Medical Lab Tech Osmt

Front 1

My name is:

Back 1

Tammy

Front 2

Glassware used to measure 24 hour urine volumes is a:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb

Back 2

d. graduated cylinder

Front 3

Glassware used to make 100 mls of a 12% solution is a:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb

Back 3

a. volumetric cylinder

Front 4

A suction device used to draw up liquids is a:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. erlenmeyer cylinde
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb

Back 4

e. safety bulb

Front 5

The pipette with a bulged out portion in the middle is a:
a. mohr pipette
b. pasture pipette
c. serological pipette
d. volumetric pipette
e. micro-pipette

Back 5

d. volumetric pipette

Front 6

Which piece of glassware would not give critical measurement:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb

Back 6

b. beaker

Front 7

The durable material used to make heat resistant glassware is:
a. polyethylene
b. soda lime
c. polystyrene
d. borosilicate
e. polyvinyl chloride

Back 7

d. borosilicate

Front 8

Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. What term would describe the potassium oxalate?
a. solution
b. solvent
c. solute
d. reagent
e. a & c

Back 8

c. solute

Front 9

The destruction of all micro-organisms including spores is called:
a. sanitation
b. antisepsis
c. sterilization
d. disinfection
e. asepesis

Back 9

c. sterilization

Front 10

A ug is a unit to describe:
a. time
b. volume
c. distance
d. weight
e. length

Back 10

d. weight

Front 11

A pH of 2 is _____then a pH of 5:
a. 1000 times more acidic
b. 100 times more acidic
c. 2 times less acidic
d. 20 times less acidic
e. 1000 times more acidic

Back 11

e. 1000 times more acidic

Front 12

Cells in a hypertonic solution will:
a. swell and burst
b. dehydrate
c. hemolyze
d. not be affected
e. stop mitosis

Back 12

b. dehydrate

Front 13

The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
a. wright stain
b. hematoxylin
c. physiological saline
d. cytospray
e. methylene blue

Back 13

d. cytospray

Front 14

Blood for an RBC count must be prepared from:
a. EDTA blood
b. citrated blood
c. heparinized blood
d. oxalated blood
e. clotted blood

Back 14

a. EDTA blood

Front 15

Which reagent is not routinely used to preserve tissue in a life-like manner:
a. formic acid
b. zenkers fluid
c. 40% formaldehyde dissolved in water
d. bouin's fluid
e. 10% formalin

Back 15

a. formic acid

Front 16

Which piece of histology equipment is not temperature dependant:
a. wax
b. tissue proocessor
c. microtome
d. embedding center
e. waterbath

Back 16

c. microtome

Front 17

A biopsy is:
a. a removal of biological fluid
b. the removal of an organ
c. a post mortem examination
d. excision of a representative tissue sample
e. a collection of blood

Back 17

d. excision of a representative tissue sample

Front 18

During tissue processing, what is the correct sequence of steps:
a. clearing, dehydration, infiltration
b. clearing, infiltration, dehydration
c. dehydration, infiltration, clearing
d. dehydration, clearing, infiltration
e. embedding, sectioning, staining

Back 18

d, dehydration, clearing, infiltration

Front 19

Fixation is important in tissue processing because it:
a. prevents cell morphology changes and shrinkage
b. allows tissue to be examined in a life-like condition
c. facilitates the staining process
d. a & c
e. a, b, & c

Back 19

e. a, b, & c

Front 20

The liquid portion of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:
a. the buffy coat
b. serum
c. plasma
d. lymph
e. tissue fluid

Back 20

b. serum

Front 21

Which test could not be performed on a serum sample:
a. iron
b.vitamin B12
c. total lipids
d. clotting factors
e. potassium

Back 21

d. clotting factors

Front 22

The shape of a normal erythrocyte is described as:
a. bioconcave disc
b. spherocyte
c. polymorphonucleocyte
d. thin column
e. bull's eye

Back 22

a. bioconcave disk

Front 23

Glucose results are correctly reported in:
a. g/mmol
b. mmol/L
c. g/L
d. g/ml
e. g/dl

Back 23

b. mmol/L

Front 24

If a patient refuses to have a venipunture done you should:
a. tear up the requisition
b. collect a urine sample
c. politely ask a patient to come back next week
d. restrain the patient and proceed with the venipuncture
e. notify the patient's physician

Back 24

e. notify the patients physician

Front 25

Which statement is false when performing a venipuncture:
a. the vein is entered at a 15-20 degree angle
b. the tubes are pushed onto the needle with the thumb of the strongest hand
c. the bevel of the needle is pointed up when entering the vein
d. the tourniquet is removed before withdrawing the needle
e. the patients arm is cleansed before palpating the vein

Back 25

e. the patient's arm is cleansed before palpating the vein

Front 26

A biohazarddous container is used to discard:
a. lancets
b. needled
c. band-aid wrappers
d. a & b
e. a, b & c

Back 26

d. a & b

Front 27

Which needle gauge corresponds with the smallest needle size:
a. 18
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
e. 23

Back 27

e. 23

Front 28

The vacutainer tube which is used to collect and separate serum is the:
a. red
b. green
c. lavender
d. light blue
e. SST

Back 28

e. SST

Front 29

If a lavender top, plain red top, grey top, and light blue top tubes are collected, what is the order of draw:
a. they can be collected in any order
b. plain red top, lavender, blue, grey
c. blue, plain red top, grey, lavender
d. grey, blue, lavender, plain red top
e. plain red top, light blue, lavender, grey

Back 29

e. plain red top, light blue, lavender, grey

Front 30

The tourniquet is:
a. applied very tightly to the arm
b. used to increase venous fill
c. applied about 6-8" above the elbow
d. tied in a knot to keep it on securely
e. released after the needle is withdrawn

Back 30

b. used to increase venous fill

Front 31

If a patient faints during a venipuncture, you should:
a. call the physician at once
b. remove the needle and attend to the patient
c. yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
d. continue the procedure until all blood is collected
e. start artificial respiration immediately

Back 31

b. remove the needle and attend to the patient

Front 32

What vein/veins is not used to obtain a venous blood sample:
a. basilica vein
b. cephalic vein
c. medial cubital vein
d. femoral vein
e. veins on the back of the hand

Back 32

d. femoral vein

Front 33

A blood specimen collected in a heparinized tube is centrifuged. It will separate into:
a. serum and clot
b. plasma and clot
c. serum and plasma
d. plasma, buffycoat, RBC

Back 33

d. plasma, buffy coat, RBC

Front 34

Hemolysis may result from:
a. using a 25 gauge needle on an adult
b. vigorously shaking the blood specimen
c. refridgerating the vacutainer before use
d. leaving the tourniquet on for 3 minutes
e. all of the above

Back 34

e. all of the above

Front 35

The test procedure that uses a westergren tube is:
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. hematocrit
c. reticulocyte count
d. microhematocrit
e. differential

Back 35

a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Front 36

Latex gloves protect the lab employee from:
a. accidental needle puncture
b. micrtome injury
c. patient aerosols
d. body fluid
e. all of the above

Back 36

d. body fluids

Front 37

Which statement is false when setting up an ESR:
a. it must be read in exactly one hour
b. it should be set up near a centrifuge
c. the blood level must be at exactly zero
d. it should be performed on fresh blood
e. it must be set up in a vertical position

Back 37

b. it should be set up near a centrifuge

Front 38

What is the normal temperature of a laboratory refridgerator:
a. -4 C
b. 0 C
c. 3 C
d.20 C
e.37 C

Back 38

c. 3 C

Front 39

The purpose of doing a differential is to:
a. determine the proportion of RBC in whole blood
b. count the number of WBC's in whole blood
c. determine the proportions of WBC's in whole blood
d. c & e
e. diagnose anemia

Back 39

c. determine the proportions of WBC's in whole blood

Front 40

Blood samples for cell counts must be thoroughly mixed immediately before testing to:
a. prevent the clumping of platelets
b. prevent the formation of small clots
c. oxygenate the sample
d. ensure even distributation of all blood components
e. mix anticoagulant with the blood

Back 40

d. ensure even distributation of all blood components

Front 41

An automated hematology cell count uses the principle of:
a. diffusion
b. color absorption changes
c. high frequency sound waves
d. changes in cell electrical currents
e. light wave scattering

Back 41

d. changes in cell electrical currents

Front 42

The maximum depth to perform a heel puncture on a newborn is:
a. 1.5mm
b. 2.0mm
c. 2.4mm
d. 2.8mm
e. 3.0mm

Back 42

c. 2.4mm

Front 43

The first drop of blood is wiped away after performing a skin puncture to:
a. remove any pathogens that are present
b. increase blood flow to the area
c. remove the last traces of alcohol
d. remove any excess tissue fluid

e. c & d

Back 43

e. c & d

Front 44

What areas on an infant are siutable for skin puncture:
a. any calloused areas of the foot
b. the second or third finger on either hand
c. the posterior curvature of the heel
d. the lateral, flat portion of the heel

Back 44

d. the lateral, flat portion of the heel

Front 45

What laboratory department studies antigen-antibody reaction:
a. hematology
b. microbiology
c. immunology
d. chemistry
e. coagulation

Back 45

c. immunology

Front 46

what tube would be drawn for ANA:
a. red
b. grey
c. SST
d. green
e. light blue

Back 46

c. SST

Front 47

A disinfectant used on metal surface is:
a. 10% formalin
b. 2% glutaraldehyde
c. 1% hypochlorite
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
e. 15% iodine

Back 47

b. 2% glutaraldehyde

Front 48

What tube would be collected for a cross-match:
a. lavender
b. light blue
c. green
d. grey
e. plain red top

Back 48

e. plain red top

Front 49

Separated serum that is dark yellow to amber in color is termed:
a. crenated
b. lipemic
c. jaundiced
d. icteric
e. hemolyzed

Back 49

d. icteric

Front 50

Which factor would interfere with the growth of a pathogen:
a. appropriate nutrients
b. darkness
c. a moist environment
d. an acidic pH
e. a temperature of 37 C

Back 50

d. an acidic pH

Front 51

A specimen is:
a. material spread on a slide
b. an amount of blood or urine
c. a small sample taken to represent the whole organism or system
d. a colony of micro-organisms growing on solid medium
e. a technique used to microscopically examine urine

Back 51

c. a small sample taken to represent the whole organism or system

Front 52

The purpose of heat fixing a bacterial smear is to:
a. prevent cells from being washed off during staining
b. causes the cells to absorb the stain more easily
c. provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
d. make the cells visible under the microscope
e. destroy the bacterial cell wall

Back 52

a. prevent cells from being washed off during staining

Front 53

The site of a specimen must be written on a swab container:
a. to warn staff about a possible pathogen
b. only if time permits-it is always on the requisition
c. to determine suitable agar and atmospheric requirements
d. to determine the o.h.i.p. fee
e. a,b,c,d,& e

Back 53

c. to determine selection of suitable agar and atmospheric requirements

Front 54

Identify the correct sequence of steps on the gram stain procedure:
a. primary stain, secondary stain, mordant, decolorizing
b. mordant, primary stain, decolorizing,counterstain
c. counterstain, mordant, primary stain, decolorizing
d. primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain
e. none of the above

Back 54

d. primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain

Front 55

How should commercially prepared culture plates be stored:
a. in the freezer until several hours before use
b. inverted to prevent condensation dripping on the media
c. at room temperature in a dark area of the lab
d. at a temperature of 2*C - 4*C
e. b & d

Back 55

e. b & d

Front 56

Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria:
a. Lugol's iodine
b. safranin
c. acetone-alcohol
d. Gram's iodine
e. crystal violet

Back 56

d. Gram's iodine

Front 57

Identify the false statement regarding blood culture colletion:
a. the site is cleaned with betadine and alcohol
b. an arterial sample is collected
c. an aerobic specimen is required
d. blood culture tubes are always drawn first
e. the specimens are never refridgerated

Back 57

b. an arterial sample is collected

Front 58

Susceptibility testing:
a. measures how fast a micro-organism can be destroyed
b. identifies the types of micro-organisms in the specimen
c. determines growth requirements of organisms
d. produces a pure culture
e. identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the micro-organism

Back 58

e. identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the micro-organism

Front 59

Identify the false statement when a specimen is cultured:
a. the equipment required is a loop and a direct flame
b. the media is brought to room temperature before use
c. the media selected is dependant on the type of specimen
d. the loop is sterilized prior to inoculation
e. the petri lid is placed upright to the bench to prevent contamination

Back 59

e. the petri lid is placed upright to the bench to prevent contamination

Front 60

Which statement is false when a Gram stain is performed:
a. distilled water is used for the washing steps
b. acetone-alcohol decolorizes gram-negative bacteria
c. safranin stains the gram negative bacteria red
d. Gram's iodine is used to bind the primary stain
e. crystal violet stains the gram-positive bacteria purple

Back 60

a. distilled water is used for the washing steps

Front 61

Which is most commonly used for protection when processing swabs, body fluid or blood:
a. fume hood
b. class l laminar flow hood
c. class ll laminar flow hood
d. class lll laminar flow hood
e. glove box

Back 61

c. class ll laminar flow hood

Front 62

You are collecting a blood glucose level. The patient asks if you think he has diabetes. You would tell him:
a. this is a possibility, but you are not positive
b. you are unable to give him any information
c. to discuss this with the doctor as he can answer the question
d. you have been instructed not to give out any information, therefore you can't discuss it
e. to read a prepared pamphlet and make his own decision

Back 62

c. to discuss this with the doctor as he can answer this question

Front 63

The autoclave is set at _____ for small loads:
a. 121*C for 50min at 6 p.s.i.
b. 130*C for 30min at 30 p.s.i.
c. 121*C for 15min at 15 p.s. i.
d. 121*C for 45min at 15 p.s.i.
e. 154*C for 20min at 20 p.s.i.

Back 63

c. 121*C for 15min at 15 p.s.i.

Front 64

The universally accepted disinfectant for the medical workplace is:
a. 2% glutaraldehyde
b. 1% hyppochlorite
c. 10% formalin
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
e. 5% iodine

Back 64

b. 1% hypochorite

Front 65

A patients health card # consists of ___ digits:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
e. 12

Back 65

d.10

Front 66

A 1/6 dillution of serum in water was made. The glucose result was 4.0 mmol/L. What is the reported result:
a. 0.66 mmol/L
b. 4.0 mmol/L
c. 24.0 mmol/L
d. 40.0 mmol/L
e. 60.0 mmol/L

Back 66

c. 24.0 mmol/L

Front 67

100ml of 20% hydrochloric acid will make how many mls of 4% hydrochloric acid:
a. 50ml
b. 80ml
c. 100ml
d. 500ml
e. 1000ml

Back 67

d. 500ml

Front 68

How many grams of NaCl are needed to make 300ml of a 2% solution:
a. 2 grams
b. 4 grams
c. 6 grams
d. 20 grams
e. unable to determine with information

Back 68

c. 6 grams

Front 69

Approximately how many centimeters are in one foot:
a. 3
b. 12
c. 24
d. 30
e. 100

Back 69

d. 30

Front 70

Two standard deviations from the mean includes:
a. 5% of all values
b. 34% of all values
c. 50% of all values
d. 68% of all values
e. 95% of all values

Back 70

e. 95% of all values

Front 71

When performing a venipuncture, bright red blood spurts into the tube. This means:
a. an arterial puncture
b. high hemoglobin
c. high hematocrit
d. high blood pressure
e. high blood pH

Back 71

a. an arterial puncture

Front 72

A patient has hepatitis, which test(s) will be increased:
a. ALT
b. AST
c. alkaline phosphates
d. bilirubin
e. all of the above

Back 72

e. all of the above

Front 73

Acid phosphates is an enzyme which increases in:
a. gout
b. kidney disease
c. liver disease
d. prostatic cancer
e. heart disease

Back 73

d. prostatic cancer

Front 74

Which enzyme(s) would be increased in a patient with acute Ml:
a: ACP
b. CK
c. AST
d. b & c
e. all of the above

Back 74

d. b & c

Front 75

A 2 hr. p.c. glucose:
a. is collected 2 hrs after eating a meal high in carbohydrates
b. is a valuable screening test for diabetes mellitus
c. measures glucose when it is at its highest level after a meal
d. is not affected by medication
e. a & b

Back 75

e. a & b

Front 76

A routine GTT:
a. is three hours long
b. requires five blood samples
c. includes 6 urine samples
d. uses 100 grams of glucosse in a 300ml solution
e. uses 50 grams of glucose in a 500ml solution

Back 76

b. requires five blood samples

Front 77

Glycoslated hemoglobin:
a. causes sickle cell anemia
b. is affected by the patients food intake on the day of testing
c. is drawn on a green top tube
d. indicates blood glucose levels from preceding months
e. requires an SST tube

Back 77

d. indicates blood glucose levels from preceding months

Front 78

Serum is acidified after separation for which test:
a. uric acid
b. frederickson typing
c. acid phosphate
d. BUN
e. creatine

Back 78

c. acid phosphate

Front 79

WHMIS stands for:
a. worker harmful material information sheets
b. worker handbook on mechanical and industrial safety
c. workplace hazardous materials information system
d. workplace harmfull methods and industrial security
e. none of the above

Back 79

c. workplace hazardous materials information system

Front 80

MSDS sheets do not contain:
a. product identifier and use
b. hazardous ingredients
c. first aid measures
d. preventative measures
e. hazard symbols

Back 80

e. hazard symbols

Front 81

When using acid and water:
a. acid is slowly added to water
b. water is slowly added to acid
c. water and acid are added together
d. it makes no difference how they are added
e. they are never mixed as heat is produced

Back 81

a. acid is slowly added to water

Front 82

Insidious hazards:
a. include substances which react violently with each other
b. include aerosolos, carcinogens, mutagens, and radiation
c. are subtances which injury by direct chemical action
d. are graded using TLV and TLV-S.T.E.L. values
e. are always chemical in nature

Back 82

b. include aerosols, carcinogens, mutagens, and radiation

Front 83

Which test would not be performed on plasma or serum:
a. lipoprotein electrophoresis
b. iron
c. BUN
d. hemoglobin electrophoresis
e. electrolyte profile

Back 83

d. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Front 84

The function unit of the kidney is the:
a. renal cel
b. renal cortex
c. renal tubule
d. bladder
e. nephron

Back 84

e. nephron

Front 85

Pus cells or fat in urine would cause this color:
a. red
b. yellow-brown
c. greenish-blue
d. milky-white
e. black

Back 85

d. milky-white

Front 86

The end products of protein digestion are:
a. gycerol
b. fatty acid
c. triglycerides
d. monosaccharides
e. amino acids

Back 86

e. amino acids

Front 87

Which statement is true regarding the use of reagent dipsticks:
a. heat and moisture do not affect the reagent reactivity
b. timing of each reagent area is not necessary
c. reagent sticks are held vertically when reading
d. all reagent sticks tests do specific gravity
e. reagent strips should be tested daily with control

Back 87

e. reagent strips should be tested daily with control

Front 88

A 1/8 dilution of urine is:
a. 1 part water and 8 parts urine
b. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
c. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
d. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
e. 1 part water and 9 parts urine

Back 88

c. 1 part urine ane 7 parts water

Front 89

Before performing an R & M on a specimen, the urine would be;
A. filtered
b. brought to room temperature
c. centrifuged
d. well-mixed
e. b & d

Back 89

e. b & d

Front 90

A backup test(s) to confirm a positive protein in urine would be:
a. ictotest
b. SSA test
c. clinitest
d. TCA test
e. b & d

Back 90

e. b & d

Front 91

Which test result would increase in a urine specimen sitting at room temperature for 3 hours:
a. billirubin
b. nitrite
c. leukocyte
d. urobilinogen
e. ketones

Back 91

b. nitrite

Front 92

Water free of charged particles is:
a. distilled
b. radioactive
c. chlorinated
d. de-ionized
e. heavy.

Back 92

d. de-ionized

Front 93

Identify the incorrect step when using a serological pipette:
a. the pipette tip is below the liquid surface when filling
b. releasing the safety bulb will draw liquid into the pipette
c. it delivers total capacity or multiple volumes
d. it is held vertically and allowed to drain freely
e. the last portion of the pipette contents is discarded in a separate container

Back 93

e. the last portion of the pipette contents is discarded in a separate container

Front 94

A "TC" pipette is:
a. allowed to drain freely
b. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
c. used for toxic corrosive liquids
d. emptied forcibly with a safety bulb
e. rinsed out after delivery

Back 94

e. rinsed out after delivery

Front 95

The destruction of erythrocytes to release hemoglobin is called:
a. hemorrhage
b. hemostasis
c. erythropoiesis
d. hemolysis
e. hypoxia

Back 95

d. hemolysis

Front 96

Which factor may cause a blood smear to be too thin:
a. the angle of the spreader is too high
b. the edge of the spreader is cracked
c. the smear is spread too slowly
d. the angle of the spreader is too low
e. a dirty spreader is used

Back 96

d. the angle of the spreader is too low

Front 97

The test measuring the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBC's is the:
a. CBC
b. Hct
c. ESR
d. Hgb
e. MCV

Back 97

d. Hgb

Front 98

An immature neutrophil is called:
a. blast cell
b. LE cell
c. band cell
d. reticulocyte
e. packed cell

Back 98

c. band cell

Front 99

The test that counts the number of immature RBC's is the:
a. osmotic fragility test
b. differential
c. reticulocyte count
d. RBC count
e. stab cell count

Back 99

c. reticulocyte

Front 100

Which test does not monitor a patient's coagulation mechanism:
a. PT
b. ACTH
c. APTT
d. FDP
e. platelet count

Back 100

b. ACTH

Front 101

Dept for glucose test is:

Back 101

chemistry

Front 102

Dept for FOB is:

Back 102

Microbiology

Front 103

Dept for LD isoenzymes is:

Back 103

chemistry

Front 104

Dept for testicular cyst:

Back 104

Histology

Front 105

Dept for reticulocyte count:

Back 105

hematology

Front 106

Dept for 17-KS is:

Back 106

chemisrty

Front 107

Dept for PTT is:

Back 107

coagulation

Front 108

Dept for a pap smear is:

Back 108

cytology

Front 109

Dept for CSF for C & S is:

Back 109

microbiology

Front 110

Dept for lipoprotein electrophoresis is:

Back 110

chemistry

Front 111

A plasma protein involved in coagulation is:
a. immunoglobulin
b. gamma globulin
c. albumin
d. erythropoiten
e. fibrinogen

Back 111

e. fibrinogen

Front 112

The buffy coat is made up of:
a. WBC's and platelets
b. granulocytes
c. erythrocytes and granulocytes
d. reticulocytes
e. platelets

Back 112

a. WBC's and platelets

Front 113

Quality control is:
a. running known and unknown controls
b. involvement in LPTP program
c. for accuracy and precision
d. insuring control values are within 2 SD(standard devients)
e. all of the above

Back 113

e. all of the above

Front 114

A microbiology transport medium will contain activated charcoal:
a. to prevent bacteria death
b. to help staining process
c. to absorb toxic substances
d. to keep a neutral ph
e. to maintain oxygen levels

Back 114

c. to absorb toxic substances

Front 115

Which is not a liver function test:
a. albumin
b. ALP
c. CK
d. bilirubin
e. AST

Back 115

c. CK

Front 116

When collecting specimens for C & S one should:
a. fast for 12-14 hours
b. be off antibiotics for several days prior to collection
c. have all x-rays done proir to collection
d. come to the lab first thing in the morning
e. follow any necessary dietary restrictions

Back 116

b. be off antibiotics for several days prior to collection

Front 117

When an agar plate is streaked correctly the final result is:
a. a pure culture
b. individual colonies
c. no growth pathogens
d. dense growth which covers the plate
e. a non-contaminated specimen

Back 117

b. individual colonies

Front 118

Which chemical is not explosive:
a. crystal violet
b. ether
c. picric acid
d. sodium azide
e. potassium metal

Back 118

a. crystal violet

Front 119

Which reagent is not used to concentrate and stain ova and parasite specimen:
a. zinc sulfate
b. 10% formalin
c. ether
d. crystal violet
e. all of the above

Back 119

d. crystal violet

Front 120

Which solvent is not flammable:
a. ether
b. ethanol
c. methanol
d. xylene
e. saline

Back 120

e. saline

Front 121

Which is not a qualitative result:
a. few bacteria present
b. 1+ glucose
c. moderate amount of crystals seen
d. urobilinogen +2
e. specific gravity 1.010

Back 121

e.specific gravity 1.010

Front 122

The "universal solvent" is:
a. 0.85% sodium chloride
b. 8.5% NaCl
c. water
d. 10% ethanol
e. absolute alcohol

Back 122

c. water

Front 123

A patient with a heart condition may be sent to ___ for testing and observation:
a. FBS
b. OPD
c. ICU
d. CCU
e. C & D

Back 123

e. C & D

Front 124

What does FBS stand for?

Back 124

fasting blood sugar

Front 125

What does OPD stand for?

Back 125

outpatient department

Front 126

What does ICU stand for?

Back 126

intensive care unit

Front 127

What does CCU stand for?

Back 127

coronary care unit

Front 128

The most commonly used microscope in the clinical laboratory is the:
a. electron
b. dark-filed
c. phase contrast
d. florescent
e. light

Back 128

e. light

Front 129

A condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin are decreased:
a. AIDS
b. leukemia
c. polycythemia
d. anemia
e. fibrinolysis

Back 129

d. anemia

Front 130

Convert 41 degrees C to fahrenheit:
a. 100.0 F
b. 74.6 F
c. 110.0 F
d. 112.0 F
e. 105.8 F

Back 130

e. 105.8 F

Front 131

Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. This is called a;
a. scab
b. tunic
c. spore
d. cyst
e. sheath

Back 131

c. spore

Front 132

The layer above the precipitate in a solution is called the:
a. supernatant
b. solute
c. suspension
d. sediment
e. solvent

Back 132

a. supernatant

Front 133

The function of the respiratory system is:
a. to supply oxygen to tissue
b. to remove carbon dioxide from tissue
c. to regulate heart beat
d. to regulate the endocrine system
e. a & b

Back 133

e. a & b

Front 134

EDTA prevent clotting by:
a. binding fibrinogen
b. binding calcium ion
c. by inhibiting prothrombin
d. by binding anti-hemophilia facctor

Back 134

b. binding calcium ion

Front 135

Which type of plastic ware can be autoclaved:
a. polyethylene
b. polystyrene
c. polypropylene
d. polyvinyl chloride
e. pyrex

Back 135

c. polypropylene

Front 136

Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip:
a. volumetric
b. mohr
c. micropipette
d. serological
e. SMl

Back 136

d. serological

Front 137

Blood taken from arterial or venous blood gases is:
a. kept at body temperature until testing
b. drawn into SST tube
c. put on ice and performed STAT
d. drawn fasting
e. spun down-the serum is transferred to an acid washed tube

Back 137

c. put on ice and performed STAT

Front 138

Insulin is:
a. a hormone
b. produced by the pancreas
c. has the opposite effect to glucagon
d. also produced by the parathyroid glands
e. all of the above

Back 138

e. all of the above

Front 139

THS is a hormone:
a. produced by the thyroid gland
b. which stimulates T3 and T4 to be secreted
c. which stimulates testosterones to be secreted
d. also produced by the parathroid glands
e. none of the above

Back 139

b. which stimulates T3 and T4 to be secreted

Front 140

17-hydroxy steroid(17-OH) and 17-ketosteroids (17-KS) requires:
a. 24 hour urine
b. heparinized plasma
c. serum, frozen after separation of clot
d. 72 hour stool
e. random urine

Back 140

a. 24 hour urine

Front 141

Cortisol is:
a. tested on plasma (green top tube) or serum (SST/yellow top)
b. not affected by diet or exercise
c. drawn as a fasting to timed specimen
d. an adrenal medulla function
e. a & c

Back 141

e. a & c

Front 142

Lactose tolerance testing:
a. will diagnose a patients inability to digest milk sugar
b. cannot be done on urine samples
c. will diagnose enzyme deficiency
d. requires the patient to fast for 12-14 hours
e. a & c

Back 142

e. a & c

Front 143

Which is not a type of WBC:
a. reticulocyte
b. basophil
c. eosinophil
d. monocyte
e. lymphocyte

Back 143

a. reticulocyte

Front 144

The anticoagulant required for a differential blood film:
a. sodium citrate
b. EDTA
c. sodium heparin
d. sodium oxalate

Back 144

b. EDTA

Front 145

Vacutainers containing EDTA are used for each test except:
a. RBC count
b. erythrocyte sediment rate
c. platelet count
d. electrolyte profile
e. electrolyte count

Back 145

d. electrolyte profile

Front 146

Which is not a kidney function test:
a. BUN
b. creatinine clearance
c. electrolyte profile
d. total protein
e. all of the above are kidney function tests

Back 146

e. all of the above are kidney function tests

Front 147

BSP:
a. stands for biological safety procedures
b. is limited to blood urine infections only
c. is a complete infection control approach
d. has the same guidelines for all of north america
e. c & d

Back 147

e. c & d

Front 148

What does BSP stand for?

Back 148

biohazardous safety procedures

Front 149

Which is false regarding the handling of radioactive reagents:
a. handling time should be kept to a minimum
b. no amount may be disarded into the sewer system
c. small amounts may be sent to garbage after background counts have been reached
d. store away from high trafic areas

Back 149

b. no amount may be discarded into the sewer system

Front 150

Xylene is used to:
a. fix autopsy specimen
b. dehydrate tisue
c. attach cover slips to slides
d. clear tissue in paraffin wax
e. embed tissue in paraffin wax

Back 150

d. clear tissue in paraffin wax

Front 151

The type of fire extinguisher most often used in the clinical laboratory is:
a. a type
b. b type
c. c type
d. abc type
e. carbon dioxide charged

Back 151

d. abc type

Front 152

Which test will not be performed on a grossly hemolyzed specimen:
a. LD
b. K
c. CK
d. a, b, & c
e. sedimentation rate

Back 152

d. a,b & c

Front 153

Specimen identification is important to all testing. However, extra precautions are necessary when labeling specimens for:
a. C & S
b. ABO and Rh, cross-matching
c. therapeutic drug monitoring
d. factor assays
e. HIV
b.

Back 153

b. ABO and Rh, cross matching

Front 154

Specimens for transport through Canada Post:
a. cannot be mailed
b. must be sent priority post
c. are put into a double packed container with absorbent material
d. have no special identification procedures to maintain patient's confidentiality

Back 154

a. cannot be mailed

Front 155

The tablet used for glucose testing in urine is:
a. clinitest
b. ictotest
c. acetest
d. TCA
e. SSA

Back 155

a. clinitest

Front 156

A refractometer is used to test:
a. hemoglobin in urine
b. urine osmolality
c. urine specific gravity
d. urobilinogen in urine
e. the presence of nitrates in urine

Back 156

c. urine specific gravity

Front 157

Which test/tests is used for the turbidometric screening of urine protein:
a. TCA
b. HCL
c. SSA
d. albutest
e. a & c

Back 157

e. a & c

Front 158

Which reagent is stored under water:
a. xylene
b. ethanol
c. drabkin's reagent
d. picric acid
e. ether

Back 158

d. picric acid

Front 159

Which cytology specimen cannot be prepared by cytospin method:
a. CSF
b. joint fluid
c. urine
d. breast fluid
e. all of the above are suitable

Back 159

b. joint fluid

Front 160

Which is a true statement regarding cytology testing:
a. all cytology is performed STAT
b. BSP precautions are not required
c. formalin is a common fixative
d. cytospray is a common fixative
e. two of the above are true

Back 160

d. cytospray is a common fixative

Front 161

If 0.2 ml of a sample is aspirated into an automatic dilutor and added to 5 mls of diluents, what is the final dilution:
a. 1/511
b. 0.2/5
c. 1/26
d. 1/25
e. none of the above

Back 161

c. 1/26

Front 162

Which is super vital stain:
a. Ziehl-Neelson stain
b. Gram's stain
c. Wright's stain
d. Romanowsky stain
e. New methylene blue stain

Back 162

e. New methylene blue stain

Front 163

What could cause precipitation on a slide when performing a Wright's stain:
a. insufficient removal of metallic scum during washing
b. too much buffer
c. excessive humidity in the air
d. staining time too short
e. water in the methanol

Back 163

a. insufficient removal of metallic scum during washing

Front 164

What is the mounting medium used to cover slip hematology slides:
a. per-mount
b. eosin
c. formalin
d. xylene
e. plasticene

Back 164

a. per-mount

Front 165

How will drawing a small amount of blood in the EDTA tube affect the spun hematocrit value:
a. no affect
b. blood will hemolyze and give inaccurate result
c. falsely increased value
d. falsely decreased value
e. clots will form and a hematocrit can`t be done

Back 165

d. falsely decreased value

Front 166

Drabkin`s reagent :
a. is used in hematology
b. contains poison cyanide
c. is sensitive to light
d. a & b
e. a, b & c

Back 166

e. a, b & c

Front 167

Which factor would increase tissue processing time for a histology specimen;
a. gentle heat
b. dense tissue
c. gentle agitation
d. vacuum infiltratioin
e. porous tissue

Back 167

b. dense tissue

Front 168

When a tissue is fixed it means:
a. putrefaction and autolysis are prevented
b. the tissue is dehydrated
c. the tissue is retained in a life-like manner
d. all calcium ions have been removed
e. a & c

Back 168

e. a & c

Front 169

Which reagent is used to embed tissue after processing:
a. per-mount
b. paraffin
c. xylene
d. formic acid
e. liquid nitrogen

Back 169

b. paraffin

Front 170

A tissue is decalcified;
a. before fixing
b. after embedding
c. after fixing
d. at the time it is sectioned
e. just before staining

Back 170

c. after fixing

Front 171

What is used to hold a specimen larger than 5 mm for tissue processing:
a. basket
b. cuvette
c. rack
d. cassette
e. wire netting

Back 171

a. basket

Front 172

Cytology smears of sputum and synovial are fixed with:
a. toluene
b. benzene
c. pap stain
d. 10% ethanol
e. 95% ethanol

Back 172

e. 95% ethanol

Front 173

A PKU test detects:
a. a sex-linked anemia
b. a genetic defect in metabolism
c. a viral disease
d. severe kidney disease
e. Alzheimer's in the elderly

Back 173

b. a genetic defect in metabolism

Front 174

The notation 10 to the power of 3 means:
a. 100
b. 30
c. 1000
d. 300
e. 3000

Back 174

c.1000

Front 175

What will increase CO2 tension when incubating microbiology cultures:
a. CO2 incubator
b. gas pak
c. candle jar
d. anaerobic jar
e. a & c

Back 175

e. a & c

Front 176

Which is suitable to culture mycological specimen:
a. petri plates of blood agar
b. large test tubes containing Saubourand's dextrose agar
c. small flat-sided bottles containing cycloheximide enriched agar
d. culture tubes with sterile broth
e. two of the above

Back 176

e. b & c

Front 177

What is the meniscus:
a. a type of balance
b. the tip of a pipette
c. the precipitate in a solution
d. the curved surface of a liquid
e. a special type of plastic ware

Back 177

d. the curved surface of a liquid

Front 178

Which is true regarding Zeil-Neelson staining:
a. the mycobacteria stain blue
b. it is also called acid-fast staining
c. carbolfusion, acid-alcohol and methylene blue are used
d. it is done to detect tuberculosis
e. b,c & d

Back 178

e. b,c & d

Front 179

Serum specimens which are milky white are termed:
a. hemolyzed
b. icteric
c. lipemic
d. opaque
e. turbid

Back 179

c. lipemic

Front 180

The due date of a pregnant women is:
a. ASAP
b. HDN
c. EDC
d. CV

Back 180

c. EDC

Front 181

A person who has a blood clot stuck in one area has:
a. a thrombus
b. an embolism
c. a hematoma
d. phlebitis
e. ischemia

Back 181

a. a thrombus

Front 182

What is phlebitis:

Back 182

Swelling of a vein

Front 183

What is ischemia:

Back 183

Restriction of blood flow

Front 184

What is an embolism:

Back 184

A blood clot that travels

Front 185

What statement is true:
a. a base releases H+ in solution
b. an acid releases OH- in solution
c. a base has a lower pH than an acid
d. an acid added to base forms a salt
e. an acid will turn pH paper blue

Back 185

d. an acid added to a base forms a salt

Front 186

When solid particles in a solution settle out, it is called:
a. distillation
b. precipitation
c. filtration
d. deionization
e. floatation

Back 186

b. precipitation

Front 187

Vaporizing and condensing a substance to purify it is called:
a. distillation
b. precipitation
c. filtration
d. deionization
e. floatation

Back 187

a. distillation

Front 188

A solution that would cause a cell to swell is called:
a. isotonic
b. salty
c. physiolgical
d. hypotonic

Back 188

e. hypotonic

Front 189

The anticoagulant in a green top vacutainer is:
a. sodium citrate
b. EDTA
c. heparin
d. sodium fluoride
e. potassium oxalate

Back 189

c. heparin

Front 190

The largest vein in the body is the:
a. iliac vein
b. pulmonary vein
c. aorta
d. hepatic portal vein
e. vena cava

Back 190

e. vena cava

Front 191

A serum is dilluted 1/4. The chloride result on the serum is 30 mmol/L. What result is reported to the physician:
a. 4 mmol/L
b. 30 mmol/L
c. 34 mmol/L
d. 90 mmol/L
e. 120 mmol/L

Back 191

e. 120 mmol/L

Front 192

A patient with rheumatic arthritis has an ESR result that is:
a. decreased
b. normal
c. slightly increased
d. increased
e. not affected

Back 192

d. increased

Front 193

How much 5% HCL is required to make 500 ml of 2% solution:
a. 100 ml
b. 200 ml
c. 300 ml
d. 400 ml
e. none of the above

Back 193

b. 200 ml

Front 194

2.99 is between:
a. 2.989 and 2.991
b. 2 and 3
c. 2.98 and 3.00
d. 2.9 and 3.0
e. none of the above

Back 194

c. 2.98 and 3.00

Front 195

Which unit is the smallest:
a. nanometer
b. meter
c. millimeter
d. micrometer
e. decimeter

Back 195

a. nanometer

Front 196

A creatinine clearance test is done:
a. on 24-hour urine only
b. on serum only
c. on serum drawn three days before collecting a 24-hour urine
d. to determine kidney function
e. none of the above

Back 196

d. to determine kidney function

Front 197

A glucose tolerance test (GTT) done on a non-pregnant adult uses:
a. 50 g glucose in 300 ml solution
b. 75 g glucose in 300 ml solution
c. 100 g glucose in 300 ml solution
d. 50 g glucose in 200 ml solution
e. 100 g glucose in 200 ml solution

Back 197

b. 75 g glucose in 300 ml solution

Front 198

Which is not a test in a cardiac enzyme profile:
a. CK
b. AST
c. LDH
d. CPR
e. CK isoenzymes

Back 198

d. CPR

Front 199

Which hormone test would not be done on 24-hour urine:
a. catecholamines
b. VMA
c. estradiol
d. metanephrines
e. insulin

Back 199

e. insulin

Front 200

Which test does not give information about erthyrocytes:
a. malaria smears
b. RBC count
c. APTT
d. ESR
e. hemoglobin

Back 200

c. APTT

Front 201

Which method is acceptable to discard a used needle:
a. discard whole needle into puncture -proof container
b. cut needle and discard into puncture proof container
c. bend needle and discard into puncture proof container
d. discard into biohazard bag
e. discard into regular garbage

Back 201

a. discard whole needle into puncture proof container

Front 202

Serum left sitting on the clot in a centrifuged red top will have a higher than normal:
a. glucose
b. protein
c. albumin
d. potassium
e. phosphorus

Back 202

d. potassium

Front 203

Blood smears must be made from vacutainers containing the anti-coagulant:
a. heparin
b. potassium oxalate
c. EDTA
d. sodium citrate
e. sodium fluoride

Back 203

C. EDTA

Front 204

Icteric serum contains high amounts of:
a. bacteria
b. protein
c. hemolyzed RBC
d. bilirubin
e. c & d

Back 204

d. bilirubin

Front 205

What is normal flora:
a. one that affects the nose only
b. a contagious disease passed from physician to patient
b. a disease which affects the skin
c. harmless non pathogenic micro-organisms which live on the body
e. an airborne infection

Back 205

d. harmless non pathogenic micro-organisms which live on the body

Front 206

Romanowsky stain contains:
a. methylene blue
b. iodine
c. eosin
d. safranin
e. a & c

Back 206

e. a& c

Front 207

Which is not a type of Romanowsky stain:
a. giesma
b. may-grunwald
c. wright's
d. new methylene blue
e. leishman's

Back 207

d. new methylene blue

Front 208

Blood gases:
a. the specimen is tested within 24 hours
b. the specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
c. the specimen is a venous sample
d. the specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
e. none of the above

Back 208

e. none of the above

Front 209

CCMSU is:
a. an x-ray
b. another name for a heart attack
c. a clean catch mid stream urine
d. collected in a sterile container
e. c & d
a. an e

Back 209

c. a clean catch mid stream urine

Front 210

Blood films are not fixed before staining because:
a. they are fixed with heat after staining
b. they are fixed with phosphate buffer during staining
c. blood cells do not require fixing
d. wright's stain contains methanol, which does the fixing
e. the anti-coagulant EDTA acts as a fixing agent

Back 210

d. wright's stain contains methanol, which does the fixing

Front 211

Glacial acetic cid is stored:
a. under water
b. with alkalis and other reactive chemicals
c. in glass stoppered bottles
d. in a safety cabinet
e. in plastic bottles away from water

Back 211

d.in a safety cabinet

Front 212

A buffer is made from mixing a:
a. strong acid and strong base
b. weak acid or base with salt
c. salt with organic acid
d. weak acid with a weak base
e. none of the above

Back 212

d. weak acid with a weak base

Front 213

Which is not paart of the large intestine:
a. rectum
b. duodenum
c. cecum
d. sigmoid colon
e. veriform appendix

Back 213

b. duodenum

Front 214

14.37 mg equals:
a. 1437 ug
b. 1.437 dg
c. 143.7 ug
d. 0.01437 g
e. b & c

Back 214

d.0.01437 g

Front 215

Universal precautions are guidelines for handling:
a. all body fluid
b. dangerous chemicals
c. patients with suppressed immune system
d. patieents with infectious disease
e. blood and blood products

Back 215

a. all body fluids

Front 216

A blood film that is too thick will result when:
a. a dirty spreader is used
b. a jerky motion is used
c. an angle of 15 degrees is used
d. too big a drop of blood is used
e. c & d

Back 216

d. too big a drop of blood is used

Front 217

A volumetric pipette:
a. gives critical measurements
b. is made of Class A standards
c. has a bulged out portion in the middle
d. is calibrated TD
e. all of the above

Back 217

e. all of the above

Front 218

The test most affected by haaving the tourniquet on for more than 1.5 min is the:
a. calcium
b. RBC count
c. PT
d. glucose
e. WBC count
f. a & b

Back 218

f. a & b

Front 219

Physiologiical saline is prepared by mixing:
a. distilled water and sea water
b. distilled water and hypochlorite
c. tap waater and hypochlorite
d. distilled water and sodium chloride
e. distilled water and HCL

Back 219

d. distilled water and sodium chloride

Front 220

Which is not an organ of the endocrine system:
a. pancreas
b. thymus
c. spleen
d. ovaries
e. thyroid

Back 220

c. spleen

Front 221

The secretion from the lungs which is tested for malignant cells is called:
a. spittle
b. semen
c. saliva
d. sputum
e. synovial fluid

Back 221

d. sputum

Front 222

A patient with a highly contagious lung infection would be hospitalized in:
a. reverse isolation
b. wound and skin precautions isolation
c. respiratory isolation
d. enteric isolation
e. standard ward

Back 222

c. respiratory isolation

Front 223

Defibrinated blood is prepared by:
a. refrigeration overnight
b. adding an anti-coagulant
c. mixing with glass beads
d. stirring with glass rod
e. c & d

Back 223

e. c & d

Front 224

Blood passing through the left atrium would next enter the:
a. aorta
b. right atrium
c. left ventricle
d. left lung
e. right ventricle

Back 224

c. left ventricle

Front 225

Th instrument used to measure urine hydrogen ion concentration is a:
a. pH meter
b. coulter counter
c. microscope
d. spectrophotometer
e. refractometer

Back 225

a. pH meter

Front 226

Sterilization by dry heat is done at:
a. 100 degrees C
b. 121 degrees C
c. 150 degrees C
d. 160 degrees C
e. 250 degrees C

Back 226

d. 160 degrees c

Front 227

Anemia:
a. decreased hemoglobin or red blood cell production
b. increased hemoglobin or red blood cell production
c. morphological changes in red blood cells
d. involved in clotting factor
e. a & c

Back 227

e. a & c

Front 228

Which specimen does not require special diet restrictions:
a. stool for c & s
b. 72- hour fecal fat
c. stool for occult blood
d. 24-hour urine for 5H1AA

Back 228

a. stool for c & s

Front 229

A stool for O & P is collected into a:
a. sterile jar
b. jar container SAF fluid
c. jar container 10% formalin
d. metal can
e. clean dry jar

Back 229

b. jar container SAF fluid

Front 230

How should a capillary tube be sealed when performing a microhematocrit:
a. both ends are sealed at a 45 degree angle to the clay
b. the end used to collect the blood is sealed
c. the clean end is sealed at a 45 degree angle to the clay
d. the clean end is sealed at a 90 degree angle to the clay
e. the capillary tube is not sealed

Back 230

d. the clean end is sealed at a 90 degree angle to the clay

Front 231

Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection:
a. testing is done in chemistry
b. a preservative may be used for some tests
c. collections during the night are discarded
d. the !st timed specimen is discarded
e. the last timed specimen is included

Back 231

c. collections during the night are discarded

Front 232

Round bacteria which grow in clusters called:
a. spirochetes
b. streptococci
c. bacillococci
d. diplococci
e. staphylococci

Back 232

e. staphylococci

Front 233

Which is used to preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing:
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. oxalic acid
c. hypochlorite acid
d. sodium hypochlorite
e. acetone

Back 233

c. hypochloric acid

Front 234

Which test would not be performed in immunohematolory:
a. crossmatch
b. group and Rh
c. reticulocyte count
d. coomb's direct
e. ABO testing

Back 234

c. reticulocyte count

Front 235

Which type of water is most chemically pure:
a. tap water
b. spring water
c. de-ionized water
d. distilled water
e. soda water

Back 235

C. de-ionized water

Front 236

Quality control ensures:
a. more safety for lab personnel
b. more safety for patients
c. more reliable test results
d. normal test results
e. decreased infection for patients and staff

Back 236

c. more reliable tests

Front 237

Billirubin:
a. increased in patients with jaundice
b. produced from broken down RBC
c. increased in babies with HDN(hemolytic disease of the newborn)
d. sensitive to light
e. all of the above

Back 237

e. all of the above

Front 238

I will pass the OSMT Certification Exam:
a. true
b. false
c. not sure

Back 238

GOOD LUCK!!!

Front 239

Which statement best describes what privacy legislation deals with:
a. a private lab number
b. the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information
c. the privacy of the health care worker
d. the privatization of provincial health care
e. the control of private health care

Back 239

b. the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information

Front 240

Which of the following best describes what is meant when we say a profession is regulated:
a. entry into the profession is controlled by an organization
b. there is a pro0vincial legislation defining who can practice
c. there are standards of practice members of the profession must meet
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

Back 240

d. all of the above

Front 241

Medicare:
a. a private insurance system
b. Canada's national health insurance program
c. a representative of health professionals
d. a regulating organization
e. a canadian private lab

Back 241

b. Canada's national health insurance program

Front 242

The term "statute" is interchangeable with the word________.
a. act
b. legislation
c. bill
d. chapter
e. title

Back 242

a. act

Front 243

A supplier label is not required on a controlled product if_______
a. the product originates from a laboratory supply house
b. is packaged in a container less than 50kg
c. is intended by employer solely for use in a laboratory
d. a, b, c are correct
e. a & c are correct

Back 243

e. a & c are correct

Front 244

According to regulation 682, a medical lab technician is defined as:
a. a person who under general supervision, performs tests which require independant judgement
b. a person responsible for administration of technical and scientific lab operations
c. a person who under direct supervision performs tests which require limited skills and responsibility
d. a person who may perform specialized scientific tests
e. a person who may perform routine and microscopic urine

Back 244

c. a person who under direct supervision performs tests which require limited skill and responsibility

Front 245

Which of the following tasks falls within the scope of practice of a lab tech:
a. preparation of samples prior to testing
b. quality control maintainence of lab instruments
c. maintenance of laboratory records
d. interpretation of lab results
e. arterial blood gas collection

Back 245

a. preparation of samples prior to testing

Front 246

Dangerous goods are assigned a UN number. Which of the following describes what a UN number is:
a. it is a provincial number
b. it is a 4 digit United Nations number
c. it is the same as the class number
d. it is only used for dangerous chemicals
e. it is assigned by the transport company

Back 246

b. it is a 4 digit United Nations number

Front 247

Which of the following statements is true regarding personal information about patients:
a. ptients personal information may be disussed during coffee break
b. must never be discussed outside the hospital
c. may be discussed with other patients
d. may be used for your personal advantage
e. may be discussed with all family members

Back 247

b. must never be discussed outside the hospital

Front 248

Lines of authority are important. The MLA's immediate line of authority is:
a. registered nurse
b. the hospital physician
c. the medical lab technologist
d. a peer
e. laboratory manager

Back 248

e. the medical lab technologist

Front 249

A patient requests tests results from the MLA. WHich of the following statements represents the appropriate course of action to be taken by the MLA:
a. the MLA should give the patient the results, it is the patient's right
b. the MLA can call the patient at home
c. the MLA tells the patient it is not his/her job
d. the MLA refers the request to the supervisor
e. the MLA tells the patient the results were lost, call back

Back 249

d. the MLA refers the request to the supervisor

Front 250

The responsibility of compliance with the Act and Regulations of the OHSA is placed upon:
a. officers and directors of a corporation
b. the public
c. the employee
d. health and safety commitee
e. lab supervisor

Back 250

c. the employee

Front 251

The disclosure of the source of toxicological data from a controlled product produced in a workplace may be requested by:l
a. an inspector
b. a worker at the workplace
c. member of health and saftey commitee
d. health and safety rep.
e. all of the above

Back 251

e. all of the above

Front 252

Positive lab findings indicate the presence of a communicable disease within the meaning of the Health Protection and Promotion Act, are to be reported to the medical officer of health within:
a. one week
b. 24 hours
c. one month of testing
d. time is not a factor
e. at the supervisors discretion

Back 252

b. 24 hours

Front 253

When citing the Insurance Act, an insurer may request that the laboratory test a human specimen for:
a. glucose levels
b. heart disease markers
c. any test requested
d. HIV antibody
e. all communicable diseases

Back 253

d. HIV antibody

Front 254

Which of the following best describes a bill:
a. a proposed act that is before the legislative assembly
b. a law made by a person or boddy whose authority to make the law is set out in the act
c. requirements of an employer
d. passed after one reading
e. created in response to Canadian workers

Back 254

a. a proposed act that is before the legislative assembly

Front 255

Which of the following statements best completes the following? The endeavour of the MLA to maintain and improve their skills is:
a. part of quality management
b. the knowledge of standards
c. mandated by the code of ethics
d. testing procedures
e. professional regulation

Back 255

f. mandated by the code of ethics

Front 256

The definition of basic knowledge for the MLA/T is:
a. performm tests requiring judgement
b. knowledge of all lab instrumentation
c. knowledge of interpretive procedures
d. phlebotomy only
e. entry-level comprehension of theoretical basis

Back 256

b. knowledge of all lab instrumentation

Front 257

The type of agent used in the medical office to destroy microorganisms depends upon:
a. the type and number of microorganisms present
b. the size of the article
c. what the article consists of
d. the weight of the article
e. all of the above
f. a & c
g. a, c & d

Back 257

f. a& c

Front 258

Which of the following is true regarding a bacterial spore:
a. all bacteria forms spores
b. a spore consists of a hard, thick walled capsule
c. spores represent a resting and protective stage
d. spores can be destroyed by disinfectants
e. all of the above
f. b & c
g. a, b, & c
h. a,c and d

Back 258

f. b and c

Front 259

Something that is sterile is:
a. free of all pathopgens
b. free from all living microorganisms
c. free from all living microorganisms and spores
d. free of all nonpathogens

Back 259

c. free from all living microorganisms

Front 260

Which of the following agents will result in sterilization:
a. autoclave
b. sanitiation
c. chemical disinfectants
d. dry heat oven
e. all of the above
f. a and d
g. a, b, and d

Back 260

f. a and d

Front 261

What is the name given to a substance that kills disease-producing microorganisms/not spores and is generally applied to inanimate objects:
a. a disinfectant
b. an antiseptic
c. an antibiotic
d. a fungicide

Back 261

a. a disinfectant

Front 262

Which of the following is a common use of an antiseptic:
a. to cleanse surgical instruments
b. for application to cuts and abrasions
c. to cleanse laboratory work tables in the medical office
d. for application to the skin before a surgical incision is made
e. all of the above
f. b and d
g. a, b, and c

Back 262

f. b and d

Front 263

Which of the following is a function of sanitation:
a. to remove gross contaminants such as blood
b. to remove all pathogens and non pathogens
c. to disinfect articles
d. to lower the number of microorganisms
e. all of the above
f. a and d
g. a, b and d

Back 263

f. a and d

Front 264

If an article cannot be sterilized immediately, it should be:
a. placed in boiling water for 10 mins
b. placed in an antiseptic solution
c. rinsed off and placed in a
soaking solution
d. placed in the autoclave for 5 mins

Back 264

c. rinsed off and placed in a soaking solution

Front 265

An object should be boiled for at least:
a. 5 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 1 hour

Back 265

c. 30 mins

Front 266

A mild rolling boil is recommended because a vigorous boil will:
a. reduce the killing power of water
b. cause a calcium deposit to build up on the article
c. cause rusting of the metal instruments
d. reduce the water content through evaporation

Back 266

d. reduce the water content through evaporation

Front 267

Boiling can be used to disinfect which of the following:
a. ear spatula
b. thermometers
c. auraln specula
d. stethoscopes
e. all of the above
f. a and c
g. a, c and d

Back 267

f. a and c

Front 268

What is the most widely used sterilization method in the medical office:
a. the dry heat oven
b. chemical sterilization
c. the autoclave
d. boiling

Back 268

c. the autoclave

Front 269

An autoclave operates on the basis of:
a. free flowing steam
b. chemicals
c. steam under pressure
d. sound waves

Back 269

c. steam under pressure

Front 270

Why is it important for all air to be removed from the autoclave during the sterilization process:
a. air causes moisture to condense on the packs
b. air reduces the teperature in the autoclave
c. air prevents adequate steam penetration of the packs
d. air causes cracking of the glassware

Back 270

b. air reduces the temperature in the autoclave

Front 271

The medical assistant should not startb timing the autoclave until:
a.mthe sterilization indicator changes color
b. the desired temperature for the autoclave is reached
c. the pressure reaches 15 lbs per square inch
d. steam enters the inner sterilizing chamber
e. b and c

Back 271

e. b and c

Front 272

The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave :
a. depends upon the type of autoclave being used
b. depends upon what is being autoclaved
c. depends upon the type of indicator being used
d. is approximately 15 to 20 minutes

Back 272

b. depends upon what is being autoclaved

Front 273

What type of water should be used in an autoclave:
a. salt water
b. distilled water
c. tap water
d. mineral water

Back 273

b. distilled water

Front 274

The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is:
a. 320 degrees F at 20 pounds of pressure per square inch
b. 145 degrees F at 20 pounds of pressure per square inch
c. 212 degrees F at 15 ponds of pressure per suare inch
d. 250 degrees F at 15 pounds of pressure per square inch

Back 274

d. 250 degrees F at 15 pounds of pressure per square inch

Front 275

Wrapped articles that have been sterilized musst be allowed to dry before removing them from the autoclave because wet packs will cause:
a. rusting of metal instruments
b. tearing of the wrapper
c. microrganisms to be drawn into the pack
d. inaccurate results on the sterilization indicator
e. all of the above

Back 275

c. microorganisms to be drawn into the pack

Front 276

The insid eof the autoclave should be washed everyday with what:
a. a mild detergent
b. a disinfectant¸
c. an antiseptic distilled water
d. a scouring pad

Back 276

a. a mild detergent

Front 277

What is the purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave:
a. to allow better steam penetration during autoclaving
b. to protect the articles from recontamination during handling and storage
c. to ensure complete destruction of all pathogens
d. to allow the sterilization package to be opened without contaminating the contents
e. all of the above
f. b and d
g. b, c and d

Back 277

f. b and d

Front 278

The wrapper used to autoclave articles should:
a. prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage
b. to be made of a substance that will not tear
c. made by a substance not affected by the sterilization process
d. allows steam to penetrate it
e. all of the above

Back 278

e. all of the above

Front 279

What should the medical assistant do if she is getting ready to wrap an instrument and discovers the wrapper has a hole:
a. repair the hole with adhesive tape
b. wrap the instrument, ignoring the hole as sterilizing will still take place
c. obtain a new wrapper
d. none of the above

Back 279

c. obtain a new wrapper

Front 280

How should articles be packed in the autoclave:
a. close together so more articles can be sterilized at one time
b. criss-crossed with one on top of another
c. loosely with 1 to 3 inches between all articles and surrounding walls
d. on their sides

Back 280

c. loosely with 1 to 3 inches between all articles and surrounding walls

Front 281

How should jars and glassware be positioned in the autoclave:
a. in an upright position with lids removed
b. on their sides with lids removed
c. on their sides with lids on
d. in an upright position with lids on

Back 281

b. on their sides with lids removed

Front 282

What is the purpose of sterilization indicators:
a. to check against improper wrapping of articles
b. to check for improper loading of the autoclave
c. to check for the presence of air in the autoclave
d. to check to make sure the autoclave is working properly
e. all of the above

Back 282

d. to check to make sure the autoclave is working properly

Front 283

Where should Sterilometer strips be positioned:
a. on the bottom shelf of the autoclave
b. in close proximity to the aur exhaust valve
c. in the center of each article
d. on the outside of each pack

Back 283

c. in the center of each article

Front 284

The most reliable sterilization indicators check for:
a. the attainment of the proper temperature and the duration of the teperature
b. weither the article has been autoclaved or not
c. the attainment of the proper temperature and pressure
d. the presence of trapped air in the autoclave

Back 284

c. the attainment of the proper temperature and pressure

Front 285

Autoclave tape:
a. assures wheither or not sterilization has taken place
b. indicates wheither or not the article has been in the autoclave
c. can only be used to close the pack
d. indicates if the autoclave is broken

Back 285

b. indicates wheither or not the article has been in the autoclave

Front 286

Commercially prepared sterilization indicators containing a thermolabile dye will:
a. cause a wax pellet to melt when sterilizatiin has taken place
b. turn cloudy when sterilization has taken place
c. change color when a sterilization article has been in a storage cabinet for more than 4 weeks
d. change color when the correct combination of time, temperature, and steam have been met

Back 286

d. change color when the correct combination of time, temperature, and steam have been met

Front 287

Which of the following is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process:
a. steam clox indicators
b. culture tests
c. sterilometers-thermolabile strips
d. sealed glass tubes containing a wax pellet
e. autoclave tape

Back 287

b. culture tests

Front 288

Sterilized articles wrapped in disposable paper of muslin are considered sterile for a maximun period of:
a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 3 months

Back 288

b. 4 weeks

Front 289

Whichj of the following must be rewrapped and resterilized:
a. a pack wrapped in muslin
b. a torn pack
c. an open pack
d. a wet pack
e. all of the above
f. b, c, and d

Back 289

f. b, c, and d

Front 290

Which of the following factors should be observed during incineration:
a. make sure complete burning takes place
b. wrap grossly contaminated items in a plastic bag before burning
c. make sure the temperature reaches 250 degrees F
d. make sure all articles are sanitized before burning
e. all of the above
f. a and b

Back 290

f. a and b

Front 291

A longer exposure time is needed for a dry heat oven because:
a. dry heat has limited killing action
b. dry heat ovens can only reach
a maximum temperature of 200 degrees F
c. dry heat penetrates slowly and unevenly
d. microorganisms and spores are more resistant to dry heat
e. all of the above
f. c and d

Back 291

f. c and d

Front 292

The dry heat oven is a good way to sterilize because:
a. it does a better job than other methods of killing the pathogens on needles
b. it wont dull needles
c. it wont cause the needle to break
d. it does not cause rusting of the needle

Back 292

b. it wont dull the needles

Front 293

Why shouldn't a dry heat oven be opened during the sterilization procedure:
a. glassware may break
b. the oven will cool and sterilization may not be complete
c. microorganisms may ednter the oven resulting in contamination
d. the oven may be damaged
e. all of the above

Back 293

b. the oven will cool and sterilization may not be complete

Front 294

Chemical disinfectants are used to disinfect:
a. instruments and supplies which penetrate the body tissues
b. instruments and supplies that come in contact with the skin
c. instruments that are inserted into a sterile body cavity such as the urinary bladder
d. instruments and supplies that are shallowly inserted into a body orifice
e. all of the above
f. b and d

Back 294

f. b and d

Front 295

Which of the following is the most effective disinfectant:
a. 50% ethyl alcohol (ethenol)
b. 60% ethyl alcohol
c. 70% ethyl alcohol
d. 100% ethyl alcohol

Back 295

c. 70% ethyl alcohol

Front 296

Alcohol is commonly used to disinfect:
a. clinical thermometers
b. stethoscopes
c. percussion hammers
d. surgical instruments
e. all of the above
f. a, b and c

Back 296

f. a, b and c

Front 297

The method of sterilization that utilizes steam under pressure is:

Back 297

Moist heat autoclaving

Front 298

Sterilization method that requires 350 degrees F for 2 hours is:

Back 298

Dry heat autoclaving

Front 299

What type of gas is used in chemical autoclaving:

Back 299

Ethylene oxide

Front 300

Define sanitation:

Back 300

Washing to remove physical contamination

Front 301

Define medical asepsis:

Back 301

Free of pathogens and of infections

Front 302

If an article penetrates the skin it first must be:

Back 302

Sterilized

Front 303

If an article is for the exterior of the body or a natural opening without mucus it must be:

Back 303

Disinfected

Front 304

Why is dry ice considered a hazardous material:

Back 304

It burns, suffocates ,and can explode

Front 305

WHen working with carcinogens, you should:
a. perform procedure in a lamiar flow hood
b. mouth pipette
c. wear stainless steel gloves
d. wash hand swith soap and hot water when finished
e. wear safety googles

Back 305

a. perform procedure in a lamiar flow hood

Front 306

Which statement is true regarding radiation hazard
a. radiation guidelines are set by food and drug act
b. radiation is not transferred into the body
c. radiation does not affect a fetus
d. radiation acccidents may be difficult to recognize
e. large amounts of radiation are used in the RIA department

Back 306

d. radiation accidents may be difficult to recognize

Front 307

In order to burn fire requires everything except:
a. oxygen
b. fuel
c. CO'2
d. heat
e. a and d

Back 307

c. CO'2

Front 308

Class C fires involve:
a. paper, wood
b. flammable liquids
c. combustible metals
d. electrical equipment
e. fabrics and oils

Back 308

d. electrical equipment

Front 309

How often should a fire extinguisher be recharged:
a. weekly
b. monthly
c. quarterly
d. bi-annually
e. yearly

Back 309

e. yearly

Front 310

The guidelines which cover prevention of infection from all body fluids is:
a. SP
b. UP
c. CSMLS
d. CDC
e. WHMIS

Back 310

a. SP

Front 311

What does BSP stand for:

Back 311

Body standard Procautions

Front 312

The common antiseptic that destroys HIV and HBV is:
a. 70% isopropyl alcohol
b. 1 % hypochlorite
c. 2 % glutaraldehyde
d. iodine/chlorohexidine
e. lysol
F. b and d

Back 312

f. b and d

Front 313

2% glutaraldehyde:
a. will decontaminate metal surfaces
b. is made fresh daily
c. is a good antiseptic
d. is not affective against bacteria
e. b and c

Back 313

a. will decontaminate metal surfaces

Front 314

A centrifuge is decontaminated:
a. after every use
b. at the end of each work shift
c. daily
d. weekly
e. only when tube breakage occurs
f. b, c and d

Back 314

f. b, c and d

Front 315

Which biological waste is not terminally sterilized prior to disposal:
a. blood clots
b. urine
c. feces
d. sputum
e. tissue

Back 315

b. urine

Front 316

Incineration is the preferred method to use prior to disposal of the following:
a. urine
b. blood
c. feces
d. serum
e. c and d

Back 316

c. feces

Front 317

What solution is used to clean up biohazardous spills on the floor:
a. dettol
b. lysol
c. 70% alcohol
d. iodine
e. 1 % hypochlorite (bleach)

Back 317

e. 1 % hypochlorite (bleach)

Front 318

Which safety equipment is not needed when measuring out a volume of strong base:
a. safety googles
b. laminar flow hood
c. propipette
d. rubber bottle carrier
e. fume hood

Back 318

b. laminar flow hood

Front 319

What factor is not considered when storing chemicals:
a. flammability
b. light sensitivity
c. heat sensitivity
d. explosive properties
e. solubility

Back 319

e. solubility

Front 320

Acids are stored:
a. with bases
b. in plastic air-tight bottles
c. in metal safety cans
d. in glass stoppered bottles in a drip tray
e. with other reactive chemicals

Back 320

d. in glass stoppered bottles in a drip tray

Front 321

Which statement is false regarding reactive chemicals:
a. they include picric acid and sodium azide
b. oxidizers are stored separate from reducers
c. some may rwact with water
d. always add water to acid
e. protect reactive chemicals from sunlight and heat

Back 321

d. always add water to acid

Front 322

Which chemicals are most highly flammable:
a. strong oxidizers
b. strong reducers
c. organic solvents
d. acids

Back 322

c. organic solvents

Front 323

Which statement is true regarding picric acid:
a. it is stored under ether
b. it is stored in a plastic bottle
c. it is stored under water
d. it contains mercury
e. it has no special storage requirements

Back 323

c. it is stored under water

Front 324

Which reagent contains mercury:
a. crystal violet
b. picric acid
c. Zenker's fluid
d. Bouin's fluid
e. Drabkin's reagent

Back 324

e. Drabkin's reagent

Front 325

Ether is stored:
a. in a full air tight bottle
b. in a safety can in the dark
c. under water
d. in the refridgerator
e. a and b

Back 325

e. a and b

Front 326

When handling strong acids:
a. always add water to acid
b. always add acid to water
c. keep the acid bottle above eye level when pouring
d. wear latex gloves
e. two of the above

Back 326

b. always add acid to water

Front 327

MSDS stands for:
a. material safety data system
b. managing safe detail sheet
c. material safety data sheet
d. maintaining safe delivery standards
e. more stupidity decreases safety

b.

Back 327

c. material safety data sheet

Front 328

Which area of an MSDS would refer to storage of a chemical:
a. preventative measures
b. physical data
c. reactivity data
d. toxicological properties
e. b and d

Back 328

a. preventative measures

Front 329

TLV is:
a. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for a short time without effect
b. dose of substance given to test animals that kills half of them
c. concentration in air that kills half of test animals exposed to it
d. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for 8 hours a day 40 hours a week without adverse effect
e. Toxic Legal Volume

Back 329

d. concentration of a substance a worker can be exposed to for 8 hours a day 40 hours a week without adverse effect

Front 330

TLV stands for:

Back 330

Threshold limit value

Front 331

TLV-S.T.E.V. is:
a. concentration of substance a worker can e exposed to for a short time without effect
b. dose of substance given to test animals that kills half of them
c. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for 8 hours a day 40 hours a week without adverse effect
e. toxic legal volume

Back 331

a. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for a short time without effect

Front 332

LD. 50 is:
a. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for a short time without effect
b. dose of substance given to test animals that kills half of them
c. concentration in air that kills half the test animals exposed to it
d. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for 8 hours a day 40 hours a week without adverse effect
e. toxic legal volume

Back 332

b. dose of substance given to test animals that kills half of them

Front 333

LC. 50 is:
a. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for short time without effect
b. dose of substance given to test animals that kills half of them
c. concentration in air that kills half of test animals exposed to it
d. concentration of substance a worker can be exposed to for 8 hours a day 40 hours a week without adverse effect
e. toxic legal volume

Back 333

c. concentration in air that kills half of test animals exposed to it

Front 334

An MSDS is valid:
a. for one year
b. for two years
c. for three years
d. until new information becomes available
e. c or d, which ever comes first

Back 334

e. c or d, which ever comes first

Front 335

OSMT means:

Back 335

Ontario Society of Medical Technologists

Front 336

CMLTO means:

Back 336

College of Medical Lab Technologists of Ontario

Front 337

CDC means:

Back 337

Center of Disease Control

Front 338

CSMLS means:

Back 338

Canadian Society of Med Lab Scientists

Front 339

1% hypochlorite:
a. is a sterilizing agent
b. will destroy all viruses
c. is affective against spore forming bacteria
d. can disinfect metal surfaces if a water rinse is done
e. c and d

Back 339

e. c and d

Front 340

What solution is used to clean up biohazardous spills:
a. dettol
b. lysol
c. 70% ethyl alcohol
d. iodine
e. 1% hypochlorite

Back 340

e. 1% hypochlorite

Front 341

What type of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires:
a. type a
b. type b
c. type c
d. type d
e. type e

Back 341

b. type b

Front 342

The cabinet giving the highest personal, environment and specimen protection is a:
a. class lV biological safety cabinet
b. class lll biological safety cabinet
c. class ll biological safety cabinet
d. class l biological safety cabinet
e. fume hood

Back 342

b. class lll biological safety cabinet

Front 343

A patient with lung cancer is receiving chemotherapy. He would be hospitalized in:
a. enteric isoloation
b. respiratory isolation
c. recerse isolation
d. strict isolation
e. a standard ward setting

Back 343

c. reverse isolation

Front 344

Which is not required when visiting a patient in enteric isolation:
a. mask
b. gown
c. sterile equipment
d. gloves
e. a and c

Back 344

e. a and c

Front 345

What reagent is mutagenic/clastogenic:
a. crystal violet
b. picric acid
c. Zenker's fluid
d. brazil fixative
e. two of the above

Back 345

b. crystal violet

Front 346

What piece of equipment will protect you from a chemical hazard:

Back 346

Fume hood

Front 347

What piece of equipment will protect you from biological hazards:

Back 347

Biological safety cabinet

Front 348

Name three common corrosive substances:

Back 348

sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, and nitric acid

Front 349

Reactive substances:
a. may explode
b. may ignite or burn
c. may give off poisons
d. may cause serious burns
e. all of the above

Back 349

e. all of the above

Front 350

Flammable substances:
a. ignite at emperatures below 37.8 degrees C
b. ignite at temperatures above 37.8 degrees C
c. must be stored in a safety can or cabinet
d. must be identified as flammable
e. a, c, and d
f. b and c

Back 350

e. a, c, and d

Front 351

Combustible substances: a. have a flash point below 37.8 degrees C
b. have a flash point above 37.8 degrees C
c. must be stored in a safety can or cabinet
d. are not dangerous
e. a, c and d
f. b and c

Back 351

f. b and c

Front 352

Which of the following is not an example of a microorganism:
a. autotroph
b. bacteria
c. virus
d. fungi
e. protozoa

Back 352

a. autotroph

Front 353

What is a term used to describe microorganism that does not produce disease:
a. normal flora
b. aseptic
c. nonpathogen
d. apathogen
e. pathogen

Back 353

c. nonpathogen

Front 354

What is the name given to a microorganism that can exist only in the presence of owygen:
a. anaerobe
b. oxygenophile
c. aerobe
d. autotroph
e. heterotrophy

Back 354

c. aerobe

Front 355

What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his body:
a. reservoir host
b. resistant host
c. contagious host
d. susceptible host
e. immune host

Back 355

d. susceptible host

Front 356

Cilia prevent the entrance of pathogens into the body by:
a. providing an acidic environment
b. engulfing pathogens
c. trapping microorganisms
d. constantly beating towards the outside
e. discouraging growth of pathogens

Back 356

d. constantly beating towards the outside

Front 357

What is the term used to describe practices which help keep an object or area clean and free from infection:
a. medical asepsis
b. surgical asepsis
c. pathogenic
d. non-pathogenic
e. sterilization

Back 357

a. medical asepsis

Front 358

Which of the following are picked up in the course of daily activities:
a. blood borne pathogens
b. transient flora
c. normal flora
d. opportunistic infections
e. resident flora

Back 358

b. transient flora

Front 359

Which of the following is an example of regulated waste:
a. disposable ear speculum
b. patient gown
c. sterile dressings
d. empty medicine bottles
e. blood tube

Back 359

e. blood tube

Front 360

Autotroph:

Back 360

Inorganic

Front 361

Heterotroph:

Back 361

Organic

Front 362

Name the different catagories of microrganisms:

Back 362

bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa, and animal parasites

Front 363

Three protective mechanisms of the body are:

Back 363

Skin, mucus membrane, sweat, vaginal secretions

Front 364

Which of the following statements best describes what privacy legislation deals with:
A)a private lab number
B)the collection use and disclosure of personal information
C)the privatization of provincial health care
D) the privacy of the health care worker

Back 364

B) the collection use and disclosure of personal information

Front 365

A regulated profession is:
a)entry is controlled by a organization
b) there is a provincial legislation defining who can practice
c)there are standards of practice members of the profession must meet
d)all of the above

Back 365

d) all of the above

Front 366

Medicare is:
a)a private insurance system
b)Canada's national health insurance program
c)a representitive of health professionals
d)a regulating organization

Back 366

b)Canada's national health insurance program

Front 367

The term statute is interchangeable with the word:
a)act
b)legislation
c)bill
d)chapter

Back 367

a)act

Front 368

Supplier label is not required on controlled product if:
a) package originates from the lab supply house b)the package contains less than 50kg c)is intended by employer solely for use in the laboratory d)a&c

Back 368

d)a&c

Front 369

If a patient request lab results from an MLT they should:
a)give patient results
b)call patient at home
c)tell patient it's not his job
d)refer request to the supervisor
e)tell patient results were lost

Back 369

d)refer request to the supervisor

Front 370

What is a bill:
a) a proposed act that is before legislative assembly
b)a law
c)requirements of an employer
d)passed after one reading

Back 370

a)a proposed act that is before the legislative assembly

Front 371

The endeavour of the MLA to maintain and improve their skills is....
a)part of quality management
b)knowledge of standards
c)mandated by the code of ethics
d)testing procedures

Back 371

c)mandated by the code of ethics

Front 372

Buffered commmercial formalin is a solution of formaldehyde gas in water, approx:
a)10% gas by weight/volume
b)4% gas by weight volume
c)100% gas by weight volume
d)60% gas by weight volume
e)none of the above










































































































































































































































































































































































Buffered commercial formalin is a solution of formaldehyde, gas and water, approx:

Back 372

a)10% gas by weight volume

Front 373

Susceptibility testing:
a) measures how fast a pathogen can be destroyed
b) identifies type of organismin specimen
c) will determine effectiveness of drug therapy
d) produces a pure culture
e) determines the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy

Back 373

e) determines the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy

Front 374

In bacteriology, the following methods are used to obtain anaerobic condtitions:
a) gas pak
b) candle jar
c) glove box technigues
d) a & b
e) a & c

Back 374

d) a& b

Front 375

Platelets are:
a) thrombocytes
b) necessary for the clotting of blood
c) non nucleated
d) derived from megakaryocytes
e) all of the above

Back 375

e) all of the above

Front 376

Leukopoiesis is:
a) an increase in the production of white blood cells
b) the synthesis of white blood cells
c) non nucleated
d) the destruction of white blood cells
e) none of the above

Back 376

b) the synthesis of white cells

Front 377

During mitosis:
a) one cell gives rise to 2 cells of the same type
b) the nucleus undergoes changes and divides into two
c) cellular reproduction is achieved
d) all of the above
e) a and b only

Back 377

d) all of the above

Front 378

T cells are:
a) monocytes
b) neutrophils
c) lymphocytes
d) eosinophils
e) basophils

Back 378

c) lymphocytes

Front 379

SI units:
a) is a modern version of the metric system
b) is the International System of Units
c) is based on seven types of base units
d) provides information concerning the number of molecules in a compound
e) all of the above

Back 379

e) all of the above

Front 380

A term which means "without infection" is:
a) aseptic
b) septic
c) disinfectant
d) antibiotic
e) stasis

Back 380

a) aseptic

Front 381

Which reagent is used to embed tissue after processing:
a) permount
b) paraffin
c) xylene
d) formic acid
e) liquid nitrogen

Back 381

b) paraffin

Front 382

MSU means:
a) median standard urine
b) maximum strength urine
c) mid stream urine
d) maximum standard unit
e) minimum standard unit

Back 382

c) mid stream urine

Front 383

The anticoagulant contained in a green stoppered vacutainer is:
a) citrate
b) heparin
c) EDTA
d) fluoride
e) oxalate

Back 383

b) heparin

Front 384

Specimens which are not expected to be sterile in healthy individuals include:
a) blood ans cerebrospinal fluid
b) aspirated and catheterized urine
c) respiratory and gastrointestinal tract specimens
d) all of the above

Back 384

c) respiratory and gastrointestinal tract specimens

Front 385

Gycosylated hemoglobin is performed on the following sample:
a) serum
b) plasma
c) whole blood
d) urine
e) requires serum and urine

Back 385

c) whole blood

Front 386

A volumetric pipette is:
a) designed to deliver approximate volumes of fluid
b) found only in sizes of less than one ml
c) not very accurate
d) to deliver ( td ) type
e) used for whole blood only

Back 386

d) to deliver ( td ) type

Front 387

Creatine clearance:
a) is a liver function test
b) requires timed blood samples to be drawn
c) requires both serum and a 24
hour urine sample
d) requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
e) d & b

Back 387

c) requires both serum and a 24 hour urine sample

Front 388

The final colour of a gram negative organism is:
a) violet
b) pink
c) dark blue
d) tan
e) colourless

Back 388

b) pink

Front 389

You are staining blood films using Wright's stain and the methylene blue stain is too bright. What is the cause?
a) buffer is too basic
b) buffer is too acidic
c) the specimen is less than 4 hours old
d) the methylene blue stain is too old
e) the specimen was not fixed properly

Back 389

b) buffer is too acidic

Front 390

If a CBC specimen has hemolyzed plasma you know:
a) the test will not be accurate
b) the patient has hemolytic anemia
c) the buffy coat will be missing
d) only the differential will be accurate
e) the hematocrit result will be incorrect

Back 390

e) the hematocrit result will be incorrect

Front 391

The sedimentation rate in a hematocrit test is influenced by
a) rouleaux
b) cell cout
c) bench level vibration
d) atmospheric pressure
e) all of the above

Back 391

e) all of the above

Front 392

Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. What term best describes the potassium oxalate?
a) solution
b) solvent
c) solute
d) reagent
e) two of the above

Back 392

c) solute

Front 393

which is/are kidney function tests?
a) BUN
b) creatinine clearance
c) electrolyte profile
d) total protein
e) all of the above

Back 393

e) all of the above

Front 394

A pipette marked TC would be:
a) allowed to drain freely
b) marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
c) used for toxic, corrosive liquids
d) rinsed out after delivery

Back 394

d) rinsed out after delivery

Front 395

For quality processing of surgical biopsy material, the best procedure is to immediately place the tissue in the following as soon as it is removed from the patient is:
a) 10% formalin
b) 0.9% saline
c) refrigerator
d) PVA
e) 40% formalin

Back 395

a) 10% formalin

Front 396

The monitoring and assessment of all procedures from the time the patient's blood sample is obtained until the time the report is completed is called:
a) quality control
b) infecti9on control
c) good management
d) quality assurance
e) quality monitoring

Back 396

d) quality assurance

Front 397

The lancet size used when performing a heel puncture on a newborn is:
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.0 mm
c) 2.4 mm
d) 2.6 mm
e) 3.0 mm

Back 397

c) 2.4 mm

Front 398

The first drop of blood is wiped away after performing a capillary puncture to:
a) remove any pathogens that are present
b) increase3 blood flow to the area
c) remove the last traces of alcohol
d) remove any excess tissu3e fluid
e) two of the above

Back 398

c)remove the last traces of alcohol
d) remove any excess tissue fluid
e) two of the above

Front 399

Urine dipstick tests for bacteria detect the presence of:
a) nitrates
b) phosphates
c) nitrites
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

Back 399

c) nitrates

Front 400

Blood cellin a hypertonic solution will:
a) swell and burst
b) crenate
c) hemolyze
d) not be affected
e) stop mitosis

Back 400

b) crenate

Front 401

Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
a) acid-base
b) antigen-antibody
c) protein-SSA
d) lysing agent-RBC
e) proton-electron

Back 401

b) antigen-antibody

Front 402

The following urinalysis test results will be positive in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus:
a) nitrate and protein
b) glucose and ketone
c) glucose and nitrate
d) glucose and protein
e) protein and ketone

Back 402

b) glucose and ketone

Front 403

Acid phosphatase is an enzyme which increases in:
a) gout
b) kidney disease
c) liver disease
d) prostatic cancer
e) heart disease

Back 403

d) prostatic cancer

Front 404

Which of the following has the most influence onn the transparency of the cytoplasm on the Papanicolaou staining procedure:
a) hydration
b) blueing
c) differentiation
d) alcoholic counter stains
e) nuclear stains

Back 404

d) alcoholic counter stains

Front 405

An autoclave operates on the basis of:
a) free-following steam
b) chemicals
c) steam under pressure
d) sound waves
e) microwaves

Back 405

c) steam under pressure

Front 406

The recommended GTT glucose dose for a normal adult is:
a) 75 gm
b) 100gm
c) 50 gm
d) 1.75 g/kg
e) 150 gm

Back 406

a) 75 gm

Front 407

How should commercially prepared culture plates be stored?
a) in the freezer until several hours before use
b) inverted to prevent condensation dripping onto the media
c) at room temperature in a dark area of the lab
d) at a teperature of 2-4 degrees C
e) two of the above

Back 407

b) inverted to prevent condensation dripping onto the media

Front 408

The following may result in an excessively pink film when doing a Wright's stain of a peripheral blood smear:
a) thick blood film
b) over staining
c) high acidity of the stain
d) in adequate washing
e) excessive alkalinity of the staining solution

Back 408

c) high acidity of the stain

Front 409

Which of the following is usually used in evaluating a diabetic?
a) 2 hour PC glucose
b) acid phosphatase
c) GTT
d) cholesterol
e) a & c

Back 409

e) a and c

Front 410

Culture media which promotes the growth of one type of organism and rertards the growth of others is called:
a) differential media
b) enriched media
c) natural media
d) selective media
e) discriminating media

Back 410

d) selective media

Front 411

A refrigerator temperature of 4 degrees C is recommended
a) to store blood samples for up to 2 months
b) to stop bacteria growth
c) to reduce bacterial growth and and decrease cell metabolism
d) to store blood samples or up to one week
e) all of the above

Back 411

c) to reduce bacterial growth and decrease cell metabolism

Front 412

Mercury:
a) may be discarded down the sink with an abundance of running tap water following it
b) is found only in thermometers
c) forms a toxic vapor at room temperature
d) forms an explosive precipitate on standing
e) all of the above

Back 412

c) forms a toxic vapor at room temperature

Front 413

Amorphous urates:
a) form a white sediment in alkaline urine
b) disappear if the urine is heated
c) form a pink sediment in acidic urine
d) a and b are correct
e) b and c are correct

Back 413

e) b and c are correct

Front 414

Functions of red blood cells include:
a) taking up hemoglobin in the lungs
b) taking up oxygen in the lungs
c) transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs from the tissues
d) a and b
e) b and c

Back 414

e) b and c

Front 415

a scum or sheen of oxidized dye on the surface of a hemotoxylin solution indicates:
a) stain should be filtered before use
b) bacterial contamination
c) stain too ripe to use
d)stain too old to use
e) stain should be discarded

Back 415

a) stain should be filtered before use

Front 416

What disinfectant should be in a discard jar:
a) 5-10% sodium hydroxide
b) 1-2.5% sodium hypochlorite
c) 2-3.1% hydrochloric acid
d) 1-2.1% ferric chloride
e) 1-2% sodium acetate

Back 416

b) 1-2.5% sodium hypochlorite

Front 417

Which specimen would not be tested in the cytology department:
a) bowel biopsy
b) buccal smear
c) pleural fluid
d) breast fluid
e) sputum

Back 417

a) bowel biopsy

Front 418

Gross examination of tissue is:
a) macroscopic examination of tissue
b) microscopic examination of tissue
c) the performance of a necropsy
d) the cutting of tissue into very thin sections
e) b and d

Back 418

a) macroscopic examination of tissue

Front 419

Macroscopic means:

Back 419

Large enough to be seen or examined with the naked eye.

Front 420

What is a necropsy?

Back 420

A postmortem examination

Front 421

The volume of fixative in the specimen jar prepared for the operating room should ideally be approximately:
a) twice the volume of the tissue
b) three times the volume of the tissue
c) four times the volume of the tissue
d) ten times the volume of the tissue
e) volume is not important

Back 421

d) ten times the volume of the tissue

Front 422

The fluid most preferred for specimen jars forthe operating room is:
a) formalin and PVA
b) Bouin's fixative
c) 10% neutral buffered formalin
d) polyvinyl alcohol
e) PVA with mercuric chloride

Back 422

c) 10% neutral buffered formalin

Front 423

An anaerobic culture is required for which of the following specimens:
a) urine
b) brain abscess
c) stool
d) sputum
e) fungus

Back 423

b) brain abscess

Front 424

In Zeihl Neelsen stain the decolorizing agent is:
a) absolute alcohol
b) acetone
c) acid alcohol
d) xylol
e) 70% alcohol

Back 424

c) acid alcohol

Front 425

Heterophile antibodies can be detected by:
a) ABO typing
b) Rh and antibody screen
c) antiglobulin test
d) monoinucleosis test
e) indirect coomb's test

Back 425

d) mononucleosis test

Front 426

Physiological saline is:
a) 0.75% NaC1 in water
b) 0.80% NaC1 in water
c) 0.85% NaC1 in water
d) 0.90% NaC1 in water
e) either c or d

Back 426

e) either c or d

Front 427

A reticulocyte is:
a) an immature erythrocyte
b) an immature leukocyte
c) an erythrocyte with RNA
d) an indicator of erythropoiesis
e) a, c and d

Back 427

e) a, c and d

Front 428

When preparing a reticulocyte smear, the:
a) stain is dissolved in saline¸
b) technique is called supravital staining
c) dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
d) the stain and cells react for 15 minutes before making the smear
e) all of the above

Back 428

e) all of the above

Front 429

The functional unit of a kidney is:
a) Bowman's capsule
b) loop of Henle
c) glomerulus
d) nephron
e) glomerular tuft

Back 429

d) nephron

Front 430

A urine was positive forprotein by the dipstick test but negative by the sulphosalicylic acid method. The urine probably:
a) was very alkaline
b) contained a radio opaque dye
c) was very turbid
d) was strongly positive for keytones
e) was strongly positive for glucose

Back 430

a) was very alkaline

Front 431

How the body systems function is called:
a) anatomy
b) physiology
c) pathology
d) psychology
e) morphology

Back 431

b) physiology

Front 432

Before fixing tissue it must be:
a) dehydrated
b) cleared
c) embedded
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

Back 432

e) none of the above

Front 433

If the pH reading of a urine specimen is 8, the urine specimen is:
a) acidic
b) alkaline
c) negative
d) neutral
e) positive

Back 433

b) alkaline

Front 434

The tablet used for glucose testing in urine is:
a) clinitest
b) ictotest
c) acetest
d) SSA
e) TCA

Back 434

a) clinitest

Front 435

The tablet used for billiruben testing in urine is:
a) clinitest
b) ictotest
c) acetest
d) SSA
e) TCA

Back 435

b) ictotest

Front 436

The tablet used for keytone testing in urine is:
a) clinitest
b) ictotest
c) acetest
d) SSA
e) TCA

Back 436

c) acetest

Front 437

The tablet used for protein albumin in urine is:
a) clinitest
b) ictotest
c) acetest
d) SSA
e) TCA

Back 437

d) SSA

Front 438

The tablet used for drugs of abuse screen in urine is:
a) clinitest
b) ictotest
c) acetest
d) SSA
e) TCA

Back 438

e) TCA

Front 439

The following term indicates highest purity in a chemical:
a) purified grade
b) commercial grade
c) U.S.P. grade
d) chemically pure
e) analytical reagent grade

Back 439

e) analytical reagent grade

Front 440

The specific gravity of urine:
a) measures the pH
b) measures nitrates
c) measures the concentrating ability of the kidneys
d) measures bacterial contaminante
e) is usually less than water

Back 440

c) measures the concentrating ability of the kidneys

Front 441

To correct a thin blood smear the laboratory assistant will:
a) push the spreader faster
b) increase the size of the drop of blood
c) increase the angle between the speader and slide
d) b and c
e) a, b, and c

Back 441

d) b and c

Front 442

Tissue slide preparations submitted for microscopic examination:
a) are routinely stained with Wright's Giemsa stain
b) are cut at 4 to 6 microns
c) are infiltrated with paraffin wax
d) are cut on a cryostat
e) are cut at 4 to 6 mm

Back 442

b) are cut at 4 to 6 microns

Front 443

If a blood specimen is allowed to clot, the result is:
a) plasma plus cells
b) serum plus cells
c) anticoagulated blood
d) serum plus plasma
e) plasma plus fibrin

Back 443

b) serum plus cells

Front 444

The cells which contribute most to blood cloting are:
a) lymphocytes
b) platelets
c) red bood cells
d) white blood cells
e) neutrophils

Back 444

b) platelets

Front 445

Skin decontamination is best achieved using:
a) alcohol
b) iodine
c) soap and water
d) normal saline
e) hypochlorite solution

Back 445

b) iodine

Front 446

Susceptibility testing:
a) measures how fast a pathogen can be destroyed
b) identifies the type of organism in the specimen
c) determines the effectiveness of drug therapy
d) produce a pur culture
e) identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the pathogen

Back 446

e) identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the pathogen

Front 447

Serum left sitting on a clot in a centrifuged red top tube will have a higher than normal:
a) glucose
b) protein
c) albumin
d) potassium
e) phosphorus

Back 447

d) potassium

Front 448

A solution that would cause a cell to swell is called:
a) isotonic
b) salty
c) hypertonic
d) physiological
e) hypotonic

Back 448

e) hypotonic

Front 449

A stool for O & P is collected into a:
a) sterile jar
b) jar containing SAF fluid
c) jar containing 10% formalin
d) metal can
e) clean dry jar

Back 449

b) jar containing SAF fluid

Front 450

The instrument used to measure urine hydrogen concentration is a :
a) pH meter
b) coulter counter
c) microscope
d) spectrophotometer
e) refractometer

Back 450

a) ph meter

Front 451

Which test would not be performed in the blood bank:
a) cross match
b) group and Rh
c) ASOT
d) Coomb's test
e) ABO typing

Back 451

c) ASOT

Front 452

Bilibruben is:
a) increased in patients with jaundice
b) produced by broken down rbc's
c) increased in babies with HDN
d) sensitive to light
e) all of the above

Back 452

e) all of the above

Front 453

A buffer is:
a) weak acid or base with it's salt
b) weak acid with a weak base
c) the salt of a weak acid
d) weak acid with a strong base
e) none of the above

Back 453

a) weak acid or base with it's salt

Front 454

Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
a) diluted urine
b) sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
c) heated urine
d) refrigerated urine
e) supernatant of a centrifuged urine

Back 454

b) sediment suspension of centrifuged urine

Front 455

The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is:
a) use of hematoxylin with excess aluminum salts
b) use of hematoxylin with excess acid
c) differentiation in acid alcohol
d) wash in absolute alcohol after hematoxylin

Back 455

c) differentiation in acid alcohol

Front 456

The enzyme which is not usually assayed in a heart attack is:
a) CPK
b) SGOT
c) LDH
d) GTT
e) HBD

Back 456

d) GTT

Front 457

The most efficient organ for the removal of old red cells is the:
a) liver
b) bone marrow
c) thymus
d) spleen
e) kidney

Back 457

d) spleen

Front 458

On standing at room temperature, urine will:
a) turn alkaline
b) precipitate
c) increase in bacterial count
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

Back 458

d) all of the above

Front 459

Quality control in a laboratory is:
a) a formal surveillance process directed at perssonnel
b) a formal surveillance process directed at equipment
c) a forma lsurveillance process directed at materials
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

Back 459

d) all of the above

Front 460

The autoclave uses:
a) 12 psi at 115 degrees C
b) 15 psi at 112 degrees C
c) 112 psi at 120 degrees C
d) 15 psi at 121 degrees C
e) 100 psi at 121 degrees C

Back 460

d) 15 psi at 112 degrees C

Front 461

Ovens, water baths, incubators must have:
a) a device for controlling temperature
b) a built in thermometer
c) water circulation
d) an alarm system
e) test tube racks

Back 461

b) a built in thermometer

Front 462

The gram stain utilizes all of these, except:
a) methylene blue
b) safranin
c) gram's iodine
d) crystal violet
e) acetone

Back 462

e) acetone

Front 463

Anuria means a/an:
a) absence of urine formation
b) increase of urine excretion
c) marked increase of urine formation
d) increase of urinary crystals
e) decrease of urinary crystals

Back 463

a) absence of urine formation

Front 464

If all the air has not been expelled froman autoclave set to attain a teperature of 121 degrees C:
a) condensation will occur on solid surfaces
b) boiling over of liquid media will occur
c) a temperature of less than 121 degrees C will result
d) a temperature of greater than 121 degrees C will result
e) a decrease in chamber pressure will occur

Back 464

c) a temperature of less than 121 degrees C will result

Front 465

Sweat collected by iontophoresis is primarily for the diagnosis of:
a) muscular dystrophy
b) cystic fibrosis
c) sarcoma
d) pneumonia
e) infection

Back 465

b) cystic fibrosis

Front 466

Precision means a:
a) value falls within a narrow range around the target
b) true value
c) value which cannot be used in a quality control series
d) value which must be disregarded completely
e) c & d are correct

Back 466

a) value falls within a narrrow range around the target

Front 467

Quality control may include all of the following except:
a) using standards and controls
b) performing tests in duplicate
c) rechacking with reference example
d) terminal disposal of test reagent solutions
e) calculating the SD

Back 467

d) terminal disposal of test reagent solutions

Front 468

Clinitest tablets meaure:
a) glucose only
b) lactose only
c) all reducing sugars
d) specific gravity
e) both glucose and glycogen

Back 468

c) all reducing sugars

Front 469

To retrieve a specimen block in an histology laboratory the laboratory assistant/technician would go to the block filing cabinet andlook for:
a) the hospital admission number
b) the patient's name
c) the surgical/biopsy log number
d) the wrist band information
e) none of the above

Back 469

c) the surgical/biopsy log number

Front 470

Which of the following is a decalcificaton reagent:
a) formic acid
b) EDTA
c) nitri acid
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

Back 470

d) all of the above

Front 471

The term thermolabile means:
a) produced by heat
b) sensitive to heat
c) insensitive to heat
d) produces heat
e) activated by heat

Back 471

b) sensitive to heat

Front 472

Agar plates are used to grow:
a) bacteria
b) viruses
c) protozoa
d) a and b
e) a and c

Back 472

e) a and c

Front 473

Activated charcoal present in transport media will:
a) indicate a contaminated specimen
b) prevent overgrowth of extraneous organisms
c) maintain anaerobic conditions
d) absorb toxic substances
e) kill non-pathogens

Back 473

d) absorb toxic substances

Front 474

Romanowsky stains are mixtures of:
a) eosin and methylene blue
b) phloxine and methylene blue
c) hematoxylin and eosin
d) safranin and methylene blue
e) janus green and neutral red

Back 474

a) eosin and methylene blue

Front 475

Xylene is used in:
a) fixation of autopsy material
b) dehydration of tissues
c) paraffin wax embedding process
d) attaching cover slipes to slides
e) histology as a clearing agent

Back 475

e) histology as a clearing agent

Front 476

When should safety goggles be worn:
a) during blood collections
b) while transporting sealed waste containers
c) while inspecting reagent supplies
d) during reagent and specimen preparation
e) none of the above

Back 476

d) during reagent and specimen preparation

Front 477

Enzymes:
a) are used up in chemical reaction
b) are usually lipids
c) catalyze chemical reactons
d) are usually non-specific
e) all of the above

Back 477

c) catalyze chemical reactions

Front 478

The medical term for fever is:
a) hypothermia
b) pyrexia
c) hypertension
d) pyogenic
e) pyrogenia

Back 478

b) pyrexia

Front 479

A backup test to confirm a positive protein in urine is:
a) ictotest
b) SSA test
c) clinitest
d) TCA test
e) two of the above

Back 479

d)TCA test