Micro 2

Front 1

DNA gyrase and helicase unwind short lengths of double stranded DNA and expose the separate strands. This is a
a. DNA polymerase
b. Nucleotide
c. Replication fork
d. Leading strand
e. Lagging strand

Back 1

Replication fork

Front 2

DNA ligase joins newly formed nucleotide fragments with the existing strand on the
a. DNA polymerase
b. Nucleotide
c. Replication fork
d. Leading strand
e. Lagging strand

Back 2

Lagging strand

Front 3

Which of the following grows toward the replication fork and is continuously replicated?
a. DNA polymerase
b. Nucleotide
c. Replication fork
d. Leading strand
e. Lagging strand

Back 3

Leading strand

Front 4

____________ binds to DNA and inserts complementary nucleotides to generate new DNA strands.
a. RNA primer
b. DNA polymerase
c. Replication fork
d. Leading strand
e. Lagging strand

Back 4

DNA polymerase

Front 5

________ carries the genetic code from the DNA to a ribosome where ________ binds to it and facilitates the function of translation by _________ which transports amino acids to the growing peptide chain.

Back 5

mRNA, rRNA, tRNA

Front 6

A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides on _______ that specify the amino acid to be placed in a polypeptide.
a. rRNA
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. mRNA
e. tRNA

Back 6

mRNA

Front 7

What is the function of an anticodon?

Back 7

Read a corresponding codon on mRNA and carry appropriate amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.

Front 8

In transcription, RNA polymerase creates
a. tRNA
b. DNA
c. mRNA
d. tRNA
e. Nucleotides

Back 8

mRNA

Front 9

When does transcription end?
a. Once RNA polymerase reaches a termination region of the gene
b. When DNA rewinds
c. After the replication fork is closed
d. Once DNA ligase has completed it’s task
e. When it feels like it!

Back 9

Once RNA polymerase reaches a termination region of the gene

Front 10

What is the end result of translation?

Back 10

Creation of a new polypeptide

Front 11

Which of the following codes for proteins the bacteria always needs?

Back 11

Constituitive gene

Front 12

A bacterium has a gene that will allow it to produce a certain protein. However, when there is enough of the protein in the environment the bacterium no longer has to produce it so the gene is inhibited. What type of genetic trait is this example demonstrating?

Back 12

Repressible operon

Front 13

Which of the following is not a part of an operon?

Back 13

Inducible gene

Front 14

Which of the following is a change in the sequence of a DNA base?

Back 14

Mutation

Front 15

This type of genetic transfer usually occurs as the result of bacterial cell death and the release of DNA.

Back 15

Transformation

Front 16

When an unwanted microbe is present in a given place and time it is a/an

Back 16

Contaminant

Front 17

The use of physical mechanisms or chemical agents to destroy, inhibit, neutralize, or remove most potentially infections microorganisms from an object or surface is

Back 17

Decontamination

Front 18

Antisepsis is __________ that can occur on _________ to eliminate or inhibit microorganisms but does not imply sporicidal action

Back 18

Decontamination, living tissue

Front 19

What type of microbe is the most difficult to kill?

Back 19

Bacterial endospores

Front 20

In general, the more concentrated a chemical solution or intense a physical agent, the more rapidly microorganisms are destroyed. One notable exception to this rule is _________ which is more effective at 70% than 95%.

Back 20

Isopropyl alcohol

Front 22

Which of the following can inhibit a microorganism but not kill it?
a. Incineration
b. Freezing
c. Wet heat
d. Gamma radiation
e. Dry heat

Back 22

Freezing

Front 23

In order for wet heat to be effective the temperature must be _________ for ________.
a. 160 to 180oC, 1-2 hours
b. 160 to 180oF, 15 minutes
c. 121oC, 1-2 hours
d. 121oC, 15 minutes
e. 121oF, 15 minutes

Back 23

121oC, 15 minutes

Front 24

Electron beam radiation functions by
a. Destroying the cell wall
b. Destroying the plasma membrane
c. Inhibiting protein synthesis
d. Altering nucleic acids
e. Inhibiting translation

Back 24

Altering nucleic acids

Front 25

One of the major limitations of ultraviolet or non-ionizing radiation is it

Back 25

Requires lengthy exposure

Front 26

In filtration the most common filters are membrane micropore filters in which a ________ pore size is usually effective in removing all bacteria.

Back 26

.22 microns

Front 27

If you need a liquid sporicidal agent that is not inhibited by organic material you will choose
a. Vaporized hydrogen peroxide
b. Glutaraldehyde
c. Gaseous chlorine
d. 70% alcohol
e. Chlorhexidine

Back 27

Glutaraldehyde

Front 28

Beta-lactam antibiotics such as cephalosporins bind to the penicillin binding proteins of a bacteria and

Back 28

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

Front 29

An antibiotic can inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by

Back 29

Competitively inhibiting essential nucleic acid precursors

Front 30

Ineffective against gram negative bacteria, very low toxicity, and bacterial development of resistance due to modified PBP structure are all major characteristics of

Back 30

Inhibitors of cell wall function

Front 31

An antibiotic that will kill only the target organism without harming the host is
a. A killing agent
b. An antibiotic
c. An antimicrobic
d. Selectively toxic
e. Disinfectant

Back 31

Selectively toxic

Front 32

What class of antimicrobics inhibits accurate translation of mRNA or polypeptide chain formation?
a. Inhibitors of cell wall function
b. Inhibitors of cell membrane function
c. Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
d. Inhibitors of bacterial metabolism
e. Inhibitors of protein synthesis

Back 32

Inhibitors of protein synthesis

Front 33

___________ is a rapid, low cost, and less sensitive test than a _________ test.
a. Primary, secondary
b. Secondary, primary
c. Presumptive, secondary
d. Confirmatory, presumptive
e. Presumptive, confirmatory

Back 33

Presumptive, confirmatory

Front 34

This type of hemolysis results in a clear zone around the colony
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Delta
e. Epsilon

Back 34

Beta

Front 35

This type of hemolysis results in no change in the red blood cells around the colony.
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Delta
e. Epsilon

Back 35

Gamma

Front 36

Antibody and antigen detection tests and gene probes are the only identification tests for
a. Moulds
b. Fungus
c. Bacteria
d. Virus
e. Parasites

Back 36

Virus

Front 37

What is the average cultivation time for yeasts?
a. 1-3 days
b. 2-7 days
c. 2-21 days
d. 1-2 weeks
e. 1-4 weeks

Back 37

2-7 days

Front 38

When a Fab site of an antibody binds to a similar, but incorrect, antigen the antibody is
a. Cross-reactive
b. Detected
c. Agglutinated
d. Cultivated
e. A true-positive

Back 38

Cross-reactive

Front 39

Sensitivity is the ability to detect __________ of antigen whereas specificity is the ability to detect __________ antigens.

Back 39

Low levels, correct

Front 40

What type of specimen is usually used for Ag-Ab testing?
a. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Feces
c. Sputum
d. Urine
e. Serum

Back 40

Serum

Front 41

The reaction of a particle sized antigen with its corresponding antibody that results in clumping is
a. Immunofluorecence
b. Enzyme immunoassay
c. Agglutination
d. Aggregation
e. Gene detection

Back 41

Agglutination

Front 42

Gene amplification is the increase in the number of copies of significant microbial gene sequences so they can be detected. One method of accomplishing this is through PCR. What does PCR stand for?

Back 42

Polymerase chain reaction

Front 43

When performing microscopy on a sample of bacteria that has been gram stained you would use

Back 43

Oil immersion high power

Front 44

What is the correct order for the staining steps in a gram stain?

Back 44

Crystal violet, gram’s iodine, decolorizor, safranin

Front 45

When you want to see specimens in their natural state and can only use low or high dry power lenses you use what type of microscopic examination?

Back 45

Wet mount

Front 46

If a microorganism is not inhibited by the maximum safe dose of an antimicrobic the microorganism is _________. If a microbe is inhibited or killed by the maximum safe dose of an antimicrobic the microorganism is ____________.

Back 46

Resistant, susceptible

Front 47

What is one factor that prohibits a lab technician from assuming that one drug is better than another simply from the size of the zone of inhibition?

Back 47

Molecular size of the antimicrobic

Front 48

When disease traits of normal flora are demonstrated after normal host-microbe relationship is altered __________ of the normal flora has taken place.

Back 48

Opportunism

Front 49

Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?
a. Collagenase
b. Capsule
c. Leukocidin
d. Coagulase
e. Survival of phagocytosis

Back 49

Collagenase

Front 50

What attaches the microbe to specific receptor sites on specific tissue?
a. Pili
b. Surface chemicals
c. Ingestion
d. Coagulase
e. Fimbriae

Back 50

Fimbriae

Front 51

What type of genetic alteration occurs when pieces of genetic material from one organism are incorporated into the genetic material of another?

Back 51

Gene recombination

Front 52

What is a sticky lining that traps invading organisms?

Back 52

Mucous

Front 53

What is the cytokine that acts as a local defense to viruses by inhibiting viral reproduction?

Back 53

Peristaltic action of the gut