Medical Microbiology First

Front 1

Vancomycin resistant strep

Back 1

Enterococcus

Front 2

bacteria w/ + CAMP test

Back 2

GBS

Front 3

Bile esculin test is used to identify

Back 3

Group D strep, which has the ability to hydrolyze esculin

Front 4

people with a history of rheumatic fever or recurrent strep throat are given

Back 4

long-term penicillin prophylaxis

Front 5

Most serious infection of strep viridans

Back 5

subacute endocarditis in people w/ pre-existing heart diseases

Front 6

viridans colonizes the heart by

Back 6

forming biofilms

Front 7

Strep, growth improved by 5-10% CO2

Back 7

strep pneumoniae

Front 8

Pneumococcus infects the ear by the way of

Back 8

the eustachian tube, causing otitis media w/ a bulging eardrum due to exudate

Front 9

Type of strep that ferments inulin

Back 9

pneumococcus

Front 10

all principal causes of bacterial meningitis have

Back 10

IgA protease

Front 11

Virulence factors of pneumococcus

Back 11

Capsule, IgA protease, Pneumolysin, Autolysin

Front 12

Pneumolysin inhibits:

Back 12

1.neutrophil chemotaxis

2.phagocytosis and respiratory burst

3.lymphocyte proliferation and immunoglobulin synthesis.

Front 13

Pneumolysin release is stimulated by

Back 13

autolysin

Front 14

Toxins of staph aureus

Back 14

Enterotoxin, toxic-shock syndrome toxin, epidermolytic toxin (exfoliative toxin) and PVL (a cytotoxin)

Front 15

Staph. aureus establishes intimate contact with skin cells via _____

Back 15

bacterial techoic acids and fibronectin skin cell receptors

Front 16

Two types of coagulase

Back 16

bound coagulase→on the surface of the bacteria→causes the bacteria to clump together

free coagulase →secreted from the bacteria into the environment

Front 17

how does staph cause vomiting in gastroenteritis?

Back 17

toxin works on the vomiting control center of the brain this leads to reversal of peristalsis and vomiting

Front 18

how does staph cause diarrhea in gastroenteritis?

Back 18

enterotoxin is a superantigen and elicits a strong immune response in the region where the toxin is most concentrated. Immune response causes a loss of brush borders in intestinal epithelial cells; these cells cannot absorb water from the gut.

Front 19

corticosteriod inhibitor of TNF-a synthesis

Back 19

methylprednisone

Front 20

C. ulcerans can cause

Back 20

exudative pharyngitis

Front 21

C. jeikeium causes

Back 21

opportunistic nosocomial disease in neutropenic pts

Front 22

Death in systemic diphtheria infections may occur due to

Back 22

heart failure

Front 23

drug of choice for diphtheria

Back 23

penicillin

Front 24

palisades/ chinese letter arrangement in

Back 24

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Front 25

“Babes’ Ernst” bodies are

Back 25

metachromatic granules in C. diphtheriae

Front 26

black halos around colonies on tellurite

Back 26

C. diphteriae

Front 27

How do we confirm C. diphtheriae identification?

Back 27

glucose fermentation

Front 28

a protein that induces phagocytosis through adhesion and penetration

Back 28

Internalin (in L. monocytogenes)

Front 29

Gram Positive non–spore-forming coccobacillary, pairs or short chains

Back 29

L. monocytogenes

Front 30

Can sometimes be isolated after “cold enrichment"

Back 30

L. monocytogenes

Front 31

Bacteria w/ umbrella motility

Back 31

L. monocytogenes

Front 32

–Catalase negative –CO2 is required –Distinguishing characteristic: Production of H2 S on TSI –Microaerophilic –Nonmotile –Test tube brush growth in semisolid motility media

Back 32

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Front 33

Hemolysis of lactobacilli

Back 33

alpha

Front 34

M. africanum causes

Back 34

TB in humans

type 1 is common in west africa and is similar to M. bovis and type 2 is common in east africa and is similar to MTB

Front 35

M. caprae causes

Back 35

TB in vets (isolated from goats)

Front 36

M. pinnipedi is a pathogen of

Back 36

seals

Front 37

M. microti is a pathogen of

Back 37

voles

Front 38

primary focus on the skin in TB

Back 38

Prosecutor's warts

Front 39

Scrofula

Back 39

Tuberculous cervical lymphadenitis

Front 40

The BCG vaccine is made from

Back 40

attenuated M. bovis

Front 41

peptidoglycolipid1 (PGL-1)

Back 41

a unique antigenic determinant of M. leprae, can be used in diagnosis

Front 42

Three clinical types of leprosy

Back 42

macular, infiltrative-nodular and diffuse

Front 43

Dermal edema is prominent in the lesions in which stage of leprosy?

Back 43

BB

Front 44

Granulomas with peripheral lymphocytes follow the neurovascular bundles and infiltrate sweat glands and erector pili muscles in which stage of leprosy?

Back 44

BT

Front 45

Perineuralfibroblast proliferation forming an typical onion skin in cross section.

Back 45

BL

Front 46

The classical and most common variety of leprosy

Back 46

Infiltrative nodular lepromatous leprosy

Front 47

The macrophages have abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and contain mixed solid and fragmented bacilli - in which stage of leprosy?

Back 47

Infiltrative nodular lepromatous leprosy

Front 48

The highest loads of bacilli exist in which type of leprosy?

Back 48

Histoid LL

Front 49

Which stage of leprosy frequently follows incomplete chemotherapy or acquired drug resistance, leading to bacterial relapse?

Back 49

Histoid LL

Front 50

The type of leprosy with well-demarcated cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules resembling dermatofibromas.

Back 50

Histoid-type leprosy

Front 51

Macrophages in lepromatous leprosy are called

Back 51

lepra cells

Front 52

upgrading reactions are type ____ leprosy reactions

Back 52

1

causes caseous necrosis of large peripheral nerves

Front 53

mycetomas are

Back 53

fungating tumor-like masses caused by primary cutaneous nocardiasis

Front 54

Act. actinomycetemcomitans is a rare cause of

Back 54

endocarditis.

Front 55

Should we examine sputum to check for actinomycosis?

Back 55

NO (normal flora) take specimens from tissue biopsies instead

Front 56

_________may form spider colonies that resemble molar teeth after ______ days

Back 56

A. israelii after 14 days of aerobic and anaerobic cultures

Front 57

Madura foot is caused by

Back 57

Actinomadura madurae/ Streptomyces somaliensis

Front 58

Corticosteroid therapy is a strong risk factor for _____

Back 58

nocardia infections

Front 59

alveolar proteinosis predisposes a pt to

Back 59

nocardial infections

Front 60

____ is stained by Gram–Weigert or Gomori methenamine-silver methods.

Back 60

Nocardia

Front 61

"Colonies are cream, orange or pink coloured; their surfaces may develop a dry, chalky appearance, and they adhere firmly to the medium."

Back 61

Nocardia

Front 62

Most cases of Whipple's disease occur in

Back 62

middle-aged white males.

Front 63

Gram positive bacteria with square cut ends

Back 63

Bacillus anthracis

Front 64

B. anthracis capsule made out of

Back 64

glutamic acid (glutamate)

Front 65

Bacteria that is encapsulated but colonies appear coarse

Back 65

B. anthracis

Front 66

Bacillus subtilis can cause

Back 66

oppertunistic infections

Front 67

which bacterium looks like a drumstick with a large round end???

Back 67

C. tetani

Front 68

C. tetani is motile by

Back 68

peritrichous flagella

Front 69

In which bacterial infection is it almost impossible to detect the toxin, bacteria or antibodies?

Back 69

C. tetani

Front 70

How many doses of DPT do we take?

Back 70

3

Front 71

a toxin with zinc-endopeptidase activity

Back 71

Botulinum toxin

Front 72

a cause of SIDS

Back 72

Infant botulism

Front 73

Can be identified by Nagler reaction

Back 73

C. perfringens

Front 74

Clostridia are grown on

Back 74

Thioglycolate Medium

Front 75

an enriched and selective medium for pathogenic N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis

Back 75

modified thayer-martin agar

Front 76

Media for salmonella

Back 76

enrichment and selective→ Selenite broth

differential→ XLD (pink colonies) and SS agar (black w/ silver metallic sheen)

Front 77

This tests for O & H antibodies in the patients serum and comes in handy when culturing facilities are not available.

Back 77

Widal test

Front 78

Three licensed vaccines for S. typhi

Back 78

Traditional heat-killed vaccine

Live-oral vaccine

Vi antigen vaccine

Front 79

differences between amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery

Back 79

1) feces in amoebic dysentery are acidic, while they're alkaline in bacillary dysentery

2) feces in amoebic dysentery contain few pus cells (neutrophils) while they contain many pus cells in bacillary dysentery

Front 80

Death in bacillary dysentery can occur due to

Back 80

circulatory collapse or renal failure

Front 81

Culture for Shigella

Back 81

XLD agar→ pink colonies

SS agar→ green colonies

Front 82

Some Shigella strains [________]possess surface or K antigens that can _________

Back 82

S. dysenteriae and S. sonnei

hide the O antigens being tested.

Front 83

What does uropathogenic E coli do?

Back 83

It produces Pyelonephritis-associated pili → associated w/ renal colonization
may lead to induction of protective immunity and HlyA

Front 84

When is E coli definitely not a part of normal flora?

Back 84

When it causes intestinal infections→ that means it picked up a plasmid→became an obligate pathogen→ not endogenous, must have been ingested

Front 85

E coli that causes infantile enteritis

Back 85

EPEC

Front 86

ETEC can cause

Back 86

endemic diarrhea in children under 3

or traveler's diarrhea

Front 87

Symptoms of HUS

Back 87

Thrombocytopenia

Hemolytic anemia

Acute renal failure

Front 88

EHEC can cause

Back 88

hemorrhagic colitis and HUS

Front 89

____ causes disease that resembles Shigellosis, except that it requires a large inoculum

Back 89

EIEC

Front 90

What causes traveler's diarrhea?

Back 90

EAEC/ DAEC/ ETEC

Front 91

if a pt w/ UTI does a urine culture and nothing grows, it's probably

Back 91

chlamydia (intracellular)

Front 92

Pts w/ inflammatory disease may require

Back 92

immunosuppressants, since they are at risk for septic shock

Front 93

Fecal leukocytes/ fecal lactoferrin means the pt is suffering from

Back 93

inflammatory disease

Front 94

to try to prevent traveler's diarrhea, a person may ingest

Back 94

daily subsalicylates → inactivates the enterotoxin

Front 95

Bacteria w/ a distinctive yeasty odor

Back 95

Klebsiella

Front 96

pneumonia accompanied by pleuritic pain is caused by

Back 96

K. pneumoniae

Front 97

Mikulicz cells

Back 97

round or oval macrophages that have small nuclei and are present in the nodules of rhinoscleroma

Front 98

Bacteria associated w/ powdered milk

Back 98

Cronobacter (necrotizing enterocolitis, sepsis, meningitis in infants)

Front 99

Ferments lactose slowly

Back 99

serratia

Front 100

Delayed citrate reaction is a major characteristic of

Back 100

Hafnia

Front 101

Bacteria w/ burned chocolate odor

Back 101

proteus

Front 102

hydrolyzes urea slowly

Back 102

Citrobacter

Front 103

Virulence factors of pseudomonas

Back 103

CHEAPP

Cytotoxin

Hemolysin: lecithinase and phospholipase

Elastase

Exotoxin A

Protease

Pyocyanin

Front 104

3rd leading cause of hospital-acquired UTIs

Back 104

Pseudomonas

Front 105

Campylobacter is motile due to

Back 105

polar flagella

Front 106

Most common cause of acute infectious diarrhea in developed countries

Back 106

Campylobacter

Front 107

Gull-wing appearance in gram stain

Back 107

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 108

H. pylori is motile due to

Back 108

(lophotrichous) flagella

Front 109

-H. parainfluenzae causes

Back 109

pneumonia and endocarditis

Front 110

H. aphrophilus causes

Back 110

pneumonia and endocarditis

Front 111

-H. aegyptius causes

Back 111

purulent conjunctivitis (pink eye)

Front 112

most common Hemophilus infections after vaccination

Back 112

serotype f and non-typable strains

Front 113

–Cary-Blair medium and Venkataraman-Ramakrishnan are used to transport

Back 113

V. cholerae

Front 114

TCBS agar is used to grow

Back 114

V. cholerae→ yellow colonies