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1906 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
stable vs unstable angina -- oxygen demand and supply
stable is due to increased oxygen demand. unstable is due to constant limited supply
2 prognostic indicators of cad
LV function, # of vessels involved
metabolic syndrome x vs syndrome x
metabolic syndrome = insulin resistance. syndrome x = exertional angina w/ normal angiogram
mechanism of chemical stress test
adenosine and dipyramidole cause vasodilation, due to steal, that causes decreased flow and st changes. dobutamine increases hr, bp, contractility, :. increase work
bb and cad
reduces freq of coronary events
revascularization after cad and incidence of mi
revasc doesn't affect MI incidence
how to dx b/w unstable angina and nstemi
cardiac enzymes elevated in nstemi
how to manage pt with unstable angina
need meds - aspirin, heparin, bb, nitrate. no difference b/w invasive or conservative mgmt. can perform stress test to assess
what vitamin can be used to help tx cad
folic acid
mortality of MI
30%, 1/2 of these prehospital
pathophys of most mi
plaque rupture forms thrombus
results of care trial
tx of pts w hx of mi result in decreased poor outcomes when tx w statin
percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty vs thrombolysis
ptca has more reduction in mortality
CI to cardiac thrombolysis
high htn, recent trauma, active pud, prev stroke, recent surgery, dissecting aortic aneurysm
renal fail and cardiac enzymes
elevated troponin in renal fail
medical tx for mi
mona, bb, acei, statin, heparin
av block after mi
caused by ischemic conduction tissue. if 2nd degree type ii or 3rd degree, then need emergent temporary pacemaker
when do these occur after mi: free wall rupture, IV septum rupture
<2w, <10d
tx for pericarditis
aspirin, but not another nsaid
causes of systolic dysfunction
post mi (most common), cardiomyopathy, myocarditis
what is high output hf
tissues have increased demand for CO -- due to increased o2 consumption, poor o2 capacity of blood, "short circuit of bloodstream" (av fistula)
causes of diastolic dysfunction
htn, valvular dz, restrictive cardiomyopathy
nyha classification
1 = sx with vigorous. 2 = sx with moderate. 3 = daily activities. 4 = rest
initial tx of chf
salt restriction <4g/day
what imaging test can be used to diagnose EF when echo fails
radionuclide ventriculography
effect of diuretic on systolic dysfunction
symptomatic, no effect on mortality or prognosis
results of RALES trial
spironolactone reduces morbidity and mortality in pts with class iii/iv hf
effect of acei on systolic hf
improves mortality and symtoms
results of COMET trial
carvedilol is better than metoprolol for chf
dig tox
nv, av block, afib, visual disturbances
how to tx chf
start w/ salt restriction/activity restriction,acei and diuretic if volume overload, then add bb, then finally my add dig and spirinolactone
causes of PACs
adrenergic excess, drugs, alcohol, tobacco, electrolyte imbalance, ischemia, infection
prevalence of pacs and pvcs
will find in 50% of normal people
CAST trial results
supression of PVCs after MI increases mortality
causes of afib
heart dz, pericardial issues, pulmonary dz, thyroid issues, systemic dz, stress, alcohol, sick sinus, pheo
cardioversion vs defibrillation
cardioversion delivers shock sync'd with qrs, terminates dysrhythmia. defib isn't sync'd, use only for vfib or vt w/o pulse
tx of afib/aflutter
if unstable, electric shock. control vent rate, restore sinus rhythm, possibly anticoagulate
tx of choice for rate control for afib
ccb, unless lv systolic dysfunction
results of affirm trial
rate control more important than rhythm control in afib
risk of cva if afib
if just afib, then 1%/yr. if heart dz, 4%/yr
afib and cardioversion. tx options
if afib >48h, then risk of embolization during cardioversion (incl spontaneous). therefore, need to anticoagulate. you could either anticoagulate for 3w then cardiovert, or get stat tee to look for thrombus, and if none, then can start heparin and cardiovert after 24h
how to tx chronic afib
rate control w/ bb or ccb
causes of aflutter
copd, heart dz, asd
dz assoc w/ multifocal atrial tachycardia
copd (hypoxia of conduction system)
how to tx multifocal atrial tachy
improve o2 and ventilation. if good lv function, then bb, flecainide, propafenone. if not, then diltiazem. can use amniodarone, dig for both.
most common arrythmia from dig tox
paroxysmal atach with 2:1 block
difference between orthodromic av reentrant tachy vs av nodal reentrant tachy
orthodromic is due to accessory tract b/w atria and ventricles whereas av nodal is in node. may see p waves in orthodromic
does wpw always have delta wave
not when there is an orthodromic reciprocating tachy (impulse traveling back from ventricles through accessory pathway to atria). other type of wpw is av node dysfunction in the context of afib/flutter (accessory tract permits conduction of impulse to ventricles)
what drugs to avoid in wpw
drugs that work on av node like digoxin
how to prevent psvt
dig
mcc of vtach
prior mi + cad
what is sustained vt
>30s, symptomatic
significance of nonsustained vtach
cad + lv dysfunction + nonsustained vt = independent risk factor for death
jvp sx of vtach
av disassociation causes cannon a waves
how to tx vtach
don't tx if nonsustained w/o heart dz or lv dysfunction. if stale, use iv amniodarone, procainamide or sotalol. if unstable then cardioversion (sync'd, dc)
how to tx refractory vfib (shock and epi fail)
amniodarone. could also try lido, bretylium, mag, procainamide
wenckebach vs type ii
1 = progressive prolonged pr until drop. 2 = sudden dropped beat. 2 needs tx
what maneuvers hcom made worse by
valsalva, standing = dec preload. hand grip = increased afterload
what maneuvers hcom made better by
increased preload = squat
how to tx symptomatic hcom
bb, then try ccb
surgical options for hcom
myomectomy
tx for myocarditis
supportive
complications of acute pericarditis
pericardial effusion, tamponade
what maneuver relieves pain w/ pericarditis
sitting up and leaing forward
ekg changes in pericarditis
diffuse st elevation, pr depression at first, then st normalization, then t wave inversion, then t wave normalization
constrictive pericarditis vs tamponade
tamponade is usually acute. lv filling is halted immediately after reaching point of noncompliance w/ constrictive. for tamponade, occurs throughout diastole
ekg changes in constrictive pericarditis
small qrs, t wave changes, left atrial abnormalities
when does cxr show enlargement after pericardial effusion
>250ml fluid
what is most important parameter to assess for cardiac tamponade
how fast fluid is accumulating
causes of tamponade
trauma, iatrogenic, pericarditis, post mi w rupture
beck's triad
hypotension, muffled heart sounds, jvd
jvp findings for tamponade
jvd + prominent x descent, no y descent
ekg changes in tamopnade
beat to beat variation in direction of ekg
renal failure + tamponade, tx
dialysis if stable
mitral valve murmurs heard best in what position
left lat decubitus
s1 in mitral stenosis
LOUD s1
survival for symptomatic aortic stenosis w/o replacement
25% 3-yr survival
poor prognosis in aortic stenosis
angina, syncope, hf
tx for mitral stenosis
1. tx afib 2. diuretics for pulmonary congestion & edema 3. prophylax ie 4. if symptomatic, then surgery
surgical options for mitral stenosis
percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty, open commisurrorotomy, mitral valve replacement
behcet's syndrome
vasculitis -- uveitis + apthous ulcers + genital ulcers
corrigan's pulse
water hammer pulse seen in aortic insufficiency
muler's sign
bobbing of uvula in aortic regurg
duroziez sign
pistol shot sound over femoral arteries in aortic regurg
austin flint murmur
aortic regurg causes mitral stenosis
tx for aortic regurg
if asymptomatic, can try salt restrict, diuretics, afterload reduction.
cxr changes for aortic regurg
lvh, dilated aorta
causes of acute mitral regurg
endocarditis, papillary rupture (mi, ischemia)
radiation of murmur in mitral regurg
back if posterior leaflet, or clavicular if anterior
cxr in mitral regurg
dilated lv
tx for for mitral regurg
1. tx afib 2. reduce afterload, salt, diuretics
causes of tricuspid regurg
1. any cause of rv dilation -- lv failure, rv infarction, inferior wall mi 2. tricuspid endocarditis 3. epstein 4. carcinoid
pulsatile liver is sx of what valvular dz
tricuspid insufficiency
role of echo in aortic regurg
perform serially in stable pt to assess need for surgery
what maneuver increases and decreases mvp
standing, valsalva -> less preload -> click occurs earlier cuz less filling.
handgrip -> afterload -> increases murmur
major criteria for acute rheumatic fever
JONES - joints (migratory polyarthritis), pancarditis (O), subcutaneous Nodules, erythema marginatum, syndenham
tx for rheumatic fever
nsaids, monitor response w/ crp. prophylaxis before procedures
major duke's criteria
sustained bacteremia from known endocarditis organism, endocardial involvement
criteria for endocarditis
2 major, 1 major+3minor, 5 minor
minor criteria dukes
VIP FEC - vascular abnormalities (like janeway), immune, predisposing condition (like abnormal valve), fever, echo, cultures
test of choice for asd
tee
what kind of murmur seen in asd
systolic ejection murmur at pulmonary area (increased pulmonary flow) + fixed split s2 + diastolic rumble across tricuspid
when to tx asd
when pulmonary:systemic flow > 1.5:1
what kind of murmur in vsd
harsh holosystolic murmur w/ thrill @ 4th ics
what maneuvers can decrease vsd murmur
valsalva and handgrip (less flow)
what congenital defect is most likely to cause differential cyanosis
pda
tx pda
if no pulmonary vascular dz, do ligation. if pulmonary htn or r-l shunt, then don't correct
what is htn emergency
sbp >220 / dbp . 120 + end organ dmg
what to do for severe ha + high bp
lower bp, then ct to r/o bleed, if neg then do lp
how to lower bp in hypertensive emergency
reduce map by 25% in 1-2h
clinical features type a vs type b dissection
typa a is anterior cp, type b is interscapular pain
tx for dissection
iv bb, iv nitroprusside
most common site of AAA
b/w renal a and iliac bifurcation
grey turner's sign
ecchymoses on back and flanks, sx of aaa, pancreatitis
cullen's sx
ecchymoses around umbilicus, sx of aaa, pancreatitis
aaa triad rupture
abdominal pain + hypotension + palpable pulsatile abdominal mass
test of choice for aaaa
ultrasound
what is leriche's syndrome
atheromatous occlusion of distal aorta above bifurcation --> bilateral claudication + impotence + absent femoral pulses
what sites usually occluded in pvd
superficial femoral artery, politeal artery, aortoiliac
rest pain vs intermittent claudication in pvd
rest pain is worse cuz sx ischemia may lead to gangrene.
what is rest pain in pvd
pain usually over distal mt relieved with hanging foot over side of bed (gravity-related perfusion)
normal abi vs claudication abi vs rest pain abi
>1 vs <.7 vs <.4
what is leriche's syndrome
atheromatous occlusion of distal aorta above bifurcation --> bilateral claudication + impotence + absent femoral pulses
what sites usually occluded in pvd
superficial femoral artery, politeal artery, aortoiliac
rest pain vs intermittent claudication in pvd
rest pain is worse cuz sx ischemia may lead to gangrene.
what is rest pain in pvd
pain usually over distal mt relieved with hanging foot over side of bed (gravity-related perfusion)
normal abi vs claudication abi vs rest pain abi
>1 vs <.7 vs <.4
what is abi
ankle-brachial index, ratio of sbps
3 methods of dx'ing pvd
1. abi 2. pulse volume recodrings 3. arteriography (only needed for surgery)
conservative mgmt of pvd
1. prevent progression - stop smoking, foot care, control astherosclerosis risk factors, aspirin 2. restore arteries - exercise 3. symptomatic control
2 options for surgical tx of pvd
1. surgical bypass grafting 2. angioplasty
3 sources of emboli
heart (afib, postmi, endocarditis), aneurysms, atheromatous plaque rupture
6 p's of acute arterial occlusion
pain, pallor, polar (cold), paralysis, paresthesias, pulselessness
how long ischemia can skeletal mm tolerate before death
6h
what are sx that amputation might be necessary for ischemic injury to limb
paralysis or paresthesias
what is cholesterol embolization syndrome and how to tx
shower of cholesterol crystals originating from plaque, often triggered by surgical or radiographic intervention. DO NOT ANTICOAGULATE, control bp
doppler ultrasound for dvt vs location
better at detecting proximal thrombi over distal
most accurate test for dvt
venography
advantage of impedance plethysmography over doppler for dvt
less operator dependent accuracy
what is plegmasia cerulea dolens
major dvt -- leg edema compromises arterial supply
anticoagulation vs thrombolysis for dvt
anticoagulation prevents propagation, thrombolysis speeds up clot breakdown
goals of anticoagulation in dvt
heparin bolus that causes 1.5-2x aPTT, start warfarin once aPTT is therapeutic
when do you do thrombolysis for dvt
1. unstable 2. massive PE 3. RHF 4. no CI for thrombolytics
indications for ivc filter
absolute ci to other prophylaxis
how to prevent dvt after surgery
1. mechanical (leg elevation, ambulation, compression stockings) 2. drugs (lmwh until ambulatory)
3 compnents of LE venous system
deep, superficial, perforating
what causes discoloration of skin in chronic venous insufficiency
extravasation of rbcs into subcutaneous tissues
why do venous ulcers develop in chronic venous insufficiency
reduced capillary flow -> hypoxia and decreased healing
leg elevation producing relief vs aggravation of symptoms
relief = venous insufficiency. aggravation = arterial insufficiency
tx for venous insufficiency
leg elevation, avoid long periods of sitting or standing, elastic stockings
how to tx venous ulcers
dressings, venous boot
tx for superficial thrombophlebitis
aspirin if mild. if severe (i.e. has cellulitis), do bed rest, elevation, and compresses, usually don't need antibiotics unless suppurative
definition of cardiogenic shock
sbp <90, urine output <20ml/hr + good lv filling pressure
what is an intraaortic balloon pump
put in descending aorta, deflates right before systole (decreases afterload), inflates right before diastole --> improved mvo2, better o2. good for cardiogenic shock
causes of hypovolemic shock
hemorrage, vomiting/diarrhea, dehydration, burns, third spacing
best way to monitor response tx to shock
monitor i/o's
classes of shock
I = 10-15% blood loss, slightly dec blood loss. ii = 20-30% loss, tachycardia, tachypnea, decreased cr, anxious. iii & iv = confusion/lethargy, <20mL/hr urine output.
how to tx hypovolemic shock based on class
ii benefits from fluid, iii/iv need fluids
what is SIRS
2+: temperature instability, rr>20|paco2<32, tachycardia, increased wbcs
significance of SIRS
prodrome of sepsis
tx of neurogenic shock
main thing is fluids, cautious use of vasoconstrictors, maintain temp
what is an atrial myxoma an overgrowth of
interatrial septum
what kind of murmur w atrial myxoma
diastolic murmr that changes with position
centrilobular vs panlobular emphysema
centrilobular = smokers, proximal acini, upper. panlobular = antitrypsin, both prox & distal, bases.
dx of chronic bronchitis
chronic cough for >3mo for at least 2y
auscultation of copd findings
end expiratory wheezes on forced expiration, decreased breath sounds, inspiratory crackles
fev1 and age
starts decreasing 25ml/yr after 35
copd and ics
no benefit, reserve for refractory
when to start o2 in copd
pao2<55 or o2 sat<88 at rest or exercise, pao2 55-59 +polycythemia/cor pulmonale
sleep and copd
hypoxia in sleep might need to be tx'd w cpap
effect of o2 tx on copd
mortality and quality of life
3 characteristics of asthma
airway inflammation + airway hyperresponsiveness + reversible airflow obstruction
extrinsic vs intrinsic asthma
intrinsic = not related to atopy or environmental triggers
what is considered a bronchodilator response on pft for asthma
12% improvement on fev1 or fvc
what is methacholine challenge
will bronchoconstriction, hyperresponsive airways will develop obstruction earlier
when to get abg on asthma
significant respiratory distress, increased paco2 is suspicious for respiratory failure
how to decrease risk of oral infection w/ ics
spacer, rinsing mouth after use
mild persistent vs moderate persistent vs severe persistent asthma
>2/wk | 3-4 PMs/mo, daily | >1night/wk, continuous
how to dx bronchiectasis
high res ct
how to tx bronchiectasis
1. ab for acute exacerbation 2. bronchial hygeine - hydration, mucus removal, bronchodilators
what is a solitary pulmonary nodule
single well circumscribed nodule on cxr w/o mediastinal or hilar involvement
how to monitor solitary pulmonary lesion
if suspect malignancy, do needle aspiration biopsy or fiberoptic bronchoscopy. otherwise regular image q3-4mo, then q6mo
how to stage small cell lung carcinoma
limited = confinted to chest + supraclavicular nodes
where is scc usually located
usually central
what size of lung nodule is more suggestive of malignancy
>3cm
most common met sites of lung cancer
brain, bone, adrenal glands, liver
siadh and lung cancer
usually small cell
ectopic acth and lung cancer
usuall small cell
lung cancer and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
adenocarcenoma and squamous
eaton lambert and lung cancer
small cell
pleural effusion in lung cancer
tap it to look for malignant cells
tx for non small cell lung cancer
surgery + radiation
tx for small cell
chemo
sx of mediastinal mass
compression -> cough, chest pain, dyspnea, postobstructive pneumonia
how to evaluate solitary pulmonary nodule if new
do ct with thin sections through nodule
what type of pleural effusion does malignancy cause
exudative
what type of pleural effusion does PE cause
can cause either transudative or exudative
how to diff exudative vs transudative pleural effusion
exudative: protein ratio >0.5, ldh ratio >0.6, ldh > 2/3 * upper limit of normal serum ldh
how much effusion generated before seen on cxr
250ml
elevated pleural fluid amylase is sx of
esophageal rupture, pancreatitis, malignancy
frank purulent fluid in plureal effusion
empyema
what is pleural fluid that is pH <7.2
parapneumonic effusion or empyema
what is parapneumonic effusion
plerual fluid effusion as a result of pneumonia, bronchiectasis, abscess
ci for thoracentesis
if effusion is <10mm thick on lateral decubitus cxr. risk of ptx outweights benefit of thoracentesis
4's c's of fluid diagnostics (lp, pleural fluid, etc)
chemistry (glucose, protein, ldh, protein, pH0
cytology
cell count
culture
how to tx pleural effusion
if transudative --- diuretics and sodium restriction. if exudative, tx dz.
how to tx parapneumonic effusion if complicated or empyema
chest tube, intrapleural thrombolysis (UNLESS MVA), possible surgical lysis of adhesion
3 locations of MEN1
pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas
what is secondary spontaneous pneumothorax
spontaneous pneumothorax that is due to complication to underlying disease. this is worse than primary cuz ppl usually don't have reserve pulmonary capacity
3 locations of MEN2A
parathyroid, pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid
causes of tension pneumothorax
ventilation, cpr, trauma
blood pressure & ptx
decreased cuz of venous compression
are all mesotheliomas malignant
no, and benign ones have excellent prognosis
4 granulomatous interstitial lung dz
sarcoid, histiocytosis, wegeners, churg strauss
3 locations of MEN2B
pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid, mucosal neuroma
best dz for interstitial lung dz
tissue biopsy
skin finding in sarcoid
erythema nodosum
sarcoid: cxr, blood findings
bil hilar adenopathy, elevated ace, hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria
how to tx sarcoid
most resolve w/in 2 yrs, but can use cs, mtx if refractory
what type of ppl are histiocytosis x w/ interstitial lung dz
smokers
canca vs p anca
canca = wegener, panca = churg strauss
where is silicosis located
upper lobes, localized and nodular
where is asbestosis located
lower lobes, diffuse
pleural plaques on cxr
asbestosis
"egg shell" calcification on cxr
silicosis
blood test in hypersensitivity pneumonitis
iga and igg to inhaled antigen
what dz assoc w churg strauss
asthma
what 2 interstitial lung dz have eosinophils
churg strauss, eosinophilic pneumonia
what is pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
accumulation of surfactant like proteins and phospholipids in alveoli
cxr of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
ground glass w/ bilateral alveolar infiltrates
how to tx plumonary alveolar proteinosis
gcsf, lung lavage, NO STEROIDS
how to tx goodpastures
plasmapharesis, cyclophosphamide, cs
what is cryptogenic organizing pneumoniitis, tx
inflammatory lung dz that looks like pneumonia, spontaneous but try cs
how to tx radiation pneumonitis
cs
when does radiation pneumonitis occur after radiation
acute is 1-6mo, chronic is 1-2y
how to dx radiation pneumonitis
ct scan
how to dx pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
lung biosy
what defines acute respiratory failure
pao2 <60 or paco2>50
paco2 and a-a gradient in v/q mismatch or shunting
both are elevated, shunting has poor response to supplement o2
hypoxemic respiratory failure vs hypercarbic
hypoxemic -- low o2. hypercarbic -- high co2, due to decrease in ventilation rate or increased dead space
co2 in v/q mismatch
low to normal
what is intrapulmonary shunting
no ventilation to perfused areas -- atelectasis, fluid buildup in alveoli, right to left intracardiac shunt
ventilation vs oxygenation
oxygenation = o2 sat and pao2
ventilation vs oxygenation
ventilation is paco2. oxygenation is pao2 and o2 sat
how to improvement tissue o2
1. increase fio2 2. increase peep 3. extend inspiratory time 4. upright 5. increase CO or increase hemoglobin 6. decrease o2 requirements by decreasing work of breathing, fever, agitation 7. remove pulmonary vasodilators
diffusion impairment and co2 levels
normal
advantage of venturi mask
useful for co2 retainer, can deliver precise fio2
how to tx hypoxemic respiratory failure
use lowest concentration of o2 cuz of pottential free radical injury
can you give nppv to unconcious pt
no
triad of ards
hypoxemia refractory to o2 (pao2/fio2 <200) + bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates + pcwp <18
tx for ards
oxygenation, peep, fluid management, tx underlying cause
how can you assess resopnse to mechanical ventilation
abg to get pao2 to 50-60, paco2 to 40-50, ph to 7.35-7.5
mechanism of assisted controlled ventilation
tidal volume delivered on inspiration, if no inspiration, tidal volume delivered at predetermined rate
mechanism of synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation
like assisted controlled except if breathe on their own above mandatory rate, ventilator doesn't assist
how to tell if et tube placed correctly on cxr
et tip 3-5 cm above carina
what is pressure support ventilation
used when weaning... pressure delivered on inspiration
how to determine success of extubation
1. good respiratory drive and cough 2. pao2 >75, paco2 <45, o2sat >90 w/ peep < 5 & fio2 <40% 3. tidal volume >5ml/kg 4. rr<30 5. vital capacity > 10ml/kg
what is the normal inspiratory to expiratory ratio
1:2
what is good initial tidal volume
8-10ml/kg
what is good initial peep
2.5-10 cm h2o
what is tracheomalacia a complication of
softening of tracheal cartilage due to prolonged et tube
what is pulm htn
>25 mmhg at rest, >30 during exercise
signs of pulmonary htn on pe
rv heave and loud p2
tx for 1* pulmonary htn
pulmonary vasodilators (prostacyclins like epoprostenol, ccb0
what is pulm htn
>25 mmhg at rest, >30 during exercise
what is cor pulmonale usually due to
copd
signs of pulmonary htn on pe
rv heave and loud p2
what study provides guidelines for v/q results? spiral ct?
pioped study. christopher study
tx for 1* pulmonary htn
pulmonary vasodilators (prostacyclins like epoprostenol, ccb0
what is cor pulmonale usually due to
copd
what study provides guidelines for v/q results? spiral ct?
pioped study. christopher study
what to do if low or intermediate probability v/q scan
if high clinical suspicion, do lower extremity duplex ultrasound. if that is negative, then do pulmonary angiography
what are the wells criteria
sx/signs of dvt (3), alternative dx less likely than pe (3.0), tachycardia (1.5), hx of immobilization or surgery (1.5), previous dvt/pe (1.5), hemoptysis (1.0), malignancy (1.0). if >4.0, do spiral ct rather than d dimer
treatment goals for pe
o2, start heparin immediately getting aptt to 1.5-2.5x, then start heparin on day 1, continue for 3 months at least, longer if risk factors
when to consider thrombolysis for pe
massive pe w/ hemoinstability, rhf
when to consider ivc filter
ci to anticoagulation, low pulmonary reserve
abs for aspiration pneumonia
pen g or clinda
5 top causes of hemoptysis
bronchitis, lung cancer, TB, bronchiectasis, pneumonia
DLco in asthma pt
increased, cuz increased pulmonary capillary blood volume
what can cause a high DLco
obesity, asthma, intracardiac left-to-right shunt, exercise, pulmonary hemorrhage
what can cause a low DLco
emphysema, carcoid, interstitial fibrosis, pulmonary vascular dz, anemia
what studies to order for hemoptysis
cxr, fiberoptic bronchoscopy, chest ct
ppv of fobt
20%
advantage and disadvantage of barium enema
can see entire colon, but still need colonosocpy for abnormal findings
dukes staging vs tnm
d = metastasis. c = nodal involvement. b- t3-4. a = t1-2
most common presenting sx of crc
abdominal pain
melena vs hematochezia, anatomy
melena = rt sided, hematochezia = lt sided
when is adjuvant therapy used for crc
for duke's c colon cancer -- postop chemo, NO RADS
for duke's b2/c rectal cancer -- postop chemo + RADS
what marker can be used to monitor response to crc remission
cea
prognosis - rectal vs colon cancer
rectal is worse and more recurrence
what % of crc recurrence occurs w/in 3 yrs of surgery
90
where are most polyps found
rectosigmoidal
malignancy: sessile vs pedunculated
sessile is more likely
dx test of choice for diverticulosis
barium enema
tx for diverticulosis
need to stop constipation -- so high fiber foods or psyllium
complications of diverticulosis vs diverticulitis
painless rectal bleeding & diverticulitis. bowel obstruction, abscess, fistula.
how to dx diverticulitis
ct scan of abdomen and pelvis w/ contrast (both oral and IV). DO NOT DO BARIUM ENEMA CUZ OF PERF
who is angiodysplasia symptomatic in, tx
common cause of bleeding >60yo, bleeding stops spontaneously, butr can do coloscopyic coagulation
common comorbidity assoc with angiodysplasia of colon
aortic stenosis
4 causes of acute mesenteric ischemia
arterial embolism, arterial thrombosis, nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia (low CO), venous thrombosis
sx of intestinal infarction
hypotension, fever, lactic acidosis, tachypnea, altered mental status
how to tx acute mesenteric ischemia
iv fluids and antibiotics. if arterial, can insert vasodilator during angiography. if venous, do heparin.
who is angiodysplasia symptomatic in, tx
common cause of bleeding >60yo, bleeding stops spontaneously, butr can do coloscopyic coagulation
common comorbidity assoc with angiodysplasia of colon
aortic stenosis
4 causes of acute mesenteric ischemia
arterial embolism, arterial thrombosis, nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia (low CO), venous thrombosis
sx of intestinal infarction
hypotension, fever, lactic acidosis, tachypnea, altered mental status
how to tx acute mesenteric ischemia
iv fluids and antibiotics. if arterial, can insert vasodilator during angiography. if venous, do heparin.
what exacerbates pain in chronic mesenteric ichemia
postprandial pain (akin to angina)
sx & symptoms of large bowel obstruction w/o mechanical obstruction
ogilvie's syndrome
cause of ogilvie's syndrome
recent surgery trauma, medical illnesses, medications (narcotics, anticholinergic)
what is risk of distention? what is threshold?
rupture and peritonitis. decompress when diameter >10cm
what is the min and max time after stopping antibiotics that can cause c diff
first week - 6 week
complications of c diff
toxic megacolon, colonic perforation, anasarca
what used to tx c diff if not metro
vanc
most common site of colonic volvulus
sigmoid colon, and then cecal
sx of colonic volvulus
acute colicky abdominal pain, obstipation, distention, NV
cxr sx of volvulus
bent inner tube shape for sigmoid, distention of cecum and small bowel (coffee bean) for cecal
how to tx colonic volvulus
for sigmoid volvulus, do sigmoidoscopy (both dx and tx). for cecal, do emergent surgery
what 5 things does child's classification measure? how many levels?
ascites, bilirubin, encephalopathy, nutritional status, albumin. a,b,c
how to tx esophageal/gastric varices after stabilization
endoscopy (emergent). tx options include variceal ligation, sclerotherapy, vasopressin, octreotide
causes of ascites
chf, portal htn, renal dz, fluid overload (which can be caused by hyperaldosterone, which can be due to decreased deactivation by liver), tb, malignancy, hypoalbumin, sepsis,
how to determine cause of ascites
paracentesis -- cell count, albumin, gram stain, culture
saag in portal HTN
>1.1
what precips hepatic encephalopathy
alkalosis, hypokalemia, sedating agents, gi bleeding, sepsis, hypovolemia
tx for hyperammonia
lactulose, neomycin (kills bowel flora -- no more intestinal bacteria production of ammonia)
why is kidney function important to assess liver dz
hepatorenal syndrome
what is hepatorenal syndrome
renal failure due to hypoperfusion that occurs from vasoconstriction of renal vessels (3rd spacing?) in advanced liver dz
complications of liver failure
AC9H -- ascites, coagulopathy, hypoalbumin, portal htn, hyperammonia, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal, hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubin, hyperestrinsim, hcc
3 mcc of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
ecoli, klebs, pneumococcus
how to tx coagulopathy from liver dz
ffp (vit K ineffective)
where does copper excretion normally occur
liver
renal manifestations of wilson's dz
aminoaciduria, nephrocalcinosis
tx options for wilson's
chelating agents (penicillamine), zinc (prevents absorption), liver transplant
why does fibrosis occur in hemochromatosis
free radicals generated by excess iron
what organs systems to look for dmg in hemochromatosis
liver, pancreas, skin, (bronze diabetes) heart, joints, gonads, thyroid, hypothalamus
how to dx hemochromatosis
iron studies (elevated iron, ferritin, transferrin sat, decreased tbc), LIVER BIOPSY IS REQUIRED
tx for hemochromatosis
repeat phlebotomies, tx complications
how to dx hepatocellular adenoma
ct scan, U/S, hepatic arteriography
when do you resect hepatocellular adenoma
>5cm
mc benign liver tumor
cavernous hemangioma
how to dx cavernous hemangioma
u/s, ct scan w/ iv
what is focal nodular hyperplasia
benign liver tumor in women of reproductive age, but not assoc with contraceptive
2 types of hcc
nonfibrolamellar (most common, assoc w/ hep b/c and cirrhosis, usually unresectable), fibrolamellar (not assoc w hbv/hcv/cirrhosis, resectable)
prognosis of resectable hcc vs unresectable hcc
25% live to 5 yrs vs <1yr
what is needed to definitively dx hcc
liver biopsy
associations with nash
obesity, hyperlipid, dm
causes of hemobilia
trauma, papillary thyroid carcinomy, surgery, tumor, infection
how to dx hemobilia
arteriogram, upper gi endoscopy
cause of pyogenic liver abscess
biliary tract obstruction, gi infection, trauma
mcc amebic liver abscess
e histolytica
tx of budd chiari
medical therapy usually not good, do balloon angioplasty w/ stent
dx of budd chiari
hepatic venography, saag>1.1
what bili level does jaundice show
tb > 2mg/dl
why is there dark urine with direct hyperbiliribunemia
cuz conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and it will be secreted by kidney
what is defect in dubin-johnson/rotor
liver can't secrete into bile ducts
lfts in dubin johnson/rotor
normal
which is more sensitive and specific for liver: alt, ast
aLt
mild elevation (low hundreds) in alt, ast
chronic viral hep, acute alcoholic hep
moderate elevation (high hundreds to thousands) in ast, alt
acute viral hep
alt, ast severely elevated (>10000)
ischemia/shock, acetaminophen, several viral hep
causes of transaminase elevation
ABCDEFGHI - autoimmune, hbv, hcv, drugs, ethanol, fatty livery, growths, hemodynamic problems, iron/copper/antitrypsin
10-fold increase in alp vs less intense increase
10-fold = cholestasis. if just elevated, get a ggt. if ggt is normal consider pregnancy or bone dz
boas sign
referred right subscapular pain of biliary colic
risk of developing acute cholecystitis after biliary colic
1/3 develop after 2y
complications of cholelithiasis
cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, gallstone ileus, malignancy
dx of cholelithiasis
ruq us
complications of cholecystitis
gangrenous cholecystitis, gb perf, emphysematous cholecystytis, cholecystenteric fistula w/ gallstone ileus, empyema of gallbladder
bowel sounds in acute chole
hypoactive
findings in ruq us of acute chole
1. thickened gb wall 2. pericholecystic fluid 3. distention 4. presence of stones
what is most sensitive test to find complications of acute cholecystitis
ct
when to do a hida scan
when us inconclusive
what is + result on hida scan
no gb visualized after 4 hours
complications of choledocholithaisis
cholangitis, obstructive jaundice, acute pancreatitis, billiary cirrhosis
who is acalculous chole seen in
usually idiopathic, usually severe underlying illness like dehydration, burns, trauma
gold standard dx for choledocholithasis
ercp
primary vs secondary stones in choledocholithiasis
primar stones originate in cbd usually pigmented
charcot's triad.. what's it for
ruq pain + jaundice + fever, cholangitis
mcc of cholangitis
choledocholithiasis
what tests/interventions to run immediately in cholangitis
1. cultures 2. iv fluids 3. iv antibiotics 4. decompress cbc after pt stable
dx of cholangiitis
ruq ultrasound + lbs (cbc, bilirubin, lft). don't do ptc/ercp in acute
reynold's pentad
charcot triad + sepsis + altered mental status
prognosis of carcinoma of gb
90% die of advanced dz w/in 1 yr of dx
what is porcelain gb
calcification of gb wall
tx for porcelain gb
cholecystectomy cuz it is risk factor for gb carcinoma
associations with psc
uc
tx for psc
liver transplant, if there is a identifiable stricture, can do ercp with stent
who gets pbc
middle aged women
is psc intrahepatic or extrahepatic? pbc?
both, intrahepatic
what antibody is elevated in pbc
ama
associations with psc
uc
tx for psc
liver transplant, if there is a identifiable stricture, can do ercp with stent
who gets pbc
middle aged women
is psc intrahepatic or extrahepatic? pbc?
both, intrahepatic
what antibody is elevated in pbc
ama
associations with psc
uc
tx for psc
liver transplant, if there is a identifiable stricture, can do ercp with stent
who gets pbc
middle aged women
is psc intrahepatic or extrahepatic? pbc?
both, intrahepatic
what antibody is elevated in pbc
ama
what ig is elevated in pbc
ig M
causes of 2* biliary cirrhosis
mechanical obstruction, sclerosing cholangitis, cystic fibrosis, biliary atresia
bone consequences of pbc
osteoporosis
how to tx pbc
symptomatic (cholestyramine for pruritus, and osteoporosis). ursodeoxycholic acid to slow progression of dz. liver transplant
where does cholangiocarcinoma usually occur
proximal 1/3 of cbd (klatskin tumor), distal extrapeatic (most favorable), intrahepatic
what is choledochal cyst? complication? who does it occur in? dx? tx?
cystic dilation of biliary tree, women, leads to cholangiocarcinoma, us & ercp, surgical resection
mcc bile duct stricture
iatrogenic
tx of bile duct stricture
endoscopic stenting, surgical bypass
what is biliary dyskinesia, how to dx
dysfunction of sphincter of oddi. hida -- low ejection fraction
cause of acute appendicitis
obstruction by lymphoid hyperplasia (usually), fecalith, foreign body, other cause. obstruction leads to stasis and infection and distention. distention can lead to infarction or necrosis.
hunger and appendicitis
hunger is almost never present
psoas sx vs obturator sx
pain on rt thigh extension when lying on left vs pain on rt thigh internal rotation
causes of acute pancreatitis
GET SMASHED -- gallstone, ethanol, trauma, scorpion bite, mumps/malignancy, autoimmune, steroid, hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia, ercp, drugs
3 sx of hemorrhagic pancreatitis
grey turner's sx (flank), cullen's sx (periumbilical), fox's sx (inguinal)
ranson's admission criteria
GA LAW -- glucose > 200, age > 55, LDH > 350, AST > 250, WBC > 16000
why does hypocalcemia result from acute pancreatitis
fat saponification (fat necrosis binds calcium)
how to predict mortality from ranson's criteria
<3 = 1%. 3-4 = 15%. 5-6 = 40. 7+ = 100%
48 hour ranson's critera
C HOBBS - calcium < 8, hemotocrit decrease >10%, pa02 < 60, BUN increase >8, base deficit >4, fluid sequestration >6L
dx of acute pancreatitis
labs, ct abdomen
possible signs of pancreatitis on axr
sentinel loop (air filled bowel in LUQ), colon cut off sign (air filled segment of transverse colon around pancreas)
complications of acute pancreatitis
necrosis (which may be sterile or necrosis -- need to do ct guided aspiration), pancreatic pseudocyst, hemorrhagic pancreatitis, ards, ascites/pleural effusion, ascending cholangitis, abscess
compliations of pancreatic pseudocyst
rupture, infection, fistula, hemorrhage into cyst, pancreatic ascites
how to tx pancreatic pseudocyst
>5cm, drain. <5cm = observe
tx for acute pancreatitis
NPO (rest pancreas), IV fluids, pain control but no narcotics, ng tube if NV or ileus
4 classic findings of chronic pancreatitis
chronic epigastric pain + calcifications on axr/ct + dm + steatorrhea
mcc of chronic pancreatitis
chronic alcoholism
medical tx for chronic pancreatitis
narcotics, NPO, h2 blocks = pancreatic enzymes, insulin, small frequent meals
surgical tx for chronic pancreatitis
pancreaticojejunostomy, pancreatic resection
mc locations for pancreatic cancer
head > body > tail
risk factors for pancreatic cancer
cigarette, chronic pancreatitis, dm, heavy alcohol, benzidine/b-naphthylamine
most sensitive test for pancreatic cancer
ercp
4 classic sx of pancreatic cancer
jaundice (usually NOT painless) + weight loss + migratory thrombophebitis + courvoisier's sx (palpable gallbladder)
tx for pancreatic cancer
whipple's
what is aortoenteric fistula
fistula in someone with aortic graft surgery -- they have a small GI bleed involving duodenum before massive hemorrhage hours to weeks later
causes of upper gi bleeding
PUD, reflux esophagitis, esophageal & gastric varices, erosions, mallory-weiss, hemobilia, dieulafoy's vascular malformation (submucosal dilated arterial lesion), aortoenteric fistula
causes of lower GI bleeding
diverticulosis, angiodysplasia, IBD, CRC/polyps, ischemic colitis, anal fissures, hemorrhoids, small intestinal bleeding
other causes of dark stools other than melena
bismuth, iron, spinach, charcoal, licorice
dx for gi bleeding
vs (is pt stable?), labs (stool guiac, h&h, bun:cr ratio increased in upper gi bleed), upper endoscopy, ng tube, anoscopy, colonscopy, bleeding scan, arteriography
how to evaluate ng aspirate -- bile w/ no blood vs bright red blood or coffee grounds vs nonbloody aspirate
upper GI bleeding unlikely vs upper GI bleed vs unlikely, but cannot be ruled out
how to tx upper GI bleed
egd with coagulation
how to tx lower gi bleed
colonoscopy (polyp excision, cautery), arteriographic vasoconstriction, surgical resection
indications for surgery for gi bleed
hemodynamically unstable w/o response to fluids, recurrence of bleed after endoscopy, continued bleed for >24h, vessel at base of ulcer, ongoing transfusion requirement
where is scc of esophagus located. where is adenocarcinoma of esophagus located
upper to mid third. distal third
risk factors for scc of esophagus
alcohol, tabacco, diet (nitrosamine, betel nuts, chronic hot food ingestion), hpv, achalasia, plummer vinson
risk factors for adenocarcinoma of esophagus
gerd, barretts
2 most common sx of esophageal cancer
progressive dysphagia and weight loss
how to dx esophageal cancer
barium swallow, upper endoscopy, transesophageal u/s
up to what stage is surgery curative for esophageal cancer
2A (no node involvement)
mcc of achalasia
idiopathic in US, chagas worldwide
sx of achalasia
dysphagia, regurgitation, chest pain, weight loss, aspiration
tx for achalasia
no cure. can try antimuscarinic (dicyclomine), nitrates, and ccbs. botox injections into LES. forceful dilation. "heller myotomy"
what is diffuse esophageal spasm
nonperistaltic contraction of esophagus and prevent advancement of food. sphincter is normal
sx of diffuse esophageal spasm
CHEST PAIN
dx of diffuse esophageal spasm
esophageal manometry
tx of DES
no good therapy. nitrates and ccbs
type 1 vs type 2 esophageal hernia. which one more common
sliding vs paraesophgeal. type 1
which type of esophageal hernia is riskier
type 2 can strangulate
sx of diffuse esophageal spasm
CHEST PAIN
dx of diffuse esophageal spasm
esophageal manometry
tx of DES
no good therapy. nitrates and ccbs
type 1 vs type 2 esophageal hernia. which one more common
sliding vs paraesophgeal. type 1
which type of esophageal hernia is riskier
type 2 can strangulate
tx of esophgeal hernia
type 1: medicially (antacid, small meal, elevation). nissen fundoplication of unresponsive. type 2 = surgery
complications of type 1 esophgeal hernia
grd, reflus esophagitis, aspiration
where is tear in mallory weiss
at or just below gastroesophgeal jcn
3 classic findings of plummer vinson
UPPER esophageal webs + iron deficiency anemia + atrophic oral mucosa
where are schatzki rings located
lower esophagus
what is schatzki's ring
ring in lower esophagus + sliding hiatal hernia
usual cause of schatzki ring
ingestion of caustic agents (like alkali, acids, bleach)
tx of schatzki ring
esophagectomy if full thickness necrosis (more likely with alkali)
3 types of esophgeal diverticula
zenkers in type 1/3, traction in midpoint, epiphrenic in lower 1/3
cause of zenkers
failure of cripharyngeal mm to relax during swallowing
cause of traction diverticula
occurs near tracheal bifurcation. due to traction from mediastinal inflammation and adenopathy (eg TB)
cause of epiphrenic diverticula
achalasia, esophageal dysmotility
hamman's sign
mediastinal crunch produced by heart beating against air filled tissue.... seen in esophageal perf
dx for esophageal perf
contrast esophagram 9using soluble gastrografin)
what is common b/w epiphrenic and zenkers
due to underlying dysmotility of certain mucles
most important prognostic factor in esophgeal perf
time interval b/w esophgeal perf and surgery.
tx for esophgeal perf
if small perf -- iv vluids, npo, ab, h2 block. if large, surgery
pathogenesis: duodenal vs gastric ulcers
duodenal = increased acid. gastric = decreased defense (mucosa)
which has higher malignant potential -- dudoenal or gastric
gastric
blood type association of pud
duodenal = type O. gastric = type A
eating relieves pain in PUD?
for duodenal ulcer, not for gastric
dx of pud
endoscopy, needed esp for gastric ulcer cuz need biopsy to r/o malignancy. lab test for pylori. can measure serum gastrin for ze syndrome
advantage of quadruple therapy vs triple therapy for pylori
quad takes 1 week, triple is 2 weeks
what is regimen of quadruple therapy vs triple
ppi + bismuth + 2 ab's vs PPI + 2 ab's
relationship between eating and pain in acute gastritis
no relationship
complications of pud
perforation, gastric outlet obstruction, gi bleed
how to dx perf from pud
upright cxr
how to dx gastric outlet obstruction
barium swallow and upper endoscopy, saline load
what is saline load test
(empty stomach with ng, add 750 ml saline, if there is >400 mL of saline after 30 min then positive). used to dx gastric outlet obstruction
causes of chronic gastritis
h pylori, autoimmune
best dx for chronic gastritis
endoscopy
what is most common type of gastric cancer
adenocarcinoma
4 types of gastric cancer
ulcerative, polypoid, superficial spreading (most favorable), linitis plastica
risk factors for gastric cancer
chronic atrophic gastritis, h pylori, postanrectomy, pernicious anemia, menetrier dz, high intake of preserved foods, blood type A
dx gastric cancer
endoscopy
tx for gastric cancer
surgical resection with wide (>5cm) margins with lymph node dissection
what is krukenberg tumor
gastric cancer met to ovary
what is blumer's shelf
gastric cancer met to rectum that is palpable on rectal exam
what is sister mary josephs node
gastric cancer met to periumbilical lymph node
hat is virchow node
met of gastric cancer to supraclavicular fossa
what is irish's node
gastric cancer met to left axilla
3 classification of sbo
1. partial vs complete -- i.e. obstipation = complete. 2. closed loop vs open loop -- closed means lumen occluded at 2 points which can compromise blood supply 3. proximal vs distal -- distal obstruction causes distention of proximal segments, which eases dx. proximal obstruction also means frequent vomiting
why does dehydration occur in sbo
intestinal distention causes reflex vomiting
causes of sbo
adhesions from surgery, incarcerated hernias, malignancy, intussusception, crohns, superior mesenteric artery syndrome
how is pain from strangulated bowel different
it is continuous pain (vs colicky)
causes of large bowel obstruction
volvulus, adhesions, hernia, colon cancer
how to dx sbo
axr,barium enema, upper gi series
when is surgery needed for sbo
complete obstruction, persistent or constantly painful partial obstruction, strangulation
causes of paralytic ileus
drugs (narcotics, anticholinergic), postop, spinal cord injury, shock, metabolic dz (HYPOKALEMIA), peritonitis
axr finding of paralytic ileus
uniform distribution of gas in small bowel
what electrolyte disturbance can cause paralytic ileus
hypokalemia
ibd: erythema nodosum vs pyoderma gangrenosum
nodosum in crohn's, pyoderma in UC. erythema parallels ibd activity, pyoderma doesn't
ibd: episcleritis vs anterior uveitis
episcleritis follows ibd activity
ibd: arthritis vs sacroilitis
arthritis is migratory monoarticular and parallels ibd activity
what is sbo due to in ibd
at first edema and spasm of bowel. then scarring and thickening
mc location of crohn's dz
terminal ileum
ibd: erythema nodosum vs pyoderma gangrenosum
nodosum in crohn's, pyoderma in UC. erythema parallels ibd activity, pyoderma doesn't
ibd: episcleritis vs anterior uveitis
episcleritis follows ibd activity
ibd: arthritis vs sacroilitis
arthritis is migratory monoarticular and parallels ibd activity
what is sbo due to in ibd
at first edema and spasm of bowel. then scarring and thickening
why is risk of kidney stone higher in ibd
increased colonic absorption of dietary oxalate
when is sulfasalazine most useful
if colon involved
antidiarrheal agents and ibd
can cause ileus
surgery uc vs crohns
surgical resection often curative for uc
uc and rectum
always involves rectum
diarrhea in uc vs crohns. implications for dx?
uc is bloody, crohns is not. therefore need to workup infectious diarrhea (c diff, ova, paracytes, fecal leukocytes)
ibd: which one more assoc with anorectal complications
crohns
ibd: which one is transmural?
crohns
ibd: which one more likely lead to bleeding
uc
ibd: which one can lead to sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma
uc
what are "red flags" for abd pain that warrant surgical consult
peritoneal sx -- rigidity, guarding, rebound
respiratory causes of abd pain
upper quadrant pain -- pneumonia, pe
radioiodide scan and graves dz
diffuse uptake
what is plummer's dz
multinodular toxic goiter
bumpy irregular assymetric thyroid gland
plummer's dz, hashimoto
tender, diffusely enlarged thyroid
subacute thyroiditis
thyroid bruit is specific for
graves dz
what things can increase thryoid binding globulin
pregnancy, ocp, liver dz, aspirin
utility of radioactive t3 uptake
resin and radioactive t3 is given, so gives information on how much tbg is there.
ptu vs methimazole
both inhibit thyroid synthesis, but ptu also block conversion of t4 to t3
what is sodium ipodate or iopanoic acid do
lowers serum t3 and t4, tx acute mgmt of severe hyperthyroid
complications of subtotal thyroidectomy
permanent hypothyroidism, recurrence of hyperthyroid, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, hypoparathyroidism
tx for graves (nonpregnant)
start methimazle + bb, taper bb after 4 w, monitor thyroid igg, if absent d/c therapy
indications for radioactive iodine ablation
elderly pts with graves, solitary toxic nodule, failure with antithyroid drugs
mortality from thyroid storm
20%
tx for thyroid storm
iv fluids, cooling blankets, glucose, ptu q2h, bb, dexamethasone
why is dexamethasone given for thyroid storm
impair peripheral conversion of t3 to t4
what is myxedema coma
depressed consciousness, hypothermia, respiratory depression that occurs after several yrs of severe untreated hypothyroid
what antibodies assoc w hashimoto
antimicrosomal antibodies
lab findings of hypothyroid
high tsh (unless 2*), elevated ldl, anemia
what is subclinical hypothyroid
inadequate thyroid function, but increased tsh keeps t4 normal. tx if goiter, hypercholesterol, sx of hypothyroidism, or tsh >20
radioiodine uptake in subacute thyroiditis
decreased (damaged follciular cells)
what is subacute lymphocytic thyroidtitis
painless thyroiditis 2-5mo long
what is thyroid associated ophthalmopathy
autoimmune attack on periorbital connective tissue. may be hypothyroid, graves, or euthyroid. tx is not useful.
sx of malignant thyroid nodule
fast onset, no movement on swallowing, fixed, unusually firm or irregular, solitary, hx of radiation, cervical adenopathy, elevated serum calcitonin
dx of thyroid nodule
FNA biopsy, thyroid scan (iodine), thyroid u/s
what type of finding on thyroid u/s indicates benign
cystic masses >4cm
what type of thyroid cancer is fna poor at detecting
follicular
what % of cold nodules are malignant
20
most common type of thyroid cancer
papillary
how does papillary carcinoma of thyroid spread
lymphatics
how does follicular carcinoma spread
hematogenous
what is hurthle cell tumor
variant of follicular cancer but more aggressive, spreads by lymphatics
tx for thyroid cancer
papillary - lobectomy unless >3cm. follicular - total thyroidectomy + iodine. medullar - total. anaplastic - poor prognosis
size cutoff of microadenoma of pituitary
<10mm diameter
what is best tx for pituitary adenoma
transsphenoidal surgery
causes of hyperprolactinemia
prolactinoma, medications (psych, h2, estrogen), pregnancy, renal failure, suprasellar mass lesions, hypothyroidism, idiopathic
how to tx prolactinoma
bromocriptine, cabergoline (better tolerated)
mc cause of death in pts with acromegaly
cardiovascular dz
heart complication of acromegaly
hcom
parasellar manifestations of putuitary growth
superior growth -optic chiasm compression
lateral - cavernous sinus compression
inferior - sphenoid sinus invasion
glucose in acromeglay
glucose intolerance
tx for acromegaly
surgery, radiation if elevated igf-1 postop, octreotide
urine findings in DI
low specific gravity + low osmolality
how to dx DI
water deprivation (urine osmolality will stay normal), urine and plastma osmolality
how to tx central DI? how to nephrogenic DI?
ddavp, chlorpropamide vs thaizide
how does thiazide diuretics work in nephrogenic DI
increased reabsorption of sodium in pct works out in this disorder end up decreasing urine volume
why does edema not occur in siadh
sodium is excreted despite hyponatremia
why does natriuresis occur in siadh
1. volume expansion leads to ANP 2. volume expansion leads to decreasd sodium absorption 3. inhibition of raas
sx of acute hyponatremia
lethargy, somnolence, weakness, seizures
tx of siadh
water restriction, saline + loop diuretic if faster results, lithium/demeclocycline.
fastest rate of sodium replacement
0.5 meq/L/hr
what is chvostek's sx
tappng facial nerve elicits contraction, sign of hypocalcemia
calcium levels in hypoparathyroidism
low
ekg changes with hypopth
prolonged qt
urine findings of hypopth
low urine camp
uses of calcium gluconate
1. hypocalcemia 2. antidote to mgso4 3. cardioprotective in hyperkalemia
mcc hypercalcemia
primary hyperpth
mc causes of primary hyperpth
adenoma > hyperplasia >> carcinoma
normal pth levels + hypercalcemia indicate what
hyperpth
how can electrolytes be used to help dx hyperpth
1. high ca 2. low phophate 3. chloride/phosphorus ratio > 33
indications for surgery in primary hyperpth
age>50, bone decrease, ckd/nephrolithiasis, severe hypercalcemia, urine calcium >400 in 24h
one classic lab sx of iatrogenic cushing's
no androgen excess
dx for cushings
1.low dose dexamethasone suppression (1mg at night, measure in AM, <5 = r/o cushings). 2. 24 urine cortisol 3. acth level (if low then probably adrenal origin) 4. crh stimulation test
tx for cushings
surgery
where are pheochromocytomas located
90% in adrenal medulla, 10% extra-adrenal
what is the organ of zuckerkandl
chromaffin body near bifurcation of aorta which can be the cause of pheo
what radioactive test can be used to localize pheo
I-metaiodobenzlguanidine scan (norepi analog)
tx of pheo
bb, surgical resection w/ ligation of venous drainage
men 1 vs 2a vs 2b
wermer = pt+pancreas+pituitary. sipple = medullary thyroid + pheo+ hyperpt. mucosal neuroma + medullary thyroid + pheo + marfanoid
2 electrolyte abnormalities in hyperaldosterone
hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis
what is conn's syndrome
adrenal adenoma producing purely aldosterone
tx of primary hyperaldosteronism
if adenoma, resection. if hyperplasia, use spironolactone
dx of hyperaldosteroneism
aldosterone to renin ratio >30, saline infusion test (saline infusion should decrease aldosterone below 8.5 normally)
mcc addison's? adrenal insufficiency in general
autoimmune in west, TB worldwide. chronic steroids.
aldosterone levels in primary vs secondary adrenal insufficiency
low in primary, normal in secondary
how to dx adrenal insufficiency
ACTH stimulation test
what is good drug for mineralocorticoid replacement
fludrocortisone
how to dx 21-hydroxylase cah
high levels of 17 hydroxyprogesterone
tx of cah
cortisol + mineralcorticoid, correct genitalia early
annual risk of developing type ii diabetes if impaired glucose tolerance
1-5% annual increase in risk
mechanism of obesity and insulin resistance
increased FFAs make muscles more insulin resistant, FFAs increase production of glucose, FFAs fail to stimulate pancreatic insulin secretion
dawn phenomenon vs somogyi effect
dawn phenomenon is noctural secretion of gh, somogyi is counterregulatory hormones activated in response to hypoglycemia. check glucose at 3AM, if elevated, then has dawn phenomenon and need more basal control. if low, then somogyi, and need less PM insulin to avoid hypoglycemia
typical insulin dosage for dm1 qday
0.5-1.0units/kg
general insulin dosage scheme
2/3 in morning (2/3 of this is nph), 1/3 in PM (1/2-2/3 is nph)
how often is glucose monitored for slidacting scale
4 times -- qhs and before meals
how does physical activity impact insulin dosage
lower by 1-2 units q20-30 min of activity
why is there accelerated atherosclerosis in diabetes
glycation of lipoproteins, incrased plt aggregation
typical scheme for sliding scale insulin dosage
start at blood glucose of 150-200 corresponding to 2 units of insulin. for every 50 increase in glucose, increase insulin by 2 units.
definition of microalbuminuria
1. 30-300 mg/day 2. 20-200g/min 3. albumin-cr ratio of 0.02-0.2
prognosis of diabetic nephropathy once proteinuria (not microalbuminuria) is reached
unaffected by glycemic control, at this point need to really start ACEi and restrict protein
2 types of retinopathy in dm. which one leads to blindness
proliferative and nonproliferative. both can lead to blindness -- nonproliferative can cause macular edema which leads to blindness.
most common cranial nerve affected in dm
cn3
respiratory & gi findings of dka.
kussmaul's breathing. N/V, abdominal pain
why do you see hyponatremia in dka? how much should sodium decrease for every 100 increase in blood sugar
fluid moves from ICF to ECF. sodium decreases by 1.6
potassium levels in dka
hyperkalemia (acidosis and low insulin cause k+ to come out of icf)
dosage of insulin for dka
0.1mg/kg bolus + 0.1 mg/kg/hr until anion gap closes and metabolic acidosis corrected
when do you start adding d5 to ivf for dka
once serum glucose is 250
what electrolyte needs to be replenished with dka. when do you start?
k+, start 1-2 hr after insulin
complications of dka tx
1. cerebral edema 2. hyperchloremic nongap metabolic acidosis
dx of dka
hyperglycemia, acidosis, ketonemia
dx of hyperosmolar syndrome
hyperglycemia, hperosmolarity, dehydration
what labs to order for hypoglycemia
insulin level, c peptide, anti-insulin antibodies, plasma and urine sulfonylurea level
what are neuroglycopenic symptoms
irritability, behavioral changes, drowsiness/lethargy, confusion
what do you need to assess before giving glucose to ANYONE (diabetic or not)
alcoholic? give thiamine
whipple's triad
for hypoglycemia. hypoglycemia brought on by fasting, glucose <50 during symptomatic attack, glucose administration brings relief
what is the gastrinoma triangle
cystic duct, junction of 2nd and 3rd parts of duodenum, neck of pancreas. location of 90% of tumors located here
how to dx ze syndrome
inject secretin (secretin inhibits gasrin)
is ze syndrome malignant
60%, that's why everyone with it should undergo exploratory surgery with attempted resection
what is necrotizing migratory erythema below the waist assoc with
glucagonoma
triad of somatostatinoma
gallstones + dm + steatorrhea
what is verner morrison syndrome
vipoma
4 classic sx of vipoma
watery diarrhea + achlorydia (vip inhibits gastric acid secretion) + hyperglycemia + hypercalcemia
risk of stroke after tia
30% 5-yr risk
carotid vs vertebrobasilar tia
dysphasia, contra weakness/numbness, amaurosis fugax (ipsi curtain-like vision loss to retinal ischemia) VS dizziness/ataxia, double vision, ipsi face/contra body numbness, dysphagia/dysarthria
most common sources of emboli for stroke
heart>ICA>aorta>paradoxical emboli
what causes lacunar stroke
thickening of small vessels narrows lumen and thus causes ischemia
which vessels affected in lacunar stroke
branches of MCA, vertebrobasilar arteries, circle of willis arteries
what is subclavian steal syndrome
stenosis of subclavian a proximal to origin of vertebral, therefore there is reversal of flow down the vertebral artery -- causes vertebrobasilar insufficiency and UE claudication
4 major syndromes seen in lacunar strokes
1. pure motor (involving internal capsule) 2. pure sensory (involving thalamus) 3. ataxic hemiparesis (incoordination ipsi) 4. clumsy hand
6 classic sx of vertebrobasilar stroke/insufficiency
ipsi: 1. ataxia 2. diplopia 3. dysphagia 4. dysarthria 5. vertigo; 6. CONTRA homo hemianopsia
why should you not use contrast ct for dx of new stroke
cuz hemorrhagic stroke hasn't been excluded
workup for acute stroke
1. noncontrast ct 2. ekg 3. cxr 4. cbc, plt, pt, ptt, electrolytes, glucose 5. echo 6. carotid doppler
3 orders to give after giving tpa
1. no aspirin 2. neuro check qh 3. bp < 185/110
bp control and strokes
unnecessary unless 1. sbp>220|dbp>120|map>130 2. pt has big need for antihypertensive 3. getting tpa
how to prevent strokes
1. atherosclerosis -- control risk factors, aspirin, carotid endarterectomy if symptomatic 2. embolic -- aspirin, reduce atherosclerotic risk factors 3. prevent lacunar -- control htn
what types of stroke does cocaine increase risk for
intracranial hemorrhagic stroke, ischemic stroke, AND subarachnoid hemorrhage
mc location of intracranial hemorrhage
basal ganglia >> pons = cerebellum
pinpoint pupils vs poorly ractive pupils vs dilated pupils in intracranial hemorrhage
involvement: pons, thalamus, putamen
tx for hemorrhagic stroke
abcs, GRADUAL bp reduction (only if sbp >160, dbp>105), mannitol/diuretics to reduce ICP
in which type of intracranial hemorrhage is surgical evacuation good
cerebellar hemmorhage
most common locations of subarachnoid hemorrhage
junction of anterior communicating with ACA, jcn of posterior communicating with ICA, bifurcation of MCA
what physical sx is a CI for LP
papilledema -- risk of herniation
what study to order once subarachnoid hemorrhage has been dx'd
angiogram
complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage
rerupture, vasospasm leading to infarction, hydrocephalus, seizures
tx for subarachnoid hemorrhage
surgery (clip aneurysm), stool softeners (avoids straining which raises ICP), CCB (to prevent vasospasm)
what is shy drager syndrome
parkinson + autonomic insufficiency
what type of parkinsons has better prognosis than others
tremor is better prognosis than bradykinesia
anticholinergic drugs are better for controlling what sx in parkinson
tremor
what is progressive supranuclear palsy
degeneration of BS, cerebellum, and basal ganglia. like parkinson's dz except NO TREMOR OR OPHTHALMOPLEGIA
what is trinucleotide repeat in huntington
CAG
how to dx huntington
MRI shows caudate atrophy
what type of tremor seen in essential benign tremor
intentional tremor
sensory deficits in friedreich's ataxia
vibratory sense and propioception
what is binswanger's dz
type of vascular dementia, slow insidious (rather than stepwise) diffuse subcortical white matter degeneration, in ppl with htn and atherosclerosis
what drug is associated with lower risk of developing alzheimers
hrt
how is dementia with lewy bodies different from parkinson's or alzheimer's
features of both, but often psychotic features while being extra sensitive to adverse effects of neuroleptics
causes of delirium
P DIMM WIT - postop, dehydration, infection, medications, metals, withdrawal, inflammation, trauma,
2 components of conciousness
arousal (brainstem) and cognition (cerebrum)
what is sundowning and what is it assoc with
worsening at night of symptoms, seen with dementia
ddx of coma
SMASHED - structural, meningitis/mental illness, alcohol/acidosis, seizures, hypercapnia/hyper|hypoglycemia/hyper|hypothermia,hyponatremia,hypoxia,hypotension, endocrine, drugs
describe the gcs in detail
E4V5M6. eyes: opens to pain (2), opens to command (3). voice: incomprehensible (2), inappropriate, confused (4). motor: decerebrate, decorticate, pain withdrawal, localizes pain
what is decorticate positioning
arms AND HANDS flexed, legs extended
what is decerebrate positioning
everything extended (back arched, elbows hyperextended, etc)
what is higher on gcs, decorticate or decerebrate
decorticate>decerebrate
ddx of abnormal pupilary light refle
structural intracranial lesions, drugs, anoxic encephalopahty, eye drops
what does bilateral fixed dilated pupils mean
severe anoxia
coma with bilateral fixed dilated pupils
severe anoxia
coma with unilateral fixed dilated pupil
herniation w/ cn3 compression
coma with pinpoint pupils
narcotics, intracranial hemorrhage
2 ways to check brainstem reflexes on coma pt
pupillary light reflex, oculocephalic test (head turning to once side should move the eyes conjugately to opposite side)
what is locked in syndrome
hemorrhage/infarction of ventral pons -- complete paralysis with sparing of respiration, blinking, vertical eye movement
motor findings of uncal herniation
contra hemiparesis
sx of central herniation
hypertonicity, bilateral babinski (i.e. UMN sx)
brain death vs persistent vegetatitve state
irreversible, apnea despite ventilation, no BS reflexes, no other explanation, not hypothermic, evidence for brain death, electrical silence on EEG vs unresponsive but eyes open, random movements
classic location of ms plaques
angles of lateral ventricles
geographical association with MS
lower incidence near equator, moving there before age 15 reduces risk of MS
what is internuclear ophthalmoplgia
ipsi MR palsy
how can optic neuritis present as clinically
vision loss/central scotomy, decreased pupillary light reflex, pain on mvmt of eye
how to tx acute attacks of ms
high dose IV CS (oral doesn't work)
what long term therapy can be used in MS for prophylaxis
interferon beta, glatiramer
what is most important prognostic factor for guiillain barre
recovery w/in 1-3 wks after onset. if >6w, chronic relapsing course more likely
sphincter control and guillain barre
preserved
dx of guillaine barre
elevated csf protein, decreased motor nerve conduction
tx of guillain barre
iv ig, plasmapheresis if severe. DO NOT GIVE STEROIDS
what are 2 indications for mri to r/o intracranial mass
new onset seizure, new + persistent/progressive HA
dx of cns newplasm
mri +/- gadolinium
6 ways to control increased icp
steroids, mannitol, hyperventilation/decrease co2, reverse trendelenberg position (elevate head of bed), lower body temperature
what is meningeal carcinomatosis. sx?
cancer that mets to meninges. focal neurological deficits or hydrocephalus
what is cerebral perfusion pressure, what is it normally
MAP - ICP. >50mmHg.
what is mechanism of death with increased ICP
decreases cerebral perfusion pressure, which results in loss of autoregulation, which leads to cerebral vasodilation, and thus vasogenic edema, further increasing ICP. ALSO, SBP IS THE ONLY DETERMINENT OF CEREBRAL BLOOD FLOW
6 secondary insults that need to be potentially reversed in head trauma
1. hypotension (decreased cerebral perfusion) 2. hypoxia (chest wall or respiratory injury, brainstem injury) 3. hypercapnia (causes vasodilation) 4. increased ICP 5. mass effect (hematoma) 6. anemia
4 sx of basilar skull fx
raccoon eyes, battle's sx (postauricular ecchymoses), hemotympanum, csf rhinorrhea/otorrhea
what is diffuse axonal injury
global dmg to brain during impact, elevated ICP not seen, but small hemorrhages in many tracts, 1/3 mortality
what is cushing's triad
HTN + bradycardia + respiratory irregularity
eye finding on epidural hematoma
ipsi blown pupil (i.e. fixed and dilated)
acute vs chronic subdural hematoma
chronic = sx at least 1 week after injury, better prognosis
what sx after concussion suggest elevated icp? what needs to be done?
vomiting, delirium, focal deficit. r/o hematoma.
what is emergency in myasthenic crisis
respiratory arrest
dx for myasthenia
achr antibody test, emg shows stepwise decrease in responsiveness, ct scan of thorax to r/o THYMOMA, edrophonium test has high fp
when should a thymectomy be done in myasthenia pt
always should be offered cuz even in absence of thymoma OFTEN get benefit and remission. obviously, if have thymoma then do it
what medicines can exacerbate sx of myasthenia
antibiotics, bb, antiarrythmics
options if achei fails for myasthenia
immunosuppression (corticosteroids), plasmapharesis, ivig.
what is lambert eaton assoc with. how different from myasthenia
small cell. sx improve with use
dx of duchenne's
DNA testing, elevated CPK
bone findings in nf1
bone erosion, scolioisis, congential tibial dysplasia
eye findings of nf1 vs nf2
lisch nodules (iris hamartoma) vs cataracts
what type of CNS neoplasm assoc with von hippel lindau
cavernous hemangioma
sx of syringomyelia
bilateral loss of p&t over shoulders (capelike)
how to tx syringomyelia
syringosubarachnoid shunt
sx of brown sequard
contra loss of p&t, ipsi hemiparesis, ipsi dorsal column
what is transverse myelitis
rare condition which horizontally affects spine and presents with LE weakness, back pain, sensory deficits, incontinence
how to dx transverse myelitis
mri with contrast
3 sx of horners
ptosis , miosis, anhidriosis
sx of polio
asymmetric muscle weakness, no reflexes, but normal sensation
danger of polio
bulbar involvement sometimes (cn 9-10) -- respiratory/cv problems
what test to order for dizziness + vestibular sx
audiogram
3 causes of central vertigo
MS, vertebrobasilar insufficiency, migraine associated vertigo
5 causes of peripheral vertigo
bpv, menieres, acute labyrinthitis, ototoxic drugs, acoustic neuroma
5 causes of syncope
seizure, cardiac, vasovagal, orthostatic, severe cerebrovascular dz, others
what is vasovagal syncope
some kind of trigger causes vagal response (bradycardia and vasodilation)
tx for vasovagal syncope
avoid circumstances, tx with bb and disopyramide
main priority in dx of syncope
differentiate b/w cardiac and noncardiac causes
8 causes of seizures
4M4I - metabolic (hyponatremia, glycemia, thermic, uremia), mass lesion, missing drugs, misc (pseudoseizure, eclampsia, hypertension), intoxication, infection, ischemia, ICP
2 main types of seizure
partial (one part of brain) vs generalized (spread to many parts of brain)
2 types of partial seizures
simple (no loss of consciousness) vs complex (impaired consciousness)
tonic vs clonic phase in grand mal
tonic = muscle rigidity, clonic = repetitive muscle jerking
workup for new onset seizures
cbc, electrolytes, glucose, lfts, renal, calcium, UA, eeg, ct, lp
how long to keep on seizure medicine for
2 yrs
sx of als
UMN and LMN lesions, SYMMETRIC
what does an EMG test
neuropathy (LMN), myopathy, nmj dz
how are the following affected in als: bowel/bladder, cognition, extraocular mm
none of these affected
how to dx als
2 regions on emg and nerve conduction affected = probable, 3+ = definite
how does conduction aphasia present as. what is it physiologically
disturbance in repitition. disturbance in connection b/w wernicke and broca
how to tx bells palsy
usually no tx, resolve w/in 1 mo. consider emg if not resolved by 2w. wear eye patch. NO STEROIDS IF LYME SUSPECTED
what needs to be r/o for trigeminal neuralgia
CPA tumor
aphasia vs visuospatial defects in terms of cortex deficits
left = aphasia. right = visuospatial
race predilection for sle
african american
what antibodies assoc with drug induced lupus
antihistone
most specific ab's for sle
anti dsdna, anti smith
tx for apls
anticoagulation to inr 2.5-3.5
what type of renal glomerulonephritis is associated with renal failure in lupus
type iv -- diffuse proliferative
what hla type is sle, sjogren and ra assoc with
dr2/dr3, dr3, dr4
mcc death from scleroderma
pulmonary fibrosis
2 antibodies for scleroderma
ANAs are nonspecific, but anticentromere for limited, anti-topoisomerase for diffuse
2 main sx of sjogrens
dry eyes, dry mouth
sx of CREST syndrome
calcinosis, raynauds, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasias
who is more likely to have a child with neonatal SLE/congenital heart block
someone with Ro (SSA)
what is mixed connective tissue disease
has features of many connective tissue dz. presence of anti U1 RNP ab
what spinal problem assoc with RA
cervical spine instability -- GET CERVICAL XR BEFORE SURGERY
characteristics of pleural fluid effusion in RA
low glucose and low completement
what is feltys syndrome
RA, neutropenia, splenomegaly
4 indicators of poor prognsois in RA
high RF titers, subcutaneous nodules, erosive arthritis, autoantibodies to RF
what is Still's Dz
JRA
first line dma's for tx of ra
mtx, hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine
what is risk of tx with hydroxychloroquine
retinopathy, so do eye exams q6mo
surgical options for ra
synovectomy (does not improve rom), joint replacement
relationship of gender to gout
women notaffected till after menopause
what can cause decreased excretion of uric acid
renal dz, nsaid/diuretics, acidosis
what things can precipitate an acute gout attack
decrease in temperature, dehydration, stress, alcohol, starvation
likelihood of gout attack w/in first 2 yrs of acute gouty attack
75%
how is chronic tophaceous gout different from acute gouty attack
in ppl with poorly controlled gout for long time, tophi are aggregates of urate crystals
joint aspiration results of gout
needle shaped negatively birefringent
what medicines can increase uric acid levels
thiazide/loops
side effects of colchicine
n/v/cramps, diarrhea
when is colchicine CI
renal insufficiency, cytopenia
when to start prophylactic therapy for gout
2+ attacks/yr
should you use uricosuric drug or allopurinol for gout prophylaxis
if 24-hr urine uric acid <800, then give uricosuric if no renal insufficiency
joint aspirate of pseudogout
weakly positively birefringent, rod/rhomboid shaped
xr findings of pseudogout
cartilage calcification
5 causes of acute polyarticular arthritis
septic joint, viral, lyme, reiters,rheumatic FEVER
what is special about inclusion body myositis
men>women, no autoantibodies, DISTAL muscle involvement, low CPK,poor prognosis
pathogenesis: dermatomyositis vs polymyositis
humoral immune activation vs cell mediated immunity
4 main features of dermatomyositis
1. symmetric proximal muscle weakness 2. elevated cpk 3. EMG 4.biospy
what are gottron's papules
papular, erythematous, scaly lesions over knuckles
is there any increased neoplasia risk in polymyositis? dermatomyositis?
only dermatomyositis
what antibodies associated with myositis
anti-jo
what factor may lead to better prognosis in myositis? worse prognosis
anti-mi-2 = good. anti-signal recognition = worst. anti-synthetase = abrupt onset.
muscle biopsy results in dermatomyositis vs polymyositis
dermato = perimysial. poly = endomysial.
relationship b/w temporal arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica
40-50% of temporal arteritis may have PMR
sx of polymyalgia rheumatica
hip and shoulder pain + flu-like + joint swelling
tx of PMR
cs 4-6w,but may need for up to 2 yrs
special consideration in someone with ankylosing spondylitis and trauma
if even minor trauma + neck/back pain, strictly immobilize to prevent injury until proper imaging (high risk of fx)
complications of anklyosing spondylitis
restrictive lung,cauda equina, osteoporosis -> spine fx, spondylodiscitis
what is enthesitis
inflammation at tendinous insertions into bone
where does reactive arthritis usually occur
LE
tx for reactive arthritis
NSAID
what type of arthritis is psoriatic arthritis
asymmetric polyarthritis
what is undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy
features of reactive arthritis but no past infection
tx for temporal arteritis
oral steroids based on suspicion for at least 4 weeks, iv if visual loss present
constitutional sx + absent pulses/bruits
takayasu
labwork for churg strauss
panca, eosinophilia
3 major sx areas for churg strauss
constitutional + respiratory + skin lesions
mc death from wegeners
renal
what body parts does wegeners involve
kidneys, upper & lower respiratory tract
what organ systems does PAN involve
medium sized vessels in nervous system and GI
dz associatiosn of PAN
hbv, hiv
dx of PAN
biopsy, esr, panca, fobt
triad of behcet
aphthous ulcers, uveitis, genital ulcers
what is affected mostly in hypersensitivity vasculitis
small vessel, mostly skin -- palpable murmura, etc
what is azotemia
elevated bun and cr
urine osmolarity, urine na, fena in prerenal failure
>500, <20, <1%
urine osmolarity, fena in atn
>350, >1%
bun/cr ratio in prerenal failure
>20:1 (kidney can ramp up BUN absorption)
phases of ATN
oliguric phase, diuretic phase, recovery phase
bun/cr in atn
<20:1
3 tests to perform for postrenal failure
palpate bladder, u/s, catheter to look for urine
ARF + rbc casts
glomerular dz
ARF + protein dipstick
intrinsic renal failure
ARF + WBC cast
renal parenchyal inflammation
what is renal failure index
Una/Ucr/Pcr. <1% = prerenal, >1% = ATN
early causes of death from ARF
hyperkalemic cardiac arrest, pulmonary edema
metabolic consequences of arf
hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, uremia
medications and ARF
must be adjusted for lvl of renal fcn
3 prognostic factors for arf
severity of renal failure, overall health of pt, clinical course
what is chronic renal insufficiency
no renal failure but elevated cr
why might a person with ckd be at increased risk for bleeding
platelet dysfunction due to uremia
what is calciphylaxis
vascular calcifications result in necrotic skin lesions
what is tachyphylaxis
desensitization to drug
why might you see hypercalcemia in ckd pt
long term hyperpth and use of calcium based phosphate binders
tx for ckd
1. low protein (0.7g/kg), low salt if volume issues or oliguria, restrict potassium, phosphate, mg 2. acei (monitor k+) 3. bp control 4. glycemic control 5. correct hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia 6. epo 7. capsaicin/uv/cholestyramine for pruritus
why is there increased risk of infection in ckd
uremia
absolute indications for dialysis
AEIOU -- acidosis, electrolytes (hyperkalemia), intoxications (methanol, ethylene glycol, lithium, aspirin), overload (hypervolemia), uremia (eg uremic pericarditis)
what is continuous AV hemodialysis and continuous venovenous hemodialysis used in
hemodynamically unstable pts, minimizes rapid shifts in volume and osmolality
advantage/disadvantage of hemodialysis
more efficient, less time needed, but less similar to kidney physiology, which can lead to hypotension and hypoosmolality
advantage/disadvantage of PD
natural kidney physiology, but high glucose load, peritonitis
types of proteinuria
glomerular, tubular, overflow (eg bence jones)
what is definition of proteinuria
>150mg/day
level of proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome
>3.5g /day
why is there hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome
generalized increased hepatic synthesis
what is urine dipstick able to detect in level of protein
1+ = 15-30
is urine dipstick able to detect all types of urine protein equally
no. more sensitive to albumins
best test to detect chronic pyelo
ivp
what health maintenance item required for chronic proteinuria
vaccination (pneumo, flu)
definition of hematuria
>3 rbcs/hpf
what type of hematuria most associated with glomerular dz
microscopic, usually not gross
workup hematuria
urine dipstick & UA (look for sediment/casts), cytology, blood tests, ivp/ct/us
classic sx of nephritis syndrome
hematuria, htn, azotemia
associations with minimal change dz
hodgekins and nonhodgekins
mcc of glomerular hematuria
berger's dz, aka iga nephropathy
what proteins are deposited in berger's dz
iga, c3. rmr berger's dz is iga nephropathy
mcc of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
hcv>hbv, syphilis, lupus
association with membranoproliferative
cryoglobulinemia
how long does glomerulonephritis take to develop after infection with gas
2w
lung dz vs kidney dz time course in goodpasture
lung dz occurs earlier
what type of histopathology in hiv nephropathy. tx?
like fsgs. prednisone, acei, arv
3 causes of acute interstitial nephritis
drug allergy (penicillin, diuretic, nsaid, anticoagulation, pheyny, sulfa), infection, collagen vascular dz
dx of acute interstitial nephritis
eosinophils in urine
acute vs chronic intersitital nephritis
acute has rapid decline in renal fcn. chronic has an indolent course with slow fibrosis and atrophy
causes of chronic interstitial nephritis
chronic obstruction, chronic analgesic, arteriolar nephrosclerosis (htn), heavy metal exposure
do you see eosinophils in chronic interstitial nephritis
no
causes of renal papillary necrosis
analgesic, dm, sickle cell, transplant rejection, obstruction
what type of metabolic d/o with rta
nonanion gap hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
what is type 1 rta, causes, effects on electrolytes. tx
can't secrete h+ at distal tubule, due to kidney dmg or systemic dz. all ions secreted (na, ca, k, po4)... so can get hypokalemia and renal stones. tx = bicarb, which also helps stones
what is type 2 rta. causes. electrolyte effects. tx
can't absorb bicarb at pct. fanconi, kidney dmg. hypokalemia. sodium restriction (will cause increased bicarb reabsorption)
what is type 4 rta. cause. electrolyte effects.
hypoaldosteroneism .. so increased acid and k+. cause is interstitial dz and dm.
what is hartnup dz, sx?
can't absorb neutral amino acids ... so similar sx to pellagra (dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia)
associated findings with adpkd
berry aneurysm, valvular dz, abdominal hernias, cysts in other organs
what antihypertensive to avoid in renovascular htn
acei
is magnetic dye in mra nephrotoxic
no
what test can be used to dx renal artery stenosis if renal fcn is good? if not?
renal arteriogram, captopril renal scintigram (not invasive). mra
dx test for renal vein thrombosis
selective renal venography, ivp
what is nephrosclerosis
thickening of glomerual afferent arterioles due to htn
can nephrosclerosis be acute problem
can cause malignant dz
tx for nephrosclerosis
control bp
how to tx sickle cell nephropathy
control sickle cell, acei
most common locations of nephrolithaisis
ureterovesicular jcn, calyx, ureteropelvic jcn, pelvic brim
what types of stones are radiolucent
uric acid stones
what size kidney stones can pass sponteeously
<.5cm
what are causes of hyperoxaluria
severe steatorrhea, small bowel dz, pyridoxine deficiency
hematuria + pyuria with kidney stone
comorbid infection
workup for kidney stone
UA (look for coexisting infection and low pH maybe uric acid stone, high pH maybe struvite), 24-hr urine (what type of stone), serum chemistry (electrolytes can hint at what type of stone), KUB, ct
when would you need to admit pt for nephrolithiasis
intractable pain, anuria, renal colic + UTI/fever, large stone
surgical options for kidney stone
extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, percutaneous nephrolithotomy
lower vs upper urinary tract obstruction
lower affects urination, upper causes renal colic
causes of lower urinary tract obstruction
BPH, stricture, neurogenic bladder, bladder cancer
causes of upper urinary tract obstruction
intrinsic causes like stones, clots, crystal deposits, strictures, or extrinsic like pregnancy, AAA, endometriosis, IBD, etc
workup for urinary obstruction
us, ua/labs, kub, ivp, voiding cysurethrography, cystoscopy, ct
risk factors for prostate cancer
age, bllack, fatty diet, famhx, chemical exposure
indications for prostate biopsy
psa >10, psa velocity >.75, dre
tx for prostate cancer
if localized -- radical prostatectomy. if locally invasive, radiation + androgen deprivation. metastasis -- severe androgen reduction (orchiectomy, antiandrogen, leuprolide)
prognosis of bladder cancer
high recurrence
how does bladder cancer spread
local extension
initial presenting sx of bladder cancer
painless hematuria
dx for bladder cancer
ua/uc (r/o infection), urine cytology, ivp, CYSTOSCOPY, cxr/ct (tumor hunting)
tx for bladder cancer
if CIS, intravescle chemo. if involves lamina propria, TUR. if muscle invasion, radical cystectomy+lymph nodes+removal of surrounding. if met -- cystectomy + chemo
why is it important to be careful with pe for scrotal mass
testicular cancers are almost always maligant, extratesticular scrotal cancers almost always benign
afp and what type of testicular tumor
embryonal tumors
staging of testicular tumor
a = confined. b = lymph nodes below diaphragm. c = met
by when does infarction occur in testicular torsion
6h
tx for testicular torsion
urgent bilateral orchiopexy
cause of epidydimits
ecoli in age extremes, stds in young males.
what are the sizes of the fluid compartments
60-40-20. 1/4 of ECF is plasma.
normal i/o's
input: 1500 fluids, 500 solids/metabolism
output: minimum 500 urine, 250 stool, 600 minimum insensible
what is normal hourly urine output
>1mL/kg/hr
is D5W good at maintaining intravascular volume? LR?
no (11/12 diffuses into TBW). yes
can you use LR in pt with potential hyperkalemia
no
how does hct change with hypovolemia
3% increase for every liter of deficit
how to use crystalloid solution to replace fluids
3 times as much blood lost to replace intravascular compartment
why is dextrose added to maintenance fluids
to inhibit muscle breadown
tx for hypervolemia
fluid restriction, diuretics
2 homeostatic mechanisms to regulate water
osmoreceptors in hypothalamus cause thirst when >295mosm. posterior pituitary gland secretes adh.
what is hyponatremia (definition)
<135
hypotonic vs isotonic vs hypertonic hyponatremia
hypotonic = "true hyponatremia". isotonic = pseudohyponatremia (lab error caused by lipids/protein/etc). hypertonic = osmoactive substances causes dilution.
causes of hypotonic hyponatremia
can be hypovolemic (if low urine sodium, kidneys trying to conserve sodium for extrarenal losses. if high, then renal loss), euvolemic, hypervolemic (water retaining states).
causes of euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia
siadh, psychogenic polydipsia, postop, hypothyroid, haldol/cyclophosphamide/antineoplastics
how does hyponatremia cause neurologic sx
causes increased icf volume --> icp
3 dx for hyponatremia
plasma osmolality, urine osmolality, urine sodium
how to tx hyponatremia
if isotonic or hypertonic, tx the underlying d/o. if hypotonic, then if mild -- withhold free water. if moderate, give looops. if severe, give hypertonic soln to increase serum sodium by 1-2meq/L/hr
causes of hypernatremia
hypovolemic = extrarenal loss of water, renal loss of water > sodium. isovolemic = di/insensible. hypervolemic = iatrogenic, cushing, hyperaldosterone
max rate of correction for hypernatremia
12meq/L/day
how to workup hypernatremia
check kidneys (low urine volume and urine osmol > 800), try desmopressin challenge to see if DI suspected
how to tx hypernatremia
for hypovolemic -- give nacl. if isovolemic -- give fluids, adh if di. hypervolemic -- give diuretics.
how can you calculate the water deficit
tbw * (1 - actual na/desired na)
how can you estimate ionized calcium
total calcium - .8 * albumin
why can hypomagnesium result in hypocalcemia
cuz decreased mg causes less pth
ekg changes of hyper vs hypocalcemia
qt shorten vs qt prolonged
how to tx hypercalcemia
increase urine (fluids and diuretics), inhibit bone resorption (bisphosophates, calcitonin)
what is effective for tx of hypercalcemia from vitamin D related issues
glucocorticoids
what is the only cause of hypokalemia that also causes htn
hypoaldosterone
sx of hypokalemia
arrythmia w/ twave inversion, muscle weakness, decreased dtrs, decreased gi motility, nv
how to replace k+
oral is safest -- 10meq increases by .1meq/L. if potassium <2.5, can do IV (mas 10meq/hr peripheral, 20meq/hr in central)
watch out for what drug when potassium is low
dig
sx of hyperkalemia
arrythmia (peaked t wave, prolonged pr, wide qrs), muscle weakness, decreased dtr, respiratory failure
why might k+ be falsely elevated
venipucture injury releases k+ from cells (ie prolonged use of torniquet)
tx for hyperkalemia
give IV calcium (to stabilize mycardial excitability), glucose, insulin and bicarb (all move k+ into cells), kayexalate (k+ binder), dialysis
causes of hypomagnesium
gi problems, alcohol, renal
ekg changes of hypomagnesium
prolonged qt, t wave flattening, torsades
causes of hypermag
renal fail,
what can be given for mg tox
calcium gluconate
ekg changes of hypermag
similar to hyperkalemia (wide qrs, elevated t, increased pr)
causes of hypophosphatemia
GI (absorption, malnutrition), increased renal excretion (incl hyperglycemia)
causes of hyperphosphatemia
renal failure (decreased excretion), bisphosphanates, rhabdo
how to tx hyperphosphate
phosphate binding antacid (aloh)
bicarb in serum chemistry vs abg
bicarb in abg is calculated so less reliable
why is respiratory + metabolic acidosis bad
sx of impending respiratory failure
ecf contraction vs expansion in metabolic alkalosis
ecf contraction is sensitive to saline, urine cl <10. ecf expansion has htn, urine cl >20.
2 main determinents of paco2
respiratory rate, tidal volume
how does 1 unit of packed rbcs affect hgb
raises by 1, raises hct by 3
when might a hgb of 7 or 8 not be well tolerated
impaired cardiac fcn
what is cryoprecipitate
contains factor 8 and fibrinogen (for hemophilia & vwd)
effect of 1 unit of plts
raises plt by 10000
what 3 groups of ppl have increased iron requirements
infants, adolescents, pregnants
how to dx beta thalassemia
elevated hbf on electrophoresis, microcytic hypochemoia on pbs
what is hbh dz
mutation/deletion of 3 alpha loci
causes of sideroblastic anemia
drugs (chloarmphenicol, inh, alcohol), lead, collagen vascular dz, neoplasm
how to do shillings test
give unlabeled b12 IM to saturate. then give labeled b12 PO, then measure in urine. then give intrinsic factor andsee if that changes anything
extravascular vs intravascular hemolysis: haptoglobin
lower in intravascular
most common clinical manifestation of sickle cell
painful crisis of bone (bone infarct)
what is splenic sequestration crisis
seen in sickle cell with sudden pooling of blood into spleen resulting in hypovolemia and splenomegaly
prophylaxis for sickle cell
AVOID high altitude, dehydration, TREAT infections aggressively, do penicillin prophylaxis for children until 6yo, folic acid supplements, hydroxurea
tx for hereditary spherocytosis
splenectomy
what dz has bite cells and heinz bodies
g6pd. heinz bodies are hgb precip and bite cells result after removal
ab in warm vs cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
igg vs igm
type of hemolysis in warm vs cold autoimmune
extravascular (digested by splenic macrophages) vs intravascular (complement mediated destruction)
causes of warm autoimmune hemolysis
lymphoma/leukemia(cll), collagen vascular dz, drugs (methyldopa)
ab in warm vs cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
igg vs igm
how to dx autoimmune hemolysis
direct coombs --- if igg then warm, if complement then cold.
type of hemolysis in warm vs cold autoimmune
extravascular (digested by splenic macrophages) vs intravascular (complement mediated destruction)
tx for warm hemolysis
glucocorticoids, other imunosppression
causes of warm autoimmune hemolysis
lymphoma/leukemia(cll), collagen vascular dz, drugs (methyldopa)
how to dx autoimmune hemolysis
direct coombs --- if igg then warm, if complement then cold.
tx for warm hemolysis
glucocorticoids, other imunosppression
mutated proteins in pnh
cd55,59
dx for pnh
ham's test (put into acid which causes lysis), sugar water test, flow cytometry
what type of hemolysis in pnh
intravascular
definition of thrombocytopenia
<150k
HIT type 1 vs type 2
aggretation <48h after initiation vs 3-12 days. type 1 don't do anything, type 2 stop heparin
when do you run risk of bleeding during surgery/ trauma? minor spontaneous? major spontaneous?
<50000. <20000. <5000
cause of ttp
unknown but platelet thrombi occlude small vessels and cause dmg to rbcs
5 sx of ttp
hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + renal failure + fever + fluctuating neurologic sx
how is ttp different from hus
ttp tends to have fever and altered mental status
tx for ttp
plasmapharesis, cs. DONT DO PLT TRANFUSION
what proteins affected in bernard soulier vs glanzmann
gp1b, gp2b
bleeding study results of bernard soulier vs glanzmann
bernard has low but large platelets. glanzmann has high bleeding time, but normal plt
what is factor VIII antigenic protein
vWF
how to dx vWF deficiency
prolonged bleeding time, decreased plasma vWF, reduced ristocetin induced platelet aggregation
what metabolic condition can cause impaired platelet fcn
uremia
tx for vWD deficiency
DDAVP, factor VIII concentrate, don't give cryoprecipitate (viral risk)
joint problems in hemophiliacs
joint destruction
how severe is hemophilia A usually
usually severe (<1% of normal levels of 8)
can you use DDAVP for hemophilia
mildly useful in hemophilia A only
PT, PTT, PLT, fibrinogen levels in vitamin k deficiency
only PT prolonged
what can be done as supportive tx for dic
use FFP/cryoprecipitate to replace clotting factors, PLT transfusion. o2, ivf to maintain bp and renal perfusion. may use heparin if lots of thrombosis
which clotting factor has the shortest half life
VII
which clotting factor is not produced by liver
vWF
why does coagulopathy develop in liver failure
decreased synthesis of clotting factors, cholestasis prevents vitamin K absorption, hypersplenism causes thrombocytopenia
is antiphospholipid syndrome arterial or venous thromobisis
both
what does protein S bind to
protein C
how is standard heparin given
therapy: bolus of 80 U/kg then 15 U/kg/hr infusion
prophylaxis: 5000 U subcut q12h
when is the only situation heparin is given as prophylaxis
for DVT
what anticoagulation drug has risk of alopecia and rebound hypercoagulability
heparin
mechanism of LMWH
mostly inhibition of Xa
what to do if severe bleeding with heparin or warfarin
FFP
how long does warfarin take to reach therapeutic levels
4 days
hematological abnormalities in MM
pancytopenia
electrolyte abnormalities in MM, why
hypercalcemia, bone destruction
how many plasma cells must be abnormal to dx MM
10%
how long does it take to correct warfarin OD with vit K
4-10h
are there bone lesions in waldenstrom
no
cutoff of immunoglobulins to call it MGUS
IgG spike < 3.5g, <10% abnormal plasma cells in BM; bence jones proteinuria <1g/day
ann arbor staging of hodgekins
stage 1 = 1 lymph node. 2 = same side diaphragm. 3 == boxth sides of diaphragm.
B = constitutional sx
other than rs cells, what histological characteristic of hodgekins that sets it appart from nhl
inflammatory cells reacting to rs cells
what types of hodgekins require chemo
3b,4
staging system of nhl vs hodgekins
same
what types of autoimmune dz may increase risk of nhl
hashimoto, sjogren
most common type of nhl
follicular
grade of small lymphocytic lymphoma vs follicular vs diffuse large cell vs lymphoblastic vs burkitt
2x indolent, intermediate, high grade
what type of cells are involved in lymphoblastic lymphoma
t cells
which type of lymphoma usually presents as large extranodal mass
diffuse large b cell
what test may help to gauge tumor burden for lymphoma
ldh, b2 microglobulin
low grade vs high grade lymphoma: cure vs survival
high grade have higher rates of cure but less survival w/o tx
what is CHOP therapy
cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunomycin (doxorubicin), oncovin (vincristine), prednisone
most common malignancy in children under 15
ALL
poor prognostic indicators for ALL
age <2 or >9, wbc >100000, cns involvement (b cell phenotype, lots of LDH, rapid proliferation)
which type of leukemia tends to have testicular involvement
ALL
which type of leukemia tends to have skin nodules
AML
prognosis of ALL
75% children get complete remission.
what leukemia has smudge cells
cLL
which leukemia is most at risk of blast crisis
CML
leukemoid rxn vs CML
leukemoid rxn: no splenomeglay, increased LAP, hx of precipitating event like infection
tx for CML
chemo to control sx before blast crisis. hard to prevent it
tx for CLL
symptomatic tx with chemo
dx for polycythemia vera
major (need all, or 2 with 2 minor) elevated RBC (>36 in men, >32 in women), o2 sat >92, splenomegaly.
minor: thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, LAP>100, B12 >900
2 main life threatening features of polycythemia vera
thrombotic phenomena, bleeding
peripheral blood smear of myelodysplastic syndrome
low reticulocyte, howell-jolly/basophilic stippling
what is erythromelalgia
burning pain and erythema of extremties due to occlusions
whats anagrelide
antiplatelet agent
prognosis of myelodysplastic
oft progress to acute leukemia
prognosis of agnogenic myeloid metaplasia
AML, death from bleeding/infection
mc organisms cap
s pneumo, hi, aerobic gnrs (klebs, enterobacteria
how do you differentiate b/w pneumonia and acute bronchitis
clinical features (cough, sputum, fever, dyspnea) not great. do CXR
what is pulse temperature disassociation commonly seen in
atypical cAP
likelihood of pneumonia in outpt with normal vs
<1%
how do you know if a sputum sample collection is good
>25 pmns, <10 epithelial cells per low power field
what to order on sputum taken for pneumonia
gram stain in all pts, culture in all pts needing hospital, if suspect hiv, then do silver stain. if suspect tb, then do acid fast
why is sputum studies helpful in pneumonia
cuz may identify resistance
first line tx for cap <60yo? older?
macrolide, doxy. 2nd/3rd gen ceph, fluoroquinolone.
when do you tx parapneumonic effusion? how do you analyze fluid?
>1cm effusion on lateral decubitus film. gram stain, culture, ph, cell count, determine glucose, protein, ldh
what is main risk factor for lung abscess
predisposition to aspiration, poor dental hygeine
what bacteria must be covered for in lung abscess
gpc (penicillin, or vanc if mrsa), anaerobes (clinda/metro). if you think gnr, then add quinolone
primary vs secondary tb
secondary = reactivation
what is progressive primary TB
incomplete immune response leads to symptoms of TB during primary phase
ghon's complex vs ranke's complex. what do both indicate
calcified primary focus vs calcified primary focus + calcified hilar lymph node. healed primary tb
how long does culture of tb take
4-8w
what induration of ppd is positive
>15mm, >5 if hiv or if close contact with active tb pt
first line tx for active tb
inh + rifampin + pyranzimide + ethambutol/streptomycin x2 months, then inh+rifampin x4months
prophylaxis for latent tb
9 mo inh
what URI sx does flu present with
fever, nonproductive cough, sore throat
brudzinski's sx vs kerning
flexing neck causes reflex flexion of legs. vs inability to extend knees when supine and hips flexed.
what to do if suspected meningitis and focal neurological deficits, why?
ct cuz there might be a space occupying lesion
nl csf findings: wbc coung, glucose, protein
<5, 50-75, <60
empiric tx for acute bacterial meningitis, what organisms?
infant = gbc/ecoli/listeria = cefotaxime+ampicillin
<50yr=neisseria/pneumo/hi=ceftriaxone+vanc
>50yr=pneumo/neisseria/listeria=ceftriaxone+amp+vanc
if IC, then do 4g ceph instead to cover pseudomonas
workup for encephalitis
1. r/o nonviral causes -- cxr, urine/blood cultures, UDS, chemistries, LP w/ PCR, MRI
organisms that cause brain abscess
strep (sinusitus), saureus (trauma, postop), anaerobes (OM, COPD)
what infectious dz is polyarteritis nodosa assoc w
hbv
utility of hbv viral load
if persists for >6w, likely to develop chronic dz
if someone has hepatitis sx, and hbv is positive and then sx resolves, is repeat testing necessary
yes hdv may be missing in acute illness
progression to chronic state in hbv vs hcv
10% vs 90%
risk of developing cirrhosis/hcc in chronic hbv vs hcv
30% vs 15%
tx of chronic hbv vs hcv
ifn-alpha or 3tc vs ifn-alpha+ribavirin
how does botulism start
dry mouth, diplopia, dysarthria
how to dx botulinum
toxin in serum or stool
causes of intraabdominal abscess
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, pelvic infection, pancreatitis, GI perforation, osteomyelitis of vertebral bodies
when might you suspect midstream clean catch might be contaminated
epithelial cells
what tests to get for UTI
dipstick, UA, urine gram stain, urine culture
what is phenazopyridine
urinary analgesic
tx options for UTI
bactrim, cipro, metro
how to tx pregnant lady with uti
amp/amox/ceph x7-10d
what is recurrent infection uti? how to prophylax
>2uti/yr. single dose tmp/smx after intercourse or after sx, or do 6mo prophylax
how to tx pyelo
if uncomplicated, tx based on gram stain. bactrim/cipro for gnrs. amox for gpc.
what is complicated pyelo
pyelo due to functional or structural problems of tract. these groups assumed to have complicated: men, elderly, renal dz, dm, ic
what do you do if no response to uncomplicated pyelo
perform urologic investigation for functional/structural causes
how long do you tx pyelo in hospital
broad spec (amp+gent/cipro) until pt is afebrile, then oral ab until 14-21day course
organisms behind acute prostatitis
gn
when should you dre for suspected prostatitis
avoid in straightforward cases of acute bacterial prostatitis cuz of risk for bacteremia
tx for prostatitis
if mild can use bactrim + fluoro/doxy
mcc reiters
chlamydia
men or women more likely to have sx with chlamydia? gc?
men > women both
what is seen on gram stain with gc
urethral dc shows organisms within leukocytes
how long doxy given for std
7d
monitoring for hiv
cd4 count, viral load (rna) q3-4mo. if viral load >50 after 4mo therapy, reconsider modification of tx
what cd4 count with aids? is this only way to dx
<200. but dx can also dx with aids defining infection
when do you start arv for hiv
if symptomatic or if cd4<500
what is haart
2 nrti's + nnrti/pi
leading cause of death in aids pts
pcp
what cd4 count do you see cmv? mac?
<50
what cd4 is candida seen
<100
what is hiv wasting syndrome
loss of >10% tbw + chronic diarrhea/fever&weakness
hiv prophylaxis -- organism, cd4, and tx
pcp, <200, bactrim. tb, yrly ppd, inh+pyridoxine. mac, <100, azithromycin. toxo, <100, bactrim.
how often to do pneumovax in ic
q5-6y
complications of neonatal hsv
congenital malformation, iugr, chorio, death
what is herpetic whitlow
painful vesicular hsv infection of finger
what is paronychia
infection of skin around cuticle
how long after exposure does syphilitic chancre take
3-4w
mc presentation of 2* syphilis
maculopapular rash
appearance of ulcer in chancroid vs chancre vs granuloma inguinale
chancre is clean raised ulcer. chancroid is shaggy and purulent. GI is coalescing ulcers and nodules
what stds may produce painful inguinal lymphadenoapthy
herpes, chancroid, LV
what is definitive test for syphilis
darkfield microscopy
how to dx syphilis
vdrl/rpr then confirm with fta abs
how to dx chancroid
clinically. r/o syphilis, hsv
is the ulcer produced by LV painful or painless
painless
tx for chancroid
azithromycin, ceftriaxone, or azithromycin
tx for LV
doxy x 21d
mcc cellulitis
saureus, gas
cellulitis: mc bacteria ssociated with -- local trauma, wound/abscess, immersion in water, acute sinusitis
gas, saureus, pseudo/aeromonas/vibrio, hi
when do you get cultures for cellulitis
blood culture if fever, tissue culture if wound
when is cellulitis emergent
orbital involvement
tx for cellulitis
based on hx. can use antistaph pen, or cephalosporin
what is erysipelas
cellulitis confined to dermis and lymphatics caused by gas.
mcc nectrotizing fasciitis
gas, c perfringens
what is lymphadenitis
inflammation of lymph node caused by skin or soft tissue bacterial infection
what is trismus
lockjaw, oft seen in tetanus
how long after infection does tetanus take to occur
1-7d
when do intervene with antitetanus for clean minor wounds? other wounds?
clean: use Td only if <4 doses of Td in past. other: use both Td and TIG if not had >3 doses of Td in past
what types of wounds are at risk for tetanus
if not clean (contamination w dirt/feces/saliva)
if major (deep puncture)
mc type of osteomyleitis in prosthetic joint
coag neg staph
mc type osteomyelitis in diabetic foot
polymicrobial
what is risus sardonicus
grin due to forced contraction of facial mm (tetanus)
what is opisthotonus
arched back (tetanus)
mc osteomyelitis
saeurs, coag neg staph
mc finding in osteomyletis
tenderness over bone
use of esr/crp in osteomyeltis
monitor response to therapy
how long to see xr changes in osteomyelitis? what are they?
periosteal reaction takes 10d
gold std dx for osteomyelitis
needle aspiration of infected bone
empiric tx for osteomylitis
antistaph pen, 1g ceph. add aminoglycoside for gnr
causes of infectious arthritis
hematogenous spread is mc, local extension, trauma, iatrogenic after procedure
mc organisms of acute bacterial artheritis
saureus, then strep.
what organisms seen in arthritis in pt with sickle cell? IC? iv drugs?
pseud, salmonella
what studies should be run on aspirated joint fluid for suspected septic joint
cytology w differential, gm stain, culture, PCR, crystal studies if possible
how is septic arthropathy tx'd
if healthy adult -- antistaph pen or 1g ceph x4w. if sexually active young adult, 3g ceph until clinical improve, then switch to gnr coverage cipro x10d. if IC, use broad spec (glycoside/3g ceph) x3-4w
3 areas of lyme dz in u s
NE, north central, west coast
most common sx of stage 2 lyme
flu/mono prodrome,
dx for lyme dz
ELISA then western blot. unless you see erythema migrans in endemic area
complications of stage 3 lyme
arthritis, chronic cns dz, acrodermatitis chronica (red plaques and nodules on extensor leg)
tx for lyme
if stage 1 and localized to skin only, 10d doxy. if spread beyond, 20-30d. can use macrolide and amox.
tx for rmsf
7d doxy, or chloarmphenicol if CNS sx or pregnant
dx of malaria
blood smear w/ giemsa stain
sx of rabies
bite pain -> prodrome -> encephalitis -> hydrophobia -> paralysis
tx for rabies
wound cleaning, capture animal and send brain for analysis or if animal is not suspicious then observe it for 10d, give both ig (in butt and wound) and vaccine (in arm or thigh)
organs affected in severe leptospirosis
renal/liver fail
what things carry leptospirosis
rodents, farm animals
tx for oral candida
clotrimazole troche 5x/d, nystatin swish and swallow
tx for vaginal candida
miconazole/clotrimazole
what is invasive aspergillosis. who at risk
when fungus invade lung vasculature and cause thrombosis. IC
3 types of aspergillus. dx of aspergillus
allergic, aspergilloma, invasive. cxr (pulmonary consoidation), sputum.
tx of aspergillus
if allergic, avoid exposure. if aspergilloma, and if having hemoptysis may need lobectomy. invasive, need amphotericin
presentation of cryptococcus
cns dz, maybe pulmonary
dx of cryptococcus
latex agglutination and india ink on csf
sx of histo, how u get?
flu like sx, erythema nodosum, hsm, bat/bird drop in ohio/mississippi river
how is crytosporidiosis usually spread
feco oral
what parasite may cause bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, abdominal pain, liver
entamoeba
classic definition of fever of unknown origin
fever >101f, >3w, no dx with 1 week of intensive workup
hyperthermia vs fever
hyperthermia is elevation in temp not caused by hypothalamus, usually due to inability to dissipate heat. therefore antipyretics does not work
when is it important to tx fever
temp >105, pregnancy, cardiopulmonary dz
definition of toxic shock syndrome
needs involvement of 3 organ systems
risk factors for catheter related sepsis
emergent placement, femoral line, prolonged indwelling
do people with catheter sepsis have evidence at site of insertion
only 50%
what is definition of neutropenia
anc <1500, with <500 leading to severely high risk of infection
what to order for neutropenic pt with fever
cxr, culture of everything, cbc, cmp
most common physical sx in ebv
lymphadenopathy, esp of tonsillar and post cervical
whiteheads vs blackheads
closed vs open
mechanism of benzoyl peroxide
drys skin (prevents pore clogging), kills bacteria
mechanism of topical retinoids
cause peeling of skin (prevents pore clogging)
tx for mild to moderate acne vs severe
for severe, do systemic ab and if no response do oral retinoids
difference b/w acne vulgaris and rosacea
1. older population (30-50yo) 2. no comedones 3. can cause rhinophyma (thickened greasy nose)
tx for rocacea
1. avoid alcoholic, hot beverages, reduce stress, avoid extreme temp 2. topical metronidazole
sx of seborrheic dermatotis
scaly pathes with erythema in scalp, hairline, skin folds
tx for seborrheic dermatitis
sunlight, dandruff shampoo, topical ketoconazole, cs if severe
2 types of contact dermatitis, which one more common
irritant >> allergic
pathophys of allergic contact dermatitis
hs4 with sensitization having occurred 1-2w before, dermatitis occurs several hours after reexposure
appearance of contact dermatitis
erythema + papules/vesicles that progresses to crusting/thickening/scaling
tx for pityriasis
antihistamine for pruritus, remits on own
sx of erythema nodosum
painful red subcut nodules on tibia (usually)
causes of erythema multiforme
hsv, drugs, idiopathic
drugs that can cause erythema nodosum
sulfa, penicillin, pheny, allopurinol, barb
4 p's of linchen planus
pruritic, polygonal, purple, papules
age group of pemphigoid
elderly
are warts ever erythematous
no
are warts always hyperkeratotic
usually, but flat wart (verrucua plana) isnt
tx for warts
cryotherapy, salicylic acid, 5-fu cream, excision
how to tx genital warts
podophyllin
3 main organisms causing tinia
trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton
type of rxn in scables
hs4
tx for scabies
permethrin applied to all areas of body, lindane (if age >2)
3 p's of bcc
pearly, pink (telangiectasia), papule
what is marjolin's ulcer
scc arising from chronic wound
who is predisposed to melanoma
fair complexion esp if easily sunburned, reckles, red hair, or with numermous moles
what is dysplastic nevus sndrome
large nevi with indistinct borders and varied color. if fam hx, then 100% of getting melanoma
what are spitz nevi
well circumscribed raised lesion confused with melanoma... but still excise
4 most common site of met for melanoma
lymph, lung, liver, brain
most important prognostic factor for melanoma
depth of invasion
4 stages of decubitus ulcers
1 = intact skin w/ erythema. 3-4 = full thickness skin loss. 4=extension past subcut tissue
how to prevent decubitus ulcers
turning and repositioning q2h
pathophys of psoriasis
abnormal proliferation of skin cells causing defective keratinization
what is auspitz sx
bleeding when scales of psoriasis removed
tx for psoriasis
cs, calcipotriene (works very well, vit D derivative), tazarotene (vit a derivative)
what is vitiligo assoc with
dm, hypot, pernicious anemia, addisons
progression of urticaria
wheals that disappear within hours and then return in another place
what is missing in hereditary angioedema
c1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
life threatening consequence of angioedema
airway obstruction
4 most common medicines associated with drug allergy
beta lactams, aspirin, nsaid, sulfa
what timeframe do drug allergies usually appear
within 1 mo, but usually more than 1 week
2 types of skin rxns to insect sting
1. nonallergic - localized swelling, erythema, pain that subsides in hours 2. allergic - large area of swelling and erythema that can last for several days and can sometimes have systemic sx
mcc 2* htn
renal artery stenosis
alcohol and htn
>2 drinks a day assoc w htn
goals for tx of htn (3)
1. look for 2* cause 2. assess dmg to target organs 3. assessing cv risk
htn tx goals for htn
130/80
what lipoprotein is affected in each of the following familial dyslipidemias: 1, 2a, 2b, 3, 4, 5
cm, ldl, ldl+vldl, idl, vldl, vldl+cm
effect of alchol on cholesterol
increase tg and hdl
effects of propranolol on cholesterol
increase tg (vldl) and lower hdl
effects of thiazide on cholsterol
increase ldl, tg
risk of cad vs hdl level
every 10 hdl = decrease in cad risk by 50%
average TC-to-hdl ratio
5 = average
why would you want to check renal function for dyslipidemia
nephrotic syndrome
when to tx hypertg
>500
tx for tension ha
stress reduction, nsaids,
prophylaxis for cluster
verapamil
which foods associated with migraine trigger
chocolate, cheese, alcohol, tobacco,
CI for ergotamines
CAD, pregnancy, TIA, PVD, sepsis
CI for triptans
uncontrolled htn, basilar or hemiplegic migraines, use of MAOI or SSRI or Li
first line prophylaxis for migraine
tca, bb
what is chronic cough
>3w
likelihood of bacterial URI: rhinorrhea, myalgia, HA, sputum
rhinorrhea, myalgias, HA are more likely with viral
likelihood of fever with cold
uncommon in adults, commin in children
tx for cold
hydration (inhale steam, drink water) loosens secretions and prevents airway obstruction, cough suppressant, nasal decongestent
usual causes of acute bacterial sinusitis
pneumo, hi, anaerobes
pain of sinus may mimic
dental caries (toothache)
pain of sinus worsens with
percussion, bending head down
complications of sinusitis
orbital cellulitis, osteomyelitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis
tx for sinusitis
acute: nsal irrigation, decongestant, antibiotics, avoid antihistamine
chronic: broad spec penicillinase-resistant ab
why are antihistamines avoided in sinusitis
can dry out secretions and worsen congestion
tx for laryngitis
rest voice cuz don't want to form vocal nodules
what is dyspepsia
spectrum of epigastric sx (hearburn, bloating, indigestion)
when should you perform endoscopy for dyspepsia
new onset in >45yo, alarming sx, no resopnse to empiric, recurrence, systemic sx
conservative measures for dyspepsia
avoid alcohol, caffeine, tobacco. rest head of bed, avoid eating before meals. small frequent meals.
sx of gerd
heartburn after meals, exacerbated by lying down
surveillance for berrett's
q3y to look for dysplasia
bronchospopic finding of recurrnet aspiration
lipid laden macrophages
6 stages of tx for gerd
antacid+behavior. h2. ppi. promobility (metaclopramide). combinations. surgery (eg nissen)
causes of acute diarrhea
infection, medications, malabsorption, ischemic bowel, tumor
causes of chronic diarrhea
ibs, ibd, medications, infection, cancer, diverticulitis, malabsorption, postsurgical, endocrine, fecal impaction
4 main flag symptoms for acute diarrhea
1 blood stool 2. systemic sx or fever 3. dehydration 4. NV, pain
things that can be tested from stool
stool wbc, ova&parasides, culture, c diff, giardia
what drugs may cause constipation
anticholinergic, narcotic, CCB!, antacid, laxative
transmission of shigela
feco oral
tx for salmonella
cipro
tx for shigella
bactrim
tx for c jejuni
erythromycin
tx for chonric constipation
find 2* cause, physical activity, high fiber food, fluids
diarrhea from c perfringes -- main sx
crampy abdominal pain within 24 hours of ingestion
what is tegaserod
serotonin agonist for ibs
mc electrolyte abnormality after severe vomit
hypokalemia + metabolic alkalosis
risk factors for hemorrhoids
constipation, preganancy, portal htn, obesity, inactivity
mc location of lumbar disk herniation
l5-s1 or l4-l5
tx options for vetebral compression fx
kyphoplasty
complications of vertebral osteomyelitis
epidural abscess with compromise of blood supply, compression fx
what is scotty dog sign
normal appearance of vertebrae in oblique position. defect in pars interarticularis
spondylosis vs spondylolysis vs sponddylolisthesis
spondylosis = osteoarthritis of vertebrae. spondylolysis = defect in pars interarticularis (oft caused by spondylolisthesis). spondylolisthesis = ant or post slippage of vertebrae.
what nerve largely responsible for hip flexion
l2
what nerve largeley responslile for knee extension
l3
what nerve largely responsible for ankle dorsiflexion
l4/5
what nerve largely responsible for great toe dorsiflexion
l5
what nerve largely responsible for ankle plantar flexion
s1
aggrevating/alleviating of patellofemoral. tx?
climbing/descending stairs. strengthen quads, hamstrings
when is surgery good for meniscus problem
when no arthritic changes associated
what is osteochondritis dissecans
area of necrotic bone + degenerative changes in cartilage
where is pain in patellar tendinitis
anterior knee at inferior pole of patella
ligaments in medial ankle? lateral ankle
deltoid. anterior talofibular (mc injured), calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular
where is pain in patellar tendinitis
anterior knee at inferior pole of patella
ottowa rules for ankle
don't need xr if: pt is able walk steps at injury and at time of injury, no bony tenderness over distal 6 cm of either malleolus
ligaments in medial ankle? lateral ankle
deltoid. anterior talofibular (mc injured), calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular
where is tenderness with supraspinatus tendonitis
subacromial and lateral aspect of shoulder if arm abducted
ottowa rules for ankle
don't need xr if: pt is able walk steps at injury and at time of injury, no bony tenderness over distal 6 cm of either malleolus
tx for lateral epicondylitis
splinting with couterforce
where is tenderness with supraspinatus tendonitis
subacromial and lateral aspect of shoulder if arm abducted
tx for lateral epicondylitis
splinting with couterforce
which mucle group assoc with lateral vs medial epicondylitis
extensor vs flexor
risk factors for carpal tunnel
hypothyroid, dm, repetitive use, pregnancy, trauma/fx wrist
ddx of hand numbness
carpal tunnel, cervical radiculopathy, peripheral neuropathy, median nerve compression
first line tx for carpal tunnel
nsaid + wrist splint
bouchard vs heberden node
bouchard = pip. heberden = dip
where should cane be held for leg pain
opposite hand
type 1 vs type 2 primary osteoporosis
type 1 = postmenopausal, excess loss of trabecular bone, vertebral. type 2 = elderly, equal cortical and trabecular, femoral.
mechanism of bisphosophnates
decrease osteoclastic activity by binding to hydroxyapatite
PROOF trial
calcitonin decreases vertebral fx by 40%, but no effect at hip
what type of age related macular degen most common? most severe? what does ranibizumab do
dry. wet. reduces rate of vision loss due to wet armd
risk factors for glaucoma
age>50, afam, asian/eskimo, famhx, eye trauma, steroids
physical sx of closed angle glaucoma
NV, HA, dilated fixed pupil
dx of glaucoma
tonometry, fundoscopic exam, gonioscopy, visual field testing
what medicines good for glaucoma
bb, alpha agonist, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, prostaglandin
risk factors for cataract
old age, smoking, steroid, UV, dm, trauma, metabolic dz
sx of scleritis
pain with palpation, deep pain
classic finding of herpes simplex keratitis
dendrite on cornea with fluorescein staining
sx of anterior uveitis
injection around cornea, blurry vision, pain, photophobia, constricted pupil
mc of bacterial conjunctivitis
pneumococcus, then gn
trachoma vs inclusion conjunctivitis of chlam
trachoma can cause blindness, caused by different subtypes
what is chemosis
buildup of fluid under bulbar conjunctiva
tx for bacterial conjunctivitis
broad spec + culture, if hyperacute rmr to think of gonoccocus
what is def of mild to mod OSA? tx?
<20 apnea episodes, tx conservatively w/ weight loss, avoid things that will reduce airway tone eg alcohol, sedatives
why does systemic htn occur in OSA
increase in sympathetic tone
what is exostoses
bony outgrowth of external auditory canal due to repititve exposure to cold water
how long does perf'd TM take to heal on its own
6w
what is presbycusis
degeneration of sensory cells in cochlea in elderly
decreased perception of sound with response to increasing voluem vs difficulty with high frequency and word deciphering with no response to increasing volume
conductive vs sensineural
what medicines can favor urinary incontinence
diuretics, anticholergics/adrenergics cause urinary retention, bb diminish sphincter tone, ccb/narcotics decrease detrusor contraction
what is reflex incontinence
inability to sense need to urinate due to spinal cord injury
what is normal postvoid residual volume
<50ml
what is chronic fatigue syndrome
fatigue >6mo w/o medical/psychiatric d/o
what tests are available for evaluation of ED
lipid panel, testosterone lvl, prolactin lvl, thyroid, vascular testing (u/s, arteriography)
what vaccine to avoid if egg allergy
flu
how do you assess quality of cxr
1. assess penetration (visible intervertebral spaces and outline of vertebrae should be seen through heart) 2. assess inspiratory effort (should see 9 post ribs above diaphragm) 3. assess rotation (sternum should bisect clavicles)
when you place ET tube, how do you know it's right spot in xr
4-6 cm above tracheal carina
how do you assess central line placement by xr
tip should be above RA
how do you know which ribs are which on pa xr
on pa cxr, ant ribs are angle downward
what type of xr needs to be ordered to evaluate abd perf
either upright (free air under diaphragm), or if too sick than lat decubitus
mobitz 1 vs 2
1 -- progressive lengthing until drop. 2 = nonconduction of p waves in some ratio
what is central line good for
placement of catheters into heart, transvenous pacing, emergency dialysis, emergency iv meds or meds that cause problems if given peripherally, high volumes
3 sites for central line
IJ, subclavian, femoral
what are arterial lines used for
bp monitoring, frequent abg
when doing tube feeding, how often should they be checked? when to hold them?
q4h. if residual > 150ml
how is peg tube inserted
1. with endoscope through mouth 2. open abdominal incision
are cyclines static or cidal? macrolides
both static
what condition may pyrazinamide precip
hyperuricemia -> gout
spectrum of tmp/smx
uti, pcp, shigella/salmonella
4 types of breath sounds
1. vesicular (soft and low pitch, in most lung fields, during inspiration and some of expiration) 2. bronchial (loud, high pitch, in central areas, mostly in expiration, suggest consolidation if heard peripherally) 3. bronchovesicular sounds 4. adventitious breath sounds (crackles, wheezes, rhonchi)
how to grade muscle strength
0 = no contraction. 4 = weak against some resistance. 3 = weak against ANY resistance. 2 = weak against gravity. 1 = ANY evidence of contraction
definition of oliguria
<400mL/day, <15mL/hr
forward vs backward heart failure
forward is sx due to not having enough CO (fatigue, lethargy, hypotension), backward failure is sx due to congestion due to inability to pump out
what drug can be used to lower mortality in chf if cannot use acei/arb
hydralzine+nitrate (bidil), bb
mc aortic stenosis in pts <30 vs >30
congenital bicuspid valve vs degenerative calcific stenosis
valve replacement vs balloon valvuloplasty for as
valvuloplasty is only temporary
causes of AFib
I SMART CHAP - inflammatory, surgery, medications, atherosclerosis, rheumatic, thyrotoxis, CHD, HTN, alcohol, pulmonary dz
causes of AFib
I SMART CHAP - inflammatory, surgery, medications, atherosclerosis, rheumatic, thyrotoxis, CHD, HTN, alcohol, pulmonary dz
4 major goals of AFib
stabilization, rate control, rhythm conversion, anticoagulation
4 major goals of AFib
stabilization, rate control, rhythm conversion, anticoagulation
how to tx hemodynamically unstable AFib
DC cardioversion
how to tx hemodynamically unstable AFib
DC cardioversion
what do you have to check before cardioverting AFib
is there a clot in atrium? if less than 48h of AFib, then don't need to worry
what do you have to check before cardioverting AFib
is there a clot in atrium? if less than 48h of AFib, then don't need to worry
prognostic factors for refractoriness of AFib
left atrial dilitation (>4.5cm), duration of AFib
prognostic factors for refractoriness of AFib
left atrial dilitation (>4.5cm), duration of AFib
risk reduction of stroke with warfarin
2/3
when should an echocardiogram be ordered based on auscultation of a murmur
if cardiac sx, if continuous systolic or if > 3/6, or if diastolic
what are benign murmurs
midsystolic <3/6
what sx are assoc w neurogenic syncope
lightheadedness, nausea, diaphoresis, blurred vision
synonym for neurocardiogenic syncope
vasovagal
what common drug used to tx acs is ci in cocaine induced mi
bb
what is pseudoclaudication
spinal stenosis - pain on standing that also occurs with walking, and relieved by sitting
when to do bariatric surgery
>40 bmi, cannot maintain weight loss and have comorbidity
how to distinguish bw vtach and wpw + af conducting to ventricles
wpw+af will have irregular
why is dig, bb, cardiosuppressive ccb a good tx for wpw
trick q! not good. cuz they block av node, which gives more leeway to the accessory node. use procainamde or ibulitide instead
when do you do endoscopy for new onset dyspepsia
>45yo, or if alarm sx, failure to respond to empirics
2 complications of pud
perforation/hemorrhage, gastric outlet obstruction (vomit+weight loss w/o distention)
why does increased or decreased sodium cause neurologic sx
cerebral edema or cerebral shrinkage
3 categories of hyponatremia
hypertonic, normotonic, hypotonic
how to measure tonicity of blood
osmolality is a very good predictor of tonicity
mechanism of hypertonic hyponatremia
some osmotically active agent is added to ECF that draws water out and dilutes sodium.Usually GLUCOSE (1.6 change in sodium for every 100 glucose), or MANNITOL (often seen post-TURP)
mechanism of hypotonic hyponatremia. how much free water can kidney usually clear per day. therefore what can cause it?
ALWAYS occurs when free water is added -- so either impaired free water excretion or free water addition. 18L/day. 1. Primary sodium loss leading to secondary water gain (from ICF) -- sweating, renal losses, GI loss. 2. Primary water gain -- polydipsia, renal insufficiency, adh. 3. Primary sodium gain but with greater water gain (HF, cirrhosis, nephrotic)
how to workup hypotonic hyponatremia
divide by volume status. if hypovolemic, is kidney working correctly (get urine sodium). if hypervolemic, is kidney working correctly, what's the 2* cause (eg chf, etc). if euvolemic, get a urine osmolarity cuz kidneys should be trying to make dilute urine, to correct hyponatremia. if kidneys not making dilute urine, check for hypoT and adrenal insufficiency cuz that can cuase water retention. once these ruled out, suspect siadh
how fast can u correct chronic hyponatremia
0.5-1 mEq/h
why can hyponatremia occur postop or while in pain
SIADH
definition of hyponatremia
<135
complications of aortic dissection
intimal flap that occludes branching vessels, rupture into pericardial sac or pleural space, severe aortic regurg
mechanism of thrombolytics/anticoagulation in aortic dissection
WTF DO NOT DO
does nitrate relieve pain of aortic dissection
no
where are most aortic dissections located
ascending aorta
next step in mgmt for aortic dissection
bb to lower pulse pressure, then imaging to see if it's type a or b. A needs surgery
when do surgery for aaa
>5.5cm or if >.5cm/yr expansion
if an aids pt has thrush with unknown cd4, what is likely cd4
<250
tx for pcp
tmp/smx + steroids when pao2 < 70 or aa gradient > 35
opportunistic pneumonia with increased ldh is
pcp. <220 ldh r/o pcp
diffuse vs patchy infiltrates in aids
diffuse - tb, pcp, histo. patchy - tb, cryptococcus
when to prophylax pcp? toxo? mac?
cd4<200, tmpsmx. <100, tmpsmx. <50 azithromycin
claudication abi vs critical limb ischemia
.4-.9
what is pentoxifylline
increases erythrocyte elasticity, supposedly helps in pad
what is cilostazol
pde inhibitor, vasodilatory and antiplatelet that helps with pad
6 p's of acute limb arterial occlusion
pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, poikilothermia, paralysis
5 things that thiazides can increase/decrease
hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyperuricemia, hyperlipidemia, hypercalcemia
hypertensive emergency vs hypertensive urgency vs crisis
emergency has complications, urgency doesn't. both are crises
bp reduction goal in htn emergency
reduce map by 25% or less, or to diastolic of 100-110 over few hrs
ast:alt in alcohol
ast>alt
what drug can tx chronic hep b
lamivudine
toxic dose of acetaminophen
10g
when should n acetylcysteine be started for how long for tylenol od
within 10 hours, continued for 3d
effect of TRH on prolactin
stimulates prolactin
what is brugada syndrome
ion channel dysfunction, common cause of sudden death, ekg changes
how long does TSH take to respond to thyroid hormoen replacement
8w
tx for hep c
alpha interferon and ribavirin
utility of saag gradient
if >1.1, then portal htn. if <1.1, then not.
dx of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
>250 pmns on paracentesis or if + culture
what relieves pain of pancreatitis
sitting up and bending forward
tx for pancreatitis
npo, narcotics, ivf +/- suction
what is a phlegmon
solid mass of inflamed pancreas with patchy necrosis, complication of pancreatitis
mcc early death in pancreatitis
hypovolemic shock from third spacing
how to dx choledocholithiasis
u/s
abd pain + abd mass + high amylase in pt w prev pancreatitis
pseudocyst
mechanism of syncope
GLOBAL cerebral hypoperfusion
what types of neurologic dz are most assoc w syncope
dysautonomia -- parkinsonism, diabetes
major risk factors, complication and finding of aortoenteric fistula
surgery/gi bleed. hemorrhage, hypotension
mcc high blood pressure in left arm vs right
subclavian atherosclerosis. NOT COARC CUZ THAT WOULD INCREASE R>L
4 categories of asthma
intermittent, persistent: mild, mod, severe
intermittent vs mild persistent asthma
sx or need rescue <2/wk, wake up <2/mo = intermittent. both have normal pfts
mild vs mod persistent asthma
mod: daily sx, weekly wake up. mild has normal pfts.
risky sex + fever + negative cultures + pustules + tampon usage
disseminated gonococcus! NOT TSS CUZ TSS DUN HAVE PUSTULES
why do you get hypotension with severe acidosis
tachycardia can result in inefficient pumping with reduces CO (inefficient because poor response to epi and arrythmias)
how do you dx cll/sll
flow cytometry
CV, eye, mental, lung, GI findings of opioid intoxication
bradycardia+hypotension (due to histamine). mioisis. lethargy. bradypnea. hypoactive BS.
bradypnea vs hypopnea.
brady = slow rate. hypo = low amplitude of breathing, shawllow
what type of lung cancer is siadh assos cw
small cell
risk factors for hepatic angiosarcoma
VAT - vinyl chloride, arsenic, thorotrast
goals for treating benign intracranial htn
1. prevent vision loss 2. reduce pressure 3. symptomatic
how to tx pseudotumor cerebri
acetazolemide, lp if infrequent. surgery is final option.cs if acute loss of vision.
mechanism of acetazolemide in intracranial htn
inhibits carbonic anhydrase which reduces csf production
would you see pleural plaques in bronchogenic carcinoma
yes you could
ddx for colitis
ischemia, infectious (c diff, e coli, sal/shig, campy), radiation, ibd
age group of ibd
young (15-25) nand old (60-70)
wall involved uc vs crohns
mucosa vs transmural
surgery for crohn vs uc
curative for uc, but only symptomatic for crohns
what is infleximab
anti tnf ab
screning for uc pts
annual or q2y colonscopy
which ibd is associated more with arthritis
crohn
why are gallstones more common in crohns
kills the ileum and prevents bile absorption
how can a hypervolemic pt get prerenal failure
third spacing, congestion, etc
how is postrenal failure usually dx'd
hydronephrosis on renal us
how can fena be obscured in chf pt with prerenal failure
diuretic use can increase sodium excretion
what are the indications for dialysis in akd
fluid overload (eg pulmonary edema), metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, uremia (pericarditis), severe hyperphosphatemia
how do you tx severe hyperkalemia
give calcium, then give d50 + 10u insulin or beta agonist or bicarb. long term can do furosemide, kayexalate, or dialysis.
how to distinguish rub of pericarditis from murmur
sometimes hard, need ekg
ekg in pericarditis
diffuse st elevation, sinus tachy, pr segment depression
what are the 11 criteria for SLE
IM DAMN SHARP - immunologic, mucositis, discoid, ana, malar rash, neurologic, serositis (incl pericarditis), arthritis, renal, photosensitivity
what study to do for probable nephritic syndrome as evidenced by h&p, ua
urine microscopy for sediment examination
how can you tell from urine microscopy whether hematuria is glomerular in origin
dysmorphic/fragmented rbcs, or rbc casts
what nephritic dz is low complement
SLE, MPGN, poststreptococcal, postinfectious, cryoglobulin
triad of churg strauss
granuloma, asthma, eosinophilia
which dz have + panca
churg strauss, pan
nephritic dz -- what two categories of dz have immune complex deposition without anti-gbm or anca
complement mediated and antibody mediated
when is topical cs not first line for dermatitis
if on face, neck, or intertriginous areas (suscep to cs atrophy)
acute erythema nodosum + arthritis. what if + fever + hilar LAD
acute sarcoid. lofgrens syndrome (variant of sarcoid)
ddx of thickened and dystrophic nails
psoriasis, pad, lichen planus, atopic dermatitis, onychomycosis
seasonal variation of seborrheic dermatitis
improves in summer, worse in winter/fall
which fungus has spaghetti and meatballs
tinea versicolor
tx options for warts
salicylic acid, cryotherapy (care when near sensitive areas incl nail bed). topical imiquimod (not approved), candida ag injection (not approved)
activities of daily living vs instrumental activities of daily living
adl = basic things like toileting, eating, dressing. can't live alone. iadl = shopping, finances, etc. may live alone but need some mgmt
nsaids and hypertension
decrease sodium excretion and contribute to htn
when is stage 1 htn goals changed
dm2, renal failure
what is scleroderma renal crisis, how to tx
sudden increase in renin, tx with short acting acei, like captopril
what are 2 categories of thrombocytopenia. what is the ddx for both
BM vs non-BM. BM will have depression of other cell lines. DDx for non-bm = itp/hit/ttp/hus, sepsis, ***hiv, sle***, dic, hypersplenism
pentad for ttp
fever, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, neurologic sx, renal sx
what grade does hsil correspond to. what is mgmt?
cin2/3. either 1) pap + endocervical curettage q6mo x3 (all have to be -) 2) pap + hpv testing q6mo x3
why can't you use ampicillin for cap? cipro?
pneomococcus resist + no atypical coverage. no atypical or strep coverage.
what type of pneumonia clinda good for
aspiration
another name for detrusor instability
urge incontinence
how can pain cause urinary retention
in pt with bph, bladder can't generate enough force to pass urine, so need valsalva. if pain with valsalva, then this is impaired
what is necrolytic migratory syndrome
erythematous blisters often on butt that is assoc w glucagonoma
bronchovascular markings: emphysema vs chronic bronchitis
emphysema has decreased marks whereas brochitis has increased markings
panacinar vs centriacinar emphysema
panacinar = antitrypsin. centriacinar = copd
dlco: emphysema vs chronic bronchitis
emphysema is decreased, whereas chronic bronchitis is nl
how much bronchodilator response needed to dx asthma
>12% and >200cc
dlco in asthma
can be nl or increased
+ HBsAg and + HBV DNA means
chronic infection
how to tx chronic hbv
3tc or interferon IF PERSISTENTLY ELEVATED ALT
proximal muscle weakness + tremor + anxiety + weight loss
hyperthyroidism
how to tx solitary brain met w/ controlled extracranial dz
surgical resection followed by whole brain radiation
how to tx multiple brain met
palliative whole brain radiation
causes of early renal transplant dysfunction
ureteral obstruction, acute rejection, cyclosporine toxicity, vascular obstruction, ATN
when is the odds ratio equal to the risk in a study
when the dz is rare and it's a case control study
best test to dx pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
fecal elastase
what % of ppl presenting w nephrotic syndrome have systemic dz
1/3
how to manage edema of nephrotic syndrome
salt restrict + diuretics (oft large doses cuz they are protein bound) + protein restrict (causes greater proteinuria) + acei
life expectancy for dm + esrd
<2y
albumin/cr ratio
>100 = microalbuminuria
migratory arthralgia + tenosynovitis (usually wrist and hands) + pustular skin lesions that progresses to mono/oligoarthritis
gonococcal arthritis
how to distinguish arthritis from inflammatory conditions near joint
painful limitation of motion in all planes during active and passive movement
wbc count in septic arthritis
>100000
birefringence of gout
negative
why do false negatives occur when trying to dx septic arthritis
oft fastidious organisms, so can do blood cultures or skin cultures of lesions.
what is chondrocalcinosis, what arthritis is it asoc with
linear calcium deposits in joint cartilage. pseudogout
mcc nongonoccocal septic arthritis
gp organisms, oft saureus
tx for acutely swollen and red joint with numerous PMNs and leukocytes + few negatively birefringent crystals
abx (still suspicious for infection)
suspect what if peripheral ischemia after any invasive procedure involving artery? what lab findings
cholesterol emboli, urinary eosinophilia
how to tell between mobitz 2 and 3rd degree av block on ekg
mobitz 2 will have a regular interval b/w p wave and qrs, just some will be dropped
ekg findings of lbbb vs rbbb
lbbb=large R in 1,vL,v6
rbbb = small Q, tall R in 1. small R, small S in v6
abi >1.3 indicates
calcification
ekg change in hypokalemia
inverted t, large u wave,
ekg finding in dig tox
atrial tach w variable block
sx of thoracic duct obstruction
lymphedema
htn and OCP mechanism
OCP can cause HTN by increased angiotensinogen or RAAS involvement
ddx of decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
CML, hypophosphatemia, PNH
what is spikes method for bad news
set up, patient's perception, invitation (how much they want to know), give KNOWLEDGE, emotions, summary/strategy
does sunscreen protect against melanoma
no evidence to suggest, but protects against scc
3 types of parapneumonic effusions, how to dx, how to tx each type
uncomplicated, complicated (pus, gpc's, or pleural fluid pH <7), empyema. abx, abx + tube, abx+complete drainage+reexpansion
mechanisms of metoclopramide
d2 antagonist, muscarinic agonist
indications for tube thoracostomy for parapneumonic effusion
<7.0 ph, gluc < 60, ldh >1000.... correlate highly with either complicated or empyema. also tx if loculations or empyema seen
what to give babies born to mothers with active hbv
hbig and vaccine
how to differentiate overflow incontence vs urge incontinence via labs
overflow will have high postresiduals
ekg changes in PE
classically s1q3t3, which indicates acute cor pulmonale with RAD
mnemonic to remember lbbb vs rbbb
WiLLiaM MaRRoW
LBBB - W in V1, M in V6
RBBB - M in V1, W in V1
active vs passive mvmt and arthritis
will have pain with both in arthritis, only active pain with parajoint things
mcc viral arthritis
hbv**, hcv, rubella, parvovirus
arthritis + sausage digits
psoriatic arthritis or reactive arthritis
how many joints have to be affected in RA
at least 3
bannworth syndrome
lyme dz with radicular pain, csf pleocytosis
how do you tx 2* or 3* lyme dz
iv abx like ceftriaxone
when does bell's palsy occur in lyme dz
2* dz
how to see posterior wall infarct on ekg
v1-v2 st depression
for a stemi, fibrinolytics vs pct
prefer pct. do either if <12h. but goal is <90min. if don't have facility to do pct, and can't transfer w/in 2 h, do fibrinolytics unless CI, >12h with residual st elevation or complication, s/p CABG, cardiogenic shock (sbp <100 + pulmonary edema)
can you use fibrinolytics in nstemi
no
name a type of AV reentrant tachycardia
wpw
how to distinguish AVNRT and AVRT on ekg
AVRT has a short RP segment cuz the retrograde pathway is fast, and you see atrial activity in ST segment. AVNRT either has no p waves, or small deflection. BOTH ARE REGULAR UNLIKE AFIB
mcc multifocal atrial tachycardia
illness
what dose of bb to use in heart failure
raise dose until bp "appropriately low"
can you have as and physiologically split s2
unlikely cuz as aortic valve stiffens you get loss of aortic component of s2
significance of ejection click and as
stenosis is at valvular level and there is mobility to valve
thyroid hormone requirements during pregnancy
goes up by 30%
iodine uptake in thyroiditis
decreased
lab abnormal in paget dz
alp
cutoff for osteoporosis
2.5
when do you start bisphosphonate for chronic cs therapy
if prednisone >5 qd or equivalent used >3 mo or if t score < -1
when to do dexa, 5 major risk factors for osteoporosis (that u use)
65 or <55 if 1+ risk fx. fx as adult, fragility fx in 1st deg relative, smoking, low body weight, cs > 3mo
name some associations (dz) with chronic hcv
cryoglobulinemia (that can lead to glomerulonephritis), PCT, ITP, autoimmune dz, lichen planus
trigeminal neuralgia is assoc w what dz
ms
tx for febrile neutropenia
admit, cultures, BS abx
tx for hairy cell
purine analogs (cladribine, pentostatin)
sudden loss of vision + hard to visualize fundus using ophthalmoscope + floating debris
vitreous hemorrhage
sudden painless loss of vision + htn + disk swelling + venous dilation
central retinal vein occlusion
by when should common lower back pain resolve
4-6w
normal daily intake of iron, how much absorbed
15, 1mg
iron studies in sideroblastic anemia
increased iron and ferritin and percent sat
how to tx ida, how long to take. adverse effect of iv form
po iron 325mg bid, 6 weeks. anaphylaxis risk w iv
what are diverticula histologically
pseudodiverticula through weakness in muscle lining
llq pain + peritoneal sx + abd pain
acute diverticulitis
how to xr help in pt with diverticulitis
help to identify pts with pneumoperitoneum
how to dx diverticulitis, what are findings
ct. pericolic fat stranding, bowel wall thickening, peridiverticular abscess
what type of abx coverage needed for diverticulosis
abdominal gnrs + anaerobes (tmpsmx or cipro+metro or clinda+gent)
when should pt be considered for elective surgery to prevent complications of diverticulitis
2+ episodes of diverticulitis
do you need to have fever in neutropenic pt to suspect sepsis
ANY CLINICAL DETERORIATION
what to cover for neutropenic fever
gnr incl pseudomonas, gp (esp if catheter)
when can you leave a line in during suspected sepsis
alwyas remove if nontunneled or implanted. if permanent, then what is condition of pt? if erythema on subcut,then remove. if not, then put abx into catheter.
what to suspect when >7d of fever despite bs abx in neutropenic fever
fungus
what is acute chest dyndrome
vasoocclusive crisis in lungs usually caused by infection
tx for vasoocclusive crisis in sickle cell
hydration, o2, pain control. if chest syndrome, then use empiric abx as well. transfusion can be used.
what agents can increase hemoglobin f
hydroxyurea, decitabine
brudzinski vs kernig
leg flexion on passive neck flexion vs pain on passive knee flexion
when can you do lp w/o ct beforehand
if no papilledema, focal neurologic sx, ams
general empiric therapy of meningitis
3g ceph + vanc
is any prophylaxis needed for neisseria meningitis in regular person
if they have it then give rifampin bid x2d for close contacts
hallmark csf finding in tb meningitis
fall of csf glucose at 48h
osler nodes vs janeway lesions vs roth spots, what are the seen in
ie. tender nodules on fingers or toes. painless macules on palms and soles. hemorrhagic retinal lesions with WHITE CENTERS
what to do for suspected endocarditis
serial blood cx (3x over 2-3h acutely, 3x over 24h if subacute)
how long to tx endocarditis
4-6w
how to tx hacek endocarditis
ceftriaxone
when should you do surgery for endocarditis
intractable chf, embolic episode, or >10mm vegetation indicating high risk of embolism, uncontrolled infection, no effective antimicrobial tx (fungal), prosthetic endocarditis
how, when? to prophylax endocarditis
amox. prosthetic valve, previous ie, chd, cardiac transplant w/ valve regurg
what area of lung does primary tb affect? reactivation?
middle & lower. upper.
what is a rasmussen aneurysm
rupture of dilated vessel in tb
mc sites of extrapulmonary tb
lymph > pleura > GU > bone/joints > meninges > peritoneum
cutoff's for ppd test
5 mm if HIV, close contact of TB, cxr findings of TB. 10 if IC or other risk factors. 15 otherwise
tx for active TB
2 month INH + rifampin + pyrazinamide
how much fluid in pericardium does it take to produce tamponade
if acute, then 200ml. if chronic then 2000ml
ekg finding of cardiac tamponade
low voltage, electrical alternans
do you see pulsus paradoxicus in constrictive pericarditis
no
how do you distinguish bw restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis
mri, endomyocardial biopsy
what is kussmaul sx? what is it seen in
fail to DECREASE JVD on inspiration. constrictive pericarditis
what imemdiate supportive care is available for tamponade right before pericardiocentesis
fluids
neurological findings of neurosyphilis
tabes dorsalis, argyll robertson or other crania nerve, vasculitis leading to ischemia, dementia
tx for syphilis
if 1* or 2*, then single dose of IM penicillin. if latent, then 3x IM penicillin qweek. if 3*, IV penicillin for 10-14d
how to monitor response to tx for syphilis
4-fold drop in titers within 3 mo, and negative titer after 1 yr
indications for lp to r/o neurosyphilis
if symptomatic, or if hiv+ and cd4 <350 or rpr > 1:32
when to start o2 in copd
pao2<55
expiratory vs inspiratory wheezing
inspiratory wheezes usually associated with upper airway (negative airway compression occurs during inspiration). expiratory wheezes usually associated with lower airways (negative airway compression occurs during expiration)
is barium study diagnostic for achalasia
pseudoachalasia can occur with malignancy
best dx test for ibd
colonoscopy/endoscopy
how to tx acute diverticulitis
empiric abx that covers anaerobes
what drug is useful for diarrhea predominant ibs
loperamide
no gb wall thicken + no pericholecystic fluid + dilated bile duct... is this cholangitis or cholecystitis
cholangitis
what supportive measure is critical for acute pancratitis
fluids
how to tx gallstone pancreatitis
urgent ercp
most common reason for decreasing h&h in stable pt after ugib
redistribution of fluid into vascular space
what do you suspect when decompensation in context of cirrhosis
sbp
how to prophylax bleeding from esophageal varices if cirrhosis
bb
how to distinguish appropriate vs inappropriate erythrocytosis
look at o2 sat
what is seen on blood smear of autoimmune hemolytic anemia
microspherocytes
how to tx autoimmune hemolytic anemia
cs
what is mgus
ig spike w/o mm sx, <10% plasma cells in bm
mgmt for drug fever
if on tail end of drug, stop it, should go away by 3d. if not, then sub with another drug class
hwo is septic shock diff fromsevere sepsis
refractory to fluids
how to prophylax flu in IC
deactivated viral vaccine + ostelvamir
what drugs fight both flu a & b? which one ci in asthma
ostelmivir and zanamivir. zanamivir is ci
effect of pt positioning and ventilator assoc pna
45 degreee angle is best
which organisms need special coverage in hospital assoc pneumonia
mrsa, x2 coverage of pseudomanos
does bcg vaccine change interpretation of ppd
no
empiric tx for hospitalized cap pt on general floor
iv quinolone or iv blactam+po macrolide/doxy
empiric tx for hospitalized cap pt on icu
iv blactam + iv macro/quinolone
sx of legionellosis, how to tx
pneumonia, hyponatremia, azotemia, elevated lfts/ck. macro + bb if high risk
do you need predental abx prophylaxis if have mild regurg
no
red flags for HA
rapidly increasing freq, dizziness or incoordination, focal neurologic sx, wake from sleep
sx of west nile
like polio-- muscle weakness and flaccid paralysis
empiric meningitis tx
vanc, amp, ceftriaxone
eye findings of locked in syndrome
vertical movement or blinking are only possible things
hallmark of ruptured av malformation in brain
intracranial hemorrhage + sah
how to r/o sah
lp for xanthochromic bloo
what areas affected by lynch syndrome
colon, endometrium, ovary, stomach, small intestine, hepatobiliary
what is isolated systolic htn, pathophys
sbp>140, dbp<90 usually in elderly. calcified vessels.
is alcohol a risk factor for htn
yes
best tx for frostbit
rapid rewarming with warm water. do not debride right away
how to work up conjugated bilirubinemia
is it intra or extra hepatic? (look at liver enzymes -- if aminotransferase elevation then hepatocellular. if alp, then is it intrahepatic obstruction or extrahepatic (do u/s or ct)
2 types of metabolic alkalosis
saline responsive (urine cl < 20) and saline resistent. saline responsive is due to gi loss, vomiting, or diuretics. can tx by giving ns fluids
does acute intermittent porphoria have photo
no
traid of niacin deficiency
dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea
dx of gc vs chlam urethritis
gc is usually on gram stain and is PURULENT. chlam is not on gram stain (cytoplasmic inclusion), has MUCOPURULENT
first line for cocaine mi
benzo, aspirin, nitrate
skin lesions with blasto
either ulcerations or verracuous (warty, violaceous, or papulopustular)
which systemic fungi can have skin findings
blasto, coccidiodes, aspergillosis
skin lesion of coccidioides
erythema multiforme/nodosum
how to tx acute hypercalcemia
hydration + loops
virchow's triad
endothelial injury, hypercoagulability, stasis
cause of death in PE
progressive RHF
heart sounds in PE
loud s2
westermark sign
congested central pulmonary artery with decreased pulmonary vascularity seen in cxr of pe
what is aggressive tx for pe? who gets it?
thromboylysis/surgerical embolectomy if RHF or hypotension. otherwise anticoagulation -- goal is to prevent thrombus extension or recurrence
how long to anticoagulate pe
depends on risk of recurrence. if provoked (i.e. trauma/surgery) of calf/UE, then 3 mo. if provoked LE , 6 mo. if unprovoked, then controversial
mc hereditary thrombophilia
factor v leidin
how to tx dvt if anticoagulation is ci
ivc filter
blood streaked purulent sputum vs chronic copious sputum vs hemoptysis + acute pleuritic chest paina nd dyspnea
bronchitis, bronchiectasis, pe
what is massive hemoptysis? tx>
>100mL. need to maintain airway, keep affected side in dependent position, suppress cough
which lung cancers are central? peripheral?
small cell, scc. adeno, large cell.
which lung cancer most likely to cavitate
scc
which lung cancer mets early
adenocarcinoma
which lung cancer mets to cns/bones/adrenal? cns/mediastinum?
adenocarcinoma. large cell (look for svc syndrome/hoarseness)
limited stage vs extensive stage lung cancer
ways to describe sclc. if one hemithorax vs distant met/contra lung.
tx modalities for lung cancer
sclc is usually radio/chemo. nsclc is usually resection/radio
workup for solitary pulmonary nodule
"popcorn"/"bullseye" = benign. if young age and nonsmoker, do serial chest ct, is benign if no growth after 2y (risk of malig <2%). lesions > 2.5 cm are risky
how you know when sputum is good quality
>25 pmns, <10 epithelial cells
aspiration pneumonitis vs aspiration pneumonia
pneumonitis also produces infiltrate, but resolves within 2d.
how to tell b/w adrenal crisis vs septic shock
hypoglycemia in adrenal crisis, hypotension refractory to pressors
definition of adrenal insufficiency in acutely ill pt
AM cortisol <5
in chronic steroid use, how to prophylax adrenal crisis before surgery
stress dose before surgery
location of dz: primary sclerosing cholangitis vs primary biliary cirrhosis
larger intra/extrahepatic ducts vs smaller intrahepatic bile ducts
work if abd u/s shows extrahepatic bile duct dilation w/o stones
do ct/ercp to detect occult stones/strictrictures & exclude malignancy
first step in evaluation of microscopic hematuria
is it glomerular or nonglomerular (glomerular = dysmorphic erythrocytes)
what is max tolerable increase in cr afte radding acei
30%
hallmark sign of atheroembolic acute renal failure
reticular rash
how to differentiate causes of renal failure in cirrhotic
give them volume to exlude prerenal. then what's left is hepatorenal, ischemic tubular injury, sepsis-induced AKD
name some sx of tumor lysis syndrome
cell breakdown -> hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia leading to akd
which fungi cause lung dz
PNA: histo, blasto, coccidio
cavity: aspergillus
progression of iron tox
gi sx within 30min-6h, then hepatotox
how does amyloid affect: kidney, GI tract, heart, msk, nervous sx
nephrotic syndrome, hepatomeglay, cardiomyopathy, pseudohypertrophy, peripheral neuropathy
htn in child + bruit at cva + string of beads angiogram
fibromuscular dysplasia
how to give tetanus shot as adult
Td q10 y. TdaP once under age 65 as booster.
tx for 2* spontaneous ptx
immediate thoracostomy cuz 2* dz is more serious cuz of underlying lung compromise
how does crest syndrome affect lungs
pulm htn
how do you know when pleural fluid is malignant
hx, rbc >100k, no trauma or infarction, lymphocytic exudate
lights criteria
effusion = exudative. plerual protein:serum >.5|ldh ratio >.6|LDH > 2/3 serum
what is poor prognosis for malignant pleural fluid
ph < 7.3|glucose<60 means <6mo survival
when do you tx acute bronchitis with abx
copd
ci for lung volume reduction
fev pred <20, homogenous emphysema, dlco <20, non upper lobe emphysema or high exercise capacity
bibasilar end inspiratory dry crackles like velcro + clubbing
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
how to prophylax dvt in cancer pt
use lmwh rather than warfarin
mc cancer after tx'ing hodgkins w radiatio
breast
management of supraclavicular lad
if <2cm, monitor 3mo. if >2cm, excision (rather than needle biopsy cuz will get preserved architecture)
do ppl with cholangiocarcinoma have dilation of cbd?
no intrahepatic ducts only
masectomy vs breast conserving surgery with radiation and lumpectomy in early stage breast cancer
equal outcome
sclc: rad vs chemo vs surg
surg is best, but only for stage 1 local. rad is also very local and offers limited benefit.
xr appearance of malig solitary pulm nodules
spiculated margins, >2.5, little-no calcification
dysplasia seen on colonoscopy in uc
do colectomy cuz 25% risk of progression
tx widespread sclc vs squamous nsclc
chemo+brain radiation vs hospice
4 mc locations pseudogout
knee meniscus, symphisis pubis, glenoid/acetabulum, triangular cartilage of wrist
impotence + fatigue + abnormal lfts + arthropathy, what test to order
iron studies
cpk: polymyositis vs pmr
elevated in polymyositis
sulfonylurea and renal function
can accumulate in renal insuffiency
quartad of thyroid storm
tachycardia, fever, agitation/delirium/psychosis, vomiting/diarrhea
indications for subtotal thyroidectomy
large goiters with obstructive symptoms
what to suspect if not recovering after pneumonia
parapneumonic effusion
what type of pleural effusion does tb cause
exudative
what type of pleural effusion does connective tissue dz occur
exudative
what type of pleural effusion does pancreatitis cause
exudative
mc hemorrhagic pleural effusion
malginancy, pe, tb
3 mcc tia/stroke. what things are life threatening and need to be checked for
carotid atherosclerosis, cardioemboism, lipohyalonisis. hemorrhage
rickets w normal serum calcium, normal serum alp, normal vit D
hypophosphatemic rickets
how is erysipelas diff from ordinary cellulitis
erysipelas caused by gas. erysipelas has sharp borders (cellulitis is poorly defined), and is on face or legs
what is bullous myringitis
blistering of TM due to otitis media
when are diuretics necessary to tx MI
flash pulmonary edema caused by MI
which nephrotic syndrome is assoc with hodgkins
minimal change
skin findings: tss vs meningococcemia vs scarlet fever
diffuse confluent erythematous vs stellate purpura w central gray vs rough sandpaper
what do you do for stable pt recovering from pancreatitis
cholecystectomy
how to tx long qt syndrome
bb
how to tx long qt syndrome
bb
mtx effect on heme
macrocytic anemia
how to tell b/w hemorrhagic shock and neurogenic shock
neurogenic has high vagal tone so bradycardia
if central skeleton is affected by RA, which area would be most likely to be affected
cervical spine, esp c1-2
bacterial vs viral gastroenteritis: vomiting
vomiting usually more assoc with viral ge
4 types of shock, how to differentiate
1. septic 2. neurogenic 3. hypovolemic 4. cardiogenic.

cardiogenic and hypovolemic will have low co (cold & clammy), but cardiogenic will have high pwcp and hypovolemic oft has low pwcp. septic will have have high co (hot), oft low pcwp due to low preload from dilation and normal-high mvo2.
esr in polycythemia vera
decreased
what is primidone used to tx? what can it precipitate?
essential tremor. aip
do cat bites need to be ppx'd?
x5d of augmentin to cover pasturella
when do the following post-mi complications occur: free wall rupture, papillary mm rupture, septal rupture, ventricular aneurysm
5-10d, 5-10d, 5-10d, 7weeks
what type of fungal infection assoc w palatal ulcers? mucosal ulcers?
histo. blasto
what type of lung findings in histo
hilar lad +/- pneumonitis
fungal infection -- palatal ulcers, hsm, pancytopenai
histo
hemodynamics in HIT
thrombocytopenia but also platelet activation (PF4) that causes hypercoagulability
mc site of compression for ulnar nerve
cubital tunnel at elbow
aspirin vs heparin for ami
aspirin actually decreases mortality. but use both
causes of 2* livedo reticularis
vasculitis, pancreatitis, tb, lymphoma, capillary obstruction
what chemical is notorius for causing pancytopenia
benzene
what to suspect in someone with chronic inflammatory dz + hip pain
consider avascular necrosis 2/2 cs
skin findings in fanconi
vitiligo, cafe au lait, freckles
how to distinguish bacterial atypical pneumonia vs influenza pneumonia
both can have leukopenia, bilateral infiltrates. influenza is 1. sudden 2. often in winter 3. fever is more common
kaposi vs ba based on hx
ba is more likely to have 1. exposure to some animal (cats, lice) 2. systemic effects esp liver issues
how to distinguish lmwh vs hep usage on labs
hep will elevate ptt
associations with pseudogout
hyperpth, hypoT, hemochromatosis,
herxheimer rxn
after using abx, develop sepsis like rxn incl fever and hypotension, due to widespread release of toxin from bacteria
stool osmotic gap is used to...
low = secretory diarrhea, high = osmotic diarrhea
how to dx lactose intolerance
hydrogen breath test in adults , stool ph in infants (bacteria make acid)
tx for cholesteatoma
surgery
sx of cholestatoma
painless otorrhea + hearing loss
why might you have decreased brath sounds in pe
pulmonary edema
what type of bias does loss to follow up cause
selection bias
mechanism of postictal metabolic acidosis
increased lactic acid from muscle activity during seizure
mobile cavitary mass in lung + intermittent hemoptysis
aspergilloma
choleastoma vs malignant otitis externa
choleasteoma = painless otorrhea + hearing loss + granulation tissue in middle ear
moe = painful ear canal esp on movement of ear + dc
what is trihexyphenidyl, what is it used for
m1 antagonist used for symptomatic tx in parkinson
vitamin a effect on brain
pseudotumor cerebri
cardiac manifestation of hemochromatosis
dilated cardiomyopathy, conduction problems, chf
central retinal vein occlusion vs central retinal a occlusion
both are permanent. artery is more acute, and see pallor and cherry red fovea in funduscopic. crvo is more subacute and optic disk swelling, retinal hemorrhage, vein dilation
appearance of porcelain gallbladder on ct
calcified rim with dark bile in center.
what is aspirin sensitivity syndrome
shutdown of cycloxygenase pathyway shunts to lipooxygenase and causes bronchoconstriction, polyp formation
vestibular neuritis vs labyrinthitis
labyrinthitis usually has hearing loss, vn doesn't
muscle strength in polymyalgia rheumatica? polymyositis?
normal, decreased
lifestyle tx for menieres
salt restricted diet
which nephritic syndrome needs emergent plasmaphoresis
goodpasture
what arv can cause crystal nephropathy
pi (indinivir)
which arv most likely to cause pancreatitis
didanosine
which arv most likely to cause hypersensitivity
abacavir
which arv most likely to cause sjs
nnrti
which arv most likely to cuase lactic acidosis
nrti
which arv most likely to cause liver failure
nevirapine
why do you get hypocalcemia in tumor lysis syndrome
released phosphate binds up the calcium
tx for mild acne
topical retinoids, benzoyl peroxide, azeleic acid
sspe vs pml
pml: more assoc with IC, jc, like ms except quick progression, dx by dna or by mri w multifocal non enhancing w/o mass effect
sspe: personality changes first, white matter affected
most serious complications of tx w hydroxychloroquine
macular toxicity (do eye exams)
expectoration: chronic bronchitis vs bronchiectasis
bronchietctasis is purulent, chronic bronchitis is not.
mc isolated & asymptomatic elevated alp in elderly
paget's dz
what types of seizure most likely to have aura
partial seizures
complex partial seizure vs partial seizure with secondary generalization
complex partial usually have automatiusms during loc, but partial seizure with generalization tends to have tonic clonic movements
tx for sickle cell stroke
exchange transfusion
pruritic eruption that occurs in person in contact with a bunch of stuff and grows coag neg staph
contact dermatitis (the s epidermis is just contaminant)
how to tx siadh
jif symptomatic (lethargy, coma etc) do hypertonic saline. fluid restriction, demeclocycline (can cause nephrotox, nephrogenic DI), vaptans, urea
physiologic acid base in pregnancy
respiratory alkalosis
mechanism of spironolactone in cirrhosis
fights 2* aldosteronism
memory impairment + personality changes + visuospatial intact
frontotemporal
disadvantage of tx'ing heat stroke with immersion in cold water
causes immediate vasoconstriction which limits heat dispersion
what causes zenker's
motor dysfunction and incoordination causing herniation b/w UES and cricopharyngeal mm
nasal obstruction + epistaxis + visible nasal mass in adolescent
angiofibroma
mechanism of analgesic nephropathy
papillary necrosis and chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis
4 criteria of brain death
1. absent CN reflexes 2. fixed & dilated pupils 3. no spontaneous breaths 4. agreement of 2 physicians
why would lying on your affected side in a PNA cause decreased o2 sat
v/q mismatch (bad lung will get dependent increase in ventilation and perfusion)
5 dietary recommendations for nephrolithiasis
1. decrease protein 2. decrease oxalate 3. decrease sodium 4. increase calcium 5. increase fluids
can NASH have macrovesicular steatosis, PMNs, and necrosis
yes
most common complication of pud
hemorhage
pickwickian and abg
increased pco2
why doesn't lp in bih cause herniation
pressure is evenly distributed in bih. not so with mass lesion
IM injection to which mm group has highest bioavailability
anterolateral thigh
sjs vs ten
>30% = ten
what pharmacologic tx other than epi can you use for anaphylaxis
diphenhydramine, ranitidine, albuterol, glucagon (if pt on bb), steroids (to prevent delayed rxns)
mechanism of radiocontrast "allergy", how to prevent
hyperosmolar dye causing degranulation of mast/basophil. pre-tx w diphenhydramine, h2 block, cs
fever, lad, maculopapular rash, arthralgia in response to drug
dilantin
what are reversible causes of dementia?
thyroid, syphilis, hiv, b12/folate, depression, CNS diseases (incl nph, use MRI),
what part of prostate does bph affect? cancer?
center? peripheral
tx for gastric outlet syndrome
vomiting -> hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. :. NG, IVF, potassium
mc brain abscess
strep (anaerobic and aerobic) + anaerobes
what to suspect in young pt w htn, muscle weakness, numbness
1* aldosteronism
orbital cellulitis vs preseptal cellulitis
orbial involves fat and mm within orbit. preseptal = superficial only. orbital cellulitis has pain w eye mvmt, proptosis, and decresaed vision
mc mets to brain. what if hemorrhage? what if single vs multiple?
lots of bad stuff kills glia: lung, breast, skin, kidney, GU/GI. hemorrhage = melanoma. multiple = melanoma & lung, single = breast, colon, renal
what nerves does cauda equina contain
starts l1.
damage to what nerve in cauda equina syndrome causes urinary sx? what is the urinary sx?
urinary retention due to loss of pelvic nerve
definition of microscopic hematuria
>2 rbc/hpf
what is bartter's syndrome
defect in TAL. behaves exactly like thiazide diuretics
how is saline sensitive metabolic alkalosis diff from saline resistant. how to tx?
saline-sensitive involves volume contraction, saline-resistant involves expansion. tx: fix underlying cause (esp for saline resistant). if volume depleted, then give normal saline + potassium. if volume expanded, then just give potassium cl. if you need diuresis, use acetazolemide
what type of study seeks to measure odds ratio? how about relative risk?
case control. cohort
10 causes of pulseless arrest
H: hypovolemia, hypothermia, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia, hydrogen
T: toxin, tamponade, tension ptx, thrombosis, trauma
does scc skin met to brain? how about esophageal carcinoma? oropharyngeal? prostate?
none of these do
tx for recurrent chalazion
biopsy to r/o carcinoma
how to workup syncope
if h&p (incl carotid sinus pressure to r/o sinus hypersensitivity), routine labs, and ekg reveal cause, then good. if unexplained, then if cardiac etiology then do cardio workup, if not then do tilt table & psych.
blood tests in cholesterol embolization
low c3, high eosinophils
what do you get echinococcus from? what imaging finding
close contacts w dogs, eggshell calcifications on ct
how does theophylline cause toxicity
phosphodiesterase inhibition, adenosine antagonism, stimulation of epinephrine release
what is susceptibility bias
a tx regimen is selected based on the severity of their condition
ekg finding with hypercalcemia
shortened qt
how do you get attributable risk %
(rr-1)/rr
how to culture for suspected acute prostatits
cx urine, DO NOT DO PROSTATE MASSAGE CUZ YOU WILL SEPSIS
histopathology of reye's
fatty vacuolization of hepatic cells (remember that salicylates are a mitochondrial poison and fats need energy to be broken down)
top causes of bacterial sinusitis
pneumo > hi > moraxella
liver histopathology: rotor vs dubin johnson
rotor doesn't have black pigment
csf WBC and RBC in g-b
normal
best tx for cancer-related cachexia
progestin
prognosis in cll: splenomeglay, anemia, tcp
spleen better than anemia better than tcp (worst)
mc organism septic joint in artificial joint
saureus
what's hepatolenticular degeneration
wilson's dz
infection of what spaces can lead to infection of: mediastinum, ludwig's angina, carotid sheath
retropharyngeal, submandibular, parapharyngeal
mcc spinal stenosis
osteoarthritis
herniated disk vs spinal stenosis
spinal steosis doesn't have any neurologic sx and pain is better with sitting/lying. herniated is worse with sitting, +dslr
mc thyroid malignancy
papillary
ocular trauma -> central scotoma, retinal edema, hemorrhagic detachment of macula, subretinal hemorrhage, crescent shaped streak concentric to optic nerve w/ blurred vision
choroidal rupture
sudden painless loss of vision w/ pallor of optic disk, cherry red fovea, boxcar segmentation of blood in retinal veins
central retinal artery occlusion
who is bronchoalveolar lavage mostly useful for
evaluation of malignancy or opportunistic infection *esp pcp)
most effective lifestyle intervention for reducing bp
if obese, then weight loss. if nonobese, dash diet
necrosis of nasal turbinate in diabetic is highly suggestive of
mucormycosis
bb and potassium
bb causes hyperkalemia
mgmt for suspected testicular tumor
do u/s -> if +, then radical orchiectomy -> ct for staging
WTF IS GUTTATE PSORIASIS
infection -> psoriasis with multiple salmon color papules
which thyroid cancer causes following: secretes calcitonin, has psomomma bodies, invades hematogenously
medullary, papillary, follicular
what does lambert eaton antibody bind
calcium channel on PRESYNAPTIC neuron
causes of secondary pellegra
hartnup disease (decreased absoprtion) carcinoid (shunting to serotonin), inh
what test to do after dx'ing myasthenia
ct for thymoma
what to do for acute UMN lesion + sensory deficit
MRI
anemia, mouth ulcers, lft abnormalities after tx for RA
mtx side effects
ddx for anterior mediastinal mass
thymoma, teratoma, thyroid neoplasm, and terrible lymphoma
prisoner with fluid collection in spleen, fever, leukocytosi, abd pain
ie to spleen
histology of ALL lymphoblasts
PAS+
acid fast oocysts in IC pt
cryptosporidium > isosporodium
mcc bloody emesis in pt abusing alcohol and aspirin
acute gastritis.
most sensitive test for disseminated histo infection
urine antigen
tx for histo in ic
itraconazole
most common organism in pneumonia after flu
saureas
dendriform corneal ulcers + vesicular rash in trigeminal distribution vs pain, photophobia, decreased vision, dendritic ulcer, vesicles in epithelium
herpes zoster ophthalmmicus vs herpes simplex keratitis
hazy cornea with central ulcer and ajacent stromal ulcer
bacterial keratitis
invasion of the tumor capsule and blood vessels in thyroid cancer
follicular cancer
cbc abnormality in ashtmatic tx'd with ics
neutrophilia
pyelo unresponsive to abx for 72h
look for obstructions or complications - renal u/s
change in gross appearance of eye in glaucoma
red eye
bone cancer pain
unrelenting pain not responsive to rest
tx for acute hypercalcemia
iv saline -> loop
usptsf osteoporosis
65+ do screening, or younger if risk factors
def of osteoporosis on bone mineral density
-2.5sd
pecularities in legionaries dz
fever with bradycardia (temperature disassociation), hyponatremia
wernicke vs korsokoff
mamillary body
confusion + ophthalmoplegia + ataxia
amnesia + confabulation + personality change
peculiarity in histo lesions radiographically
tend to calcify
which fungus can have lytic bone lesions
blasto
physiology of histamine
h1: nasal and bronchial mucus secretions, bronchiolar constriction, pruritus, pain, increased capillary permeability leads to wheals
h2: gi acid secretion
what is polyarteritis nodosa assoc w. what does it affect
hepatitis b. renal and visceral
what is microscopic polyangiitis
like wegener's except no granulomas that is panca +
microscopic polyangiitis vs pan
pan = different aged lesions. microscopic poly = same aged
osler weber randu
abnormal vessel proliferation that can lead to bleeding AD
what drug can u use to tx wpw with afib
amniodarone, procainamide, dc. don't use avn blockers
pulmonary causes of pulsus paradoxicus
asthma, copd, tension ptx
gold std test for acromegaly
measure gh after oral glucose
what secondary pneumonia can cause a necrotizing bronchopneumonia resulting in pneumatoceles
saureus
endocarditis following GU procedure usually caused by
enterococci
palpable purpura + glomerulonephritis w/ proteinuria + hematuria + hep C
mixed cryoglobulinemia
metabolic abnormality assoc w ischemic bowel
lactic acidosis
workup for new onset lupus nephritis
kidney biopsy cuz diverse effect on kidney with diverse management
tx for polymyalgia rheumatica
low dose steroids
how to tx peritonsillar abscess
if airway compromise, then surgery. if abscess, then drain + abx. if cellulitis, then abx.
workup for cholangitis
abd us then ercp
sx of mac in hiv
tb-like (fever, night sweat, weight loss) + if bm involved then anemia + if gi involved, abd pain & diarrhea
travel to weird area + skin lesion + numbness & weakness, how to dx
leprosy, do biopsy
what to check in pt who you are deciding po vs iv drug (assume efficacy, etc all the same)
if nausea/vomiting/gi problem, don't give po
tx for restless leg
trial of iron -> ropinarole/premipaxole (da agonist) -> levodopa
3 broad categories of delirium etiologies
1. cns lesion (trauma, infection, etc) 2. metabolic abnormality 3. toxic abnormality
what kinds of things must you exclude before diagnosing dt
infection (blood culture), pna, hypoxia
4 types of alcohol withdrawal
1. tremulousness (within 6h) 2. withdrawal seizures (6-48h) 3. alcoholic hallucinations (12-48h) BUT SENSORIUM INTACT 4. dt's (48-72h)
what type of vaccine is shingles shot
live attenuated
conjugated molecules have what type of molecule attached? what type of immunity do they invoke
polysaccharide, t-cell independent
causes of hiv esophagitis ranked by organism
candida > cmv ~ herpes
herpes esophagitis vs cmv esophagitis
hsv - multiple, small, deep ulcers. cmv - large, superficial
how is hypercalcemia of malignancy caused
bone mets cause osteolysis by production of cytokines. some release PTHrP. some make PTH. Hodgekin's produces calcitriol.
young black male with painless hematuria
sickle cell trait (caused by paipllary ischemia)
emergent tx for central retinal artery occlusion
high o2 and ocular massage (to dislodge the embolus to a more peripheral location)
what is shy dragar syndrome
aka multiple system atrophy. parkinsonism + autonomic dysfunction (incl postural hypotension) + widespread neurological sx
pt overdosed on something ... see radioopaque tablets on xr
iron tablets
what is a hordeolum
infection of meibomian gland or gland of zeis
bone complication of RA
osteoporosis
what clotting factors do cf pts lack
2,7,9,10. cuz of vit k def
when is essential tremor
it is a kinetic tremor that is seen only on usage of affected muscle, but can worsen with stress, temperature, emotions, etc
mechanism of pancytopenia in sle
peripheral destruction
mechanism of sequestration in pancratitis
release of pancreatic enzymes nad cytokines escaping local area and causing damage to endothelial tissue
clubbing of digits + periostitis of long bones + arthritis + pachydermia
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy. rmr to r/o lung cancer
drug interactions with sildenafil
1. don't use with nitrates 2. using with PI can cause decreased metabolism 3. watch out with hypotension w alpha block (give 4h apart)
drug interactions with sildenafil
1. don't use with nitrates 2. using with PI can cause decreased metabolism 3. watch out with hypotension w alpha block (give 4h apart)
increased urine/serum hydroxyproline
pagets
normal pcwp
2-15
right atrial pressure vs pcwp
pcwp = lap = pulmonary venous pressure
rap = central venous pessure
granulomas in crohns vs sarcoidosis
both are noncaseating
what dose of bb should chf pt be on
titrate up until hr drops