euk?
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multicellular eukaryotes
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What items does the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria allow to enter?
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small hydrophilic compounds and some larger hydrophilic molecules
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Do helminths reproduces sexually or asexually?
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sexually
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What items does the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria exclude?
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hydrophobic compounds
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What type of helminth can be hermaphroditic?
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tapeworms (flatworm)
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What substance helps to soak up sugars and AAs from the medium of the periplasm in gram negative bacteria?
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binding proteins
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Do roundworms have segments?
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No
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What antibiotic inhibits the linkage of disaccharides to growing chain of murein?
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vancomycin
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Name 2 types of flatworms
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flukes, tapeworms
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What antibiotic inhibits the regeneration of the lipid carrier in murein synthesis?
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bacitracin
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What type of helminth is Ascaris lumbricoides?
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roundworm
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What two antibiotics inhibit transpeptidation (crosslinking of peptide bond between subterminal D-alanine and free N terminus of a lysine)?
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penicillins and cephalosporins
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What type of helminth are schistosoma and Fasciola?
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fluke (flatworm)
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Organisms, for which penicillin is bacteriostatic, are deficient in what enzyme?
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autolysin (cleaves murein)
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Are flukes segmented?
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No
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What is located in the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria which facilitate the entry of most metabolites?
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permeases
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Are tapeworms segmented?
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Yes
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What type of transport is driven by intracellular use of the compound (down a concentration gradient)?
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Facilitated diffusion
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What structure are helminths protected by?
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cuticle
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What is an example of facilitated diffusion?
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when more glycerol is brought into the cell because the glycerol inside the cell decreases (is phosphorylated to glycerol-3-phosphate)
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What arthropod transmits sleeping sickness?
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tsetse fly
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What type of transport uses an energy-dependent mechanism in which substances are altered chemically?
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Group translocation
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What arthropod transmits river blindness?
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black flies
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What is an example of group translocation transport?
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Glucose binds to specific carrier in membrane (E2) and is altered to yield glucose-6-phosphate.
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What arthropod transmits Chagas disease?
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reduviid ("kissing") bugs
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What type of transport uses energy to drive substance against its concentration gradient?
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Active transport
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What arthropod transmits babesiosis?
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ticks
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What is an example of active transport?
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driving the transport of lactose against its concentration gradient using proton motive force (symport)
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How are parasites normally acquired?
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contaminated food or water or inadequate control of human wastes
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What substance do bacteria excrete that binds iron with great affinity?
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siderophores (chelating compounds)
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What 3 parasites use antigenic variation to evade immune response?
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trypanosomes, Plasmodium species, Giardia species
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Where are cytochromes located in bacteria (also where oxidative metabolism takes place)
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cytoplasmic membrane
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What 2 parasites use intracellular infection to evade immune response?
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plasmodia, Toxoplasma species
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The genome of most bacteria consists of
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a single circular chromosome of double-stranded DNA
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What 2 parasites use encystation to evade immune response?
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amebas, cestodes
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Does the rate of DNA polymerase movement in bacteria depend on the growth rate of cells?
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No, it is independent
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What parasite uses camouflage to evade host immune response?
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schistosomes
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What drug contains a nitro group that must be partially reduced to render the molecule active?
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metronidazole
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What 2 parasites use cleavage of antibodies or complement components to evade host immune response?
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amebas, Leishmania species
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Partially reduced metronidazole is incorporated into the DNA of bacteria, making these DNA molecules unstable. What is this an example of?
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lethal synthesis
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What 3 parasites use suppression or redirection of the cellular immune response to evade host immune response?
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plasmodia, Leishmania species, schistosomes
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What drug inhibits DNA gyrase and is bactericidal?
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Nalidixic acid
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In what type of infection can eosinophils appear in the blood in large numbers?
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helminthic
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What drugs interfere with DNA gyrase or topoisomerase and cause ds DNA breaks?
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fluoroquinolones
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Waht is eosinophilia typically accompanied by? What is this driven by?
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Increased levels of IgE driven by elevated levels of IL-5
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Does the rate of RNA synthesis depend on the number of RNA polymerase molecules?
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Yes, it is proportional to them
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Intestinal pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) can have what important complication?
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cysticerci (crossing mucosa and encysting in deep tissue)
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Is the synthesis of bacteria regulated by chain elongation?
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No, it is regulated mainly by chain initiation (v. their rate of elongation)
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What is sensitivity?
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The likelihood that the test will be positive when the pathogen is present
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What antibiotic binds to bacterial RNA polymerase and blocks transcription at the initiation step?
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rifampin
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What is specificity?
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The likelihood that the test will be negative if the pathogen is not present
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Name 3 DNA synthesis inhibitors
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Metronidazole, nalidixic acid, fluoroquinolones
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What type of test "rules out" diagnoses?
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Screenings
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Name 1 RNA synthesis inhibitor
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rifampin
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What antibiotics block the formation of peptide bonds by binding at (or near) the tRNA binding site on the 50S subunit at the elongation step?
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chloramphenicol, macrolides (erythromycin)
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What type of test "rules in" a suspected diagnosis?
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confirmatory test
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Are chloramphenicol and macrolides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?
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bacteriostatic (actions are reversible)
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Equation for sensitivity
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[true positives/(true positives + false negatives)] x 100%
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What antibiotics bind to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, causing translational misreading and inhibit elongation?
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Aminoglycosides
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Equation for specificity
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[true negatives/(true negatives + false positives)] x 100%
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Name 3 aminoglycosides
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streptomycin, gentamicin, neomycin
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Equation for positive predictive value
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[true positives/(true positives + false positives)] x 100%
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Are aminoglycosides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?
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bactericidal
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Equation for negative predictive value
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[true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives)] x 100%
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What antibiotic blocks synthesis of ergosterol required for fungal cell wall integrity?
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Imidazoles
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What type of stain is used for systemic protozoal infections?
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Giemsa
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What antibiotic blocks B-glucan synthesis (a major constituent of fungal cell walls)?
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echinocandins
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In this test a monoclonal antibody has been conjugated with a fluorescent compound
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direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test
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What antibiotic is a competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthesis and blacks synthesis of tetrahydrofolate and cell-linked metabolic pathways?
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Sulfonamides (folate antagonist)
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What is an example of selective medium, and what is it used to culture?
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Thayer-Martin is a chocolate agar used to culture gonococci
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What antibiotic inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?
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trimethoprim (folate antagonist)
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Once growth is detected on a blood culture, what is done to permit species identification?
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subculturing (transferring to agar plates)
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Flagella has a clockwise or counterclockwise helical pitch?
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counterclockwise
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In this test, the "second antibody" is conjugated to an enzyme which catalyzes production of visibly colored compounds to make detection more sensitive
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ELISA
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Which of the following can grow in the presence of oxygen: strict, obligate, or facultative anaerobes?
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facultative anaerobes
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One of the most specific serologic methods available because the antigens to which the patient's serum reacts are specified
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Western blot (immunoblot)
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What is the final electron acceptor in respiration?
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molecular oxygen
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What are 2 ways that a physician can tell whether positive serology is from current or past illness?
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acute and convalescent titers & measure igM antibodies against pathogen
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The total count of bacteria includes what?
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both living/viable and dead bacteria
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These test uses specific antibodies to capture microbial antigens from a patient sample
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antigen detection tests
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What determines the number of living/viable bacteria?
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colony count (# colonies x dilution factor)
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When the presence of a "captured" molecule is detected using a second antibody
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enzyme immunoassay
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What site does RNA polymerase bind to initiate the synthesis of mRNA?
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promoter
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What is a positive test for a competitive assay?
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one that fails to develop an enzymatic color reaction
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At what site is transcription terminated?
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attenuator
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Does the presence of leucine increase or terminate transcription?
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terminates
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To what sequence does the repressor bind?
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operator
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Does the presence of allolactose induce or terminate synthesis of beta-galactosidase?
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induce
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How does PAB (p-aminobenzoic acid; a component of folic acid) overcome sulfa addition?
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competitively
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How does folic acid overcome sulfa addition?
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noncompetitively
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How does folic acid overcome sulfa addition?
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noncompetitively
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When the body's defenses are low (bacterial endocarditis, bacterial meningitis, agranulocytopenia--low neutrophil count), what type of drugs are preferred (-cidal or -static)?
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bactericidal
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Which type of drugs can be faster acting, -cidal or -static)?
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bacteriostatic
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Does trimethoprim block the function or synthesis of folic acid?
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function
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for vancomycin?
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target (cell wall) modification (change in binding site in the peptidoglycan target)
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for quinolones (nalidixic acid, cipro)?
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mutations in genes encoding DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV & by efflux pumps
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for aminoglycosides?
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enzymatic modification of drug by R plasmid encoded enzyme; drug has reduced affinity for ribosome, and transport into cell is reduced.
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for tetracyclines?
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efflux pump pushes drug out of cell
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for macrolides?
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resistance by target (ribosome) modification; methylation of 23S ribosomal RNA (methylase)
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What newer macrolide has been modified to bind to two separate sites on the 23S rRNA to combat bacterial resistance?
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telithromycin
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What is the bacterial resistance mechanism for oxazolidinones (linezolid)?
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mutations in 23S rRNA
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On what is the gene coding for beta-lactamase carried?
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transposon
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What does MRSA stand for?
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methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
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What is the action of oxazolidinones (linezolid)?
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Bind to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes to prevent assemply of translational complex and initiation of protein synthesis
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What is the antibiotic action of polyene (amphotericin B)?
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binds to sterols in eukaryotic cell membranes, leading to membrane leakiness and, at high levels, lysis; bind more avidly to ergosterol in fungi membranes than cholesterol in higher eukaryotes
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What bacterial adhesin do gram negative bacteria have that gram positive don't?
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pili (fimbriae)
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What two types of bacterial adhesins do both gram positive and gram negative bacteria have?
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surface proteins and capsules
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Give an example of a gram negative surface protein (bacterial adhesin)
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invasin
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What normal cellular receptors do invasins recognize?
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integrins
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Name a receptor for certain gram positive bacteria?
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fibronectin
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How do meningococci and pneumococci prevent complement activation?
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secreting polysaccharide capsule masks that cover surface components that can activate complement via the alternative path
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What bacteria avoid complement activation by coating in circulating IgA antibodies?
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meningococci
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How does herpes simplex virus defend against complement?
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it has an envelope glycoprotein that binds complement component C3b
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How do Salmonella and E. coli defend against complement?
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They hinder complement access to its target (bacterial outer membrane) rather than preventing formation of complement membrane attack complexes.
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What type of strains (smooth or rough) inhibit access of the membrane attack complex to bacterial otuer membrane?
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smooth
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What is the difference between smooth and rough strains?
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smooth have a long O-antigen polysaccharide chain while rough have little or no O antigen.
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How does Group A Streptococci avoid phagocytosis?
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Diversion--it activates complement C5a peptidase that inactivates this chemotactic product of the complement cascade
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How do highly invasive bacteria (like pseudonomads, staphylococci, group A stretococci, and gas gangrene) avoid phagocytosis?
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produce exotoxins called leukocidins which kill neutrophils and macrophages
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What do staph and strep produce that binds to IgG molecules at the wrong end (Fc portion)?
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protein A
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Intraphgosomal microbes like tuberculosis, psittacosis, and legionnaires disease survive inside phagocytes via what mechanism?
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inhibition of lysosome fusion with phagosomes
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How do microbes like shigellae, Listeria monocytogenes, rickettsiae, and influenza viruses survive inside phagocytes?
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escape into the cytoplasm by destroying the phagosomal membrane
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What does Listeria monocytogenes secrete to escape from the phagosome?
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listeriolysin (pore-forming toxin)
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How does Leishmania survive inside phagocytes?
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innate resistance to lysosomal enzymes
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Name a microbe that inhibits oxidative killing of phagosomes by inhibiting respiratory burst.
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Legionella
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What microbe produces a catalase that breaks down the H2O2 used for oxidative killing by phagocytes?
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Staphylococcus aureus
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How do herpes simplex virus, varicella zoster virus, and respiratory syncytial virus spread?
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by causing infected cells to fuse with uninfected, neighboring cells.
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What are these types of viruses notable for forming?
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syncytia and multinucleated giant cells
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How do Shigella and Listeria monocytogenes spread to other cells?
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directly by inducing polymerization of actin
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How do superantigens (toxins made by certain streptococci) divert lymphocytes?
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they stimulate a nonspecific T-cell response
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What 3 microbes can change their antigenic coats?
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trypanosomes, gonococci, and influenza viruses
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By what mechanism do trypanosomes change their antigenic coats?
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variable surface glycoprotein
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By what mechanism do gonococci change their antigenic coats?
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periodic changes in pilin
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What two proteins are involved in the antigenic drift and shifts of influenza viruses?
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hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
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What is the purpose of hemagglutinin?
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binds to cell surface receptors
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What is the purpose of neuraminidase?
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changes receptors to which hemagglutinin bind
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Name 4 microbes that have IgA proteases
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gonoccocci, meningococci, Haemophilus influenzae, and some dental pathogenic streptococci
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What do staphylococci produce that cleaves host plasminogen into plasmin?
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staphylokinase
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Name 2 bacteria that utilize latency
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Helicobacter pylori (gastric ulcers, gastric adenocarcinomas) and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Give an example of a microbe that produces a toxin that affects the integrity of the cell membrane leading to cell lysis
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gas gangrene (RBC lysis)
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Give an example of a microbe that multiplies within the host, leading to cell lysis (due to cell-mediated immunity)
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Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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Give 4 examples of infections that don't kill cells directly but result in severe diseases due to pharmacologic alterations of metabolism
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tetanus, botulism, cholera, whooping cough
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What 2 types of bacterial toxins modulate intracellular targets?
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exotoxins and type III cytotoxins
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What 3 types of bacterial toxins act on the cell surface?
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endotoxin, membrane-damaging toxins, and superantigens
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What bacterial toxin modulates targets in the extracellular matrix?
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exoenzymes
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Within what DNA elements are genes that encode toxins contained?
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plasmids and temperate bacteriophages
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Can toxins be synthesized during the stationary phase of bacteria?
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Yes
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Give 3 examples of bacterial toxins that use ADP ribosyltransferases
|
diptheria toxin, cholera toxin, and exotoxin A of Pseudomonas auriginosa
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Name the exotoxin that has a single AB protein (covalently bound)
|
diphtheria toxin
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Name the exotoxin that has A:5B (noncovalently bound)
|
cholera toxin
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Name the exotoxin that is (2A + B) (independent proteins)
|
Anthrax toxin
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Which A domain is termed the edema factor for Anthrax toxin?
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A1 (an adenylate cyclase)
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Which A domain is termed the lethal factor for Anthrax toxin
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A2 (a protease)
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What factor does the A domain in diphtheria toxin ADP ribosylate?
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EF-2
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What does the A domain of cholera toxin ADP ribosylate, and what is the result?
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G protein which upregulates host adenylate cyclase and produces more intracellular cAMP
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The A domain of botulinum toxin inhibits release of what?
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stimulatory neurotransmitters
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The A domain of tetanus toxin inhibits the release of what?
|
inhibitory neurotransmitters
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Via what mechanism do type III cytotoxins get into the host?
|
contact-dependent mechanism when bacterium directly contacts host cell
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What is a main mechanism of type III cytotoxins
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they interfere with the ability of the host to respond to infection by direct cell killing or through modulation of actin cytoskeleton
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What are the primary targets for endotoxin?
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mononuclear phagocytes, neutrophils, platelets, and B lymphocytes
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What are specific endotoxin receptors called?
|
toll-like receptors (TLRs), and the primary targets for endotoxin have these
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What 2 cytokines are best known for setting of the acute phase response?
|
IL-1 and TNF-alpha
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Complement activation by endotoxin can lead to production of what which increase capillary permeability and release lysosomal enzymes from neutrophils?
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anaphylatoxins (C3a, C5a)
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Endotoxin derivatives belong to a class of potential anticancer agents called
|
biological response modifiers
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Does endotoxin induce release of T lymphocytes to divide?
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No, just B lymphocytes
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What happens in endotoxic shock?
|
hypotension and DIC
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What syndrome occurs in some cases of meningococcal infection when adrenal insufficiency due to infarction leads to rapid death?
|
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
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A lipase toxin produced by clostridium of gas gangrene
|
lecithinase
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Name a homogenous pore former
|
alpha-toxin of Staph aureus
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Name a heterogenous pore-forming toxin
|
streptolysin O
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What toxin can complex MHC molecules of an antigen-presenting cell with the T-cell receptor on lymphocytes to stimulate antigen-independent activation of lymphocytes?
|
superantigens
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Name 2 spreading factors that exoenzymes use
|
hyaluronidase (breaks down hyaluronic acid, the ground substance of CT) and deoxyribonuclease
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What enzyme produced by Strep pyogenes activates plasminogen and converts it to plasmin?
|
streptokinase
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antitoxins have been used successfully against what diease?
|
tetanus
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Name 2 diseases that toxoids have been used to vaccinate against
|
diphtheria and tetanus
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What type of immunization involves administration of antitoxin?
|
passive immunization
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What is a possible problem with antitoxin administration?
|
serum sickness
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Which type of strep (beta-hemolytic or alpha-hemolytic) lyses RBCs and shows up as a clear area around the colonies?
|
beta-hemolytic
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Which type of strep is most common cause of strep infections (alpha or beta)
|
beta-hemolytic
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What does the media look like with alpha-hemolytic strep?
|
blood-containing media around the colony turns green
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Most pathogenic strep grow where and are described as what?
|
in air; oxygen-tolerant anaerobes
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Are most staph coagulase positive or negative?
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positive
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What are two main Neisseria (gram negative cocci)?
|
gonococcus and meningococcus
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|
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What causes typhoid fever and food poisoning
|
Salmonella (gram negative rod; enteric)
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What causes bacillary dysentery?
|
Shigella (gram negative rod; enteric)
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What causes whooping cough?
|
Bordatella
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|
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What causes tularemia?
|
Francisella (fastidious gram negative rod)
|
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What causes cat scratch fever?
|
Bartonella (fastidious gram negative rod)
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|
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Name 2 members of Mycobacterium (acid-fast)
|
tubercle bacillus and leprosy bacillus
|
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What special stain is used for acid-fast bacteria?
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Ziehl-Neelsen technique
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Name 1 atypical acid-fast bacilli (opportunistic)
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Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
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Are Nocardia aerobic or anaerobic?
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aerobic
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Are Actinomyces aerobic or anaerobic?
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anaerobic (ABCs--Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium)
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What causes syphilis?
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Treponema pallidum
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What causes icterohemorrhagic fever?
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Leptospira
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What causes relapsing fever?
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Borrelia recurrentis
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What causes Lyme disease?
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Borrelia burgdorferi (spirochete)
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What causes the epidemic typhus?
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Rickettsiae
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What causes the epidemic typhus?
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Rickettsiae
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What is the virus delivery system?
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virion
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What contains the viral genome and often enzymes required for first steps of virus replication?
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payload
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Viral nucleic acid is surrounded by what?
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capsid
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What virus causes poliovirus
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picornavirus
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What virus causes West Nile virus?
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flavivirus
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Name 2 ss +RNA viruses
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poliovirus, West Nile virus
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Name 2 ss -RNA viruses
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influenza virus, measles virus
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Name a ds RNA virus
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rotavirus
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Name a hepadnavirus
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hepatitis B
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Name a ss DNA virus
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parvovirus
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Name 2 ds DNA viruses
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papillomaviruses (circular genome) and herpesviruses (linear genome)
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Why are defective viruses "defective?"
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Because they require coinfection with a "helper" virus?
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Give an example of a defective virus
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hepatitis delta virus
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Give an example of a virus transmitted by small droplets
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VZV (varicella-zoster virus)
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Give 5 examples of viruses transmitted by transcutaneous route
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Dengue, ecephalitis (togaviruses), CMV, HBV, HIV
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Give 4 examples of viruses transmitted by sexual route
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CMV, HBV, HSV, and HIV
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Give 4 examples of endogenous viruses
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VZV, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, HSV, some CMV
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Give 6 examples of vertical spread of viruses
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CMV, HBV, HIV, HSV, rubella, VZV
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Give 3 examples of viruses that can spread to nerves
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HSV, rabies, VZV
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What 3 viruses travel free in plasma?
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enteroviruses, HBV, and togaviruses
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What 2 viruses are associated with RBCs?
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Colorado tick fever virus, Rift Valley fever virus
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What 4 viruses are associated with lymphocytes or monocytes?
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CMV, EBV, HIV, and rubella
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What are proteins encoded by host cells whose synthesis is induced by viruses and other proinflammatory agents?
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interferons
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How do interferons inhibit virus replication?
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indirectly by inducing the synthesis of cellular proteins that inhibit the protein synthesis machinery.
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Leukocyte interferons
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interferon-alpha
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fibroblast interferons
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interferon-beta
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immune interferon
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interferon-gamma
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What is it called when virus stimulation of B lymphocytes can induce cross-reacting antibodies to normal host structures that contain antigenic regions similar to those of the virus?
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molecular mimicry
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Cytopathic effect of syncytia presence suggests what 4 viruses?
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HSV, measles, mumps, RSV
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Cytopathic effect of cytomegal suggests what 3 viruses?
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CMV, HSV, VZV
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What 3 things are the cell walls of fungi made out of?
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chitin, mannan, glucan
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