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69 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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An INR of 5 is contraindicated in a client who requires periodontal debridement because the client is at increased risk of hemorrhage.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but NOT related c. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct |
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Ref: pp 104-105 |
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The most common inherited blood disorder is: a. hemophilia. b. von Willebrand disease (vWD). c. factor IX deficiency. d. thrombocytopenia. |
b. von Willebrand disease (vWD).
Ref: p 103 |
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Examples of inherited coagulation disorders include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia B d. Factor IX deficiency |
a. Thrombocytopenia
Ref: p 102 |
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The normal number of platelet formation is:
a. 100,000 to 150,000 mm3 b. 100,000 to 300,000 mm3 c. 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 d. 150,000 to 450,000 mm3 |
c. 150,000 to 400,000 mm3
Ref: p 102 |
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From the following list, identify which blood studies are prolonged in hemophilia?
a. Platelet count b. Bleeding time c. Activated partial thromboplastin time d. Prothrombin time e. INR f. PFA-100 |
c. d. & e. Activated partial thromboplastin time, prothrombin time, and INR
Ref: p 103-104 |
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The form of vWD (von Willebrand disease) with the least risk of hemorrhage is type: a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
a. 1.
Ref: p 103 |
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Minor bleeding associated with simple dental extractions in those with vWD (von Willebrand disease) is best controlled by: a. NSAIDs. b. DDAVP. c. Sutures d. Tranexamic acid. |
b. DDAVP.
Ref: p 103 |
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Identify the types of hepatitis that do not carry a risk of the oral healthcare clinician during treatment. a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HDV e. HEV
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a. & e. HAV and HEV
Ref: p 107 |
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The hepatitis virus that is dependent on HBV to replicate is: a. HCV. b. HDV. c. HAV. d. non-A-E. |
b. HDV.
Ref: p 109 |
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Which of the following forms of hepatitis pose the greatest risk for occupational exposure? a. HCV b. HAV c. HEV d. HDV
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a. HCV
Ref: p 108 |
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Jaundice is a sign of which stage of hepatitis? a. Subclinical b. Accute c. Icteric d. Chronic |
c. Icteric
Ref: p 108 |
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The presence of which serum markers indecates a person is infectious? a. HBsAg and HBcAg b. HBsAg and HBeAg c. HBbAg and HBcAg d. HBbAg and HBeAg |
b. HBsAg and HBeAg
Ref: p 108 |
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Identify which of the following exposures places the HCW at risk for HIV infection.
a. Needlesticks b. Contact of mucous membrane with blood c. Bloody saliva d. Mercury spills |
a. b. & c. Needlesticks, contact of mucous membrane with blood, and bloody saliva
Ref: p 112 |
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Of the following list, which medications used in dentistry interact with antiviral HIV therapy? a. Sedative agents b. Antidepressants c. Muscle relaxants d. Analgesics |
a. & d. Sedative agents and analgesics
Ref: p 111 |
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The governmental agency that regulates all healthcare facilities to ensure employee safety is:
a. OSAP b. OSHA c. CDC d. CDCP |
b. OSHA
Ref: p 110 |
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Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for the client with HIVD who has an absolute neutrophil count of:
a. <500 cells/mm3 b. <750 cells/mm3 c. <1,000 cells/mm3 d. <2,000 cells/mm3 |
a. <500 cells/mm3
Ref: p 111 |
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Postexposure HIV antibody testing should occur for: a. 6 weeks b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 1 year |
c. 4 months
Ref: p 112 |
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Oral ulcerations associated with STD are infectious. Dental hygiene treatment can be performed as long as barrier personal protection is used. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
Ref: p 115 |
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What anemia represents an inherited defect of red blood cell anatomy and a defect in the hemoglobin within the cell? a. Iron-deficiency anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Thalassemia |
b. Sickle cell anemia
Ref: p 116 |
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The decision to proceed with oral healthcare procedures in a client with anemia involves
a. determining whether the disease is controlled. b. prescribing prophylactic antibiotics. c. using stress reduction strategies. d. providing education about plaque control to prevent oral infection. |
a. determining whether the disease is controlled.
Ref: p 117 |
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All of the following represents a primary concern related to a client who presents with a history of blood transfusion EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
a. The cause of the transfusion b. The risk for increased bleeding during treatment c. Potential for contracting a transmissible bloodborne disease d. The risk of poor wound healing |
d. The risk of poor wound healing
Ref: p 118 |
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For individuals undergoing initial cancer therapy, oral healthcare should be performed: a. at least 14 days before cancer therapy when possible. b. at least 14 days after initial cancer therapy. c. between cancer therapy sessions. d. oral healthcare should not be performed until cancer therapy is completed. |
a. at least 14 days before cancer therapy when possible.
Ref: p 123 |
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For clients who require oral health care during cancer therapy, laboratory blood studies should be performed to: a. determine baseline values. b. determine whither antibiotics are needed. c. prevent hemorrhage and infection. d. prevent immunosuppression. |
c. prevent hemorrhage and infection.
Ref: p 124 |
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From the following list, identify the conditions for which oral health procedures should be postponed. a. Platelet count is <50,000 mm3 b. INR is >5. c. Neutrophil count is <1,000 cells/mm3 d. A central venous catheter is being used. e. Xerostomia is present |
a. b. & c. Platelet count is < 50,000 mm3, INR is >5, and neutrophil count is <1,000 cells/mm3
Ref: p 124 |
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Individuals with a history of bone marrow or stem cell transplants should delay elective oral procedures for: a. 1 month. b. 6 months. c. 9 months. d. 1 year. |
d. 1 year. Ref: p 125 |
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Radiation treatment carries a lifelong risk of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Osteoradionecrosis b. Xerostomia c. Friable oral tissue d. Gingivitis |
d. Gingivitis
Ref: p 125 |
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Radiation therapy clients with salivary gland dysfunction should use daily fluoride applications:
a. during cancer therapy. b. lifelong. c. 6 months after cancer therapy d. 1 year after cancer therapy |
b. lifelong.
Ref: p 126 |
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From the following list, identify the complications associated with DM.
a. Blindness b. Cardiovascular disease c. Kidney disease d. Weight gain e. Loss of sensation f. Periodontal disease g. Liver dysfunction |
a. b. c. e. & f. Blindness, cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, loss of sensation, and periodontal disease.
Ref: p 129 |
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The majority of DM cases are: a. type 1. b. type 2. c. gestational diabetes. d. secondary diabetes. |
b. type 2
Ref: p 130 |
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The most common medical emergency to occure in individuals with DM is: a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. low BP. d. syncope. |
a. hypoglycemia
Ref: p 131 |
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A sugar source is needed to effectively treat hypoglycemia. Clients should use their glucometer device to check their blood sugar level prior to starting oral health procedures. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
a. Both statements are true.
Ref: pp 131-133 |
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Individuals with SLE taking long-term corticosteroid therapy are at risk for acute adrenal insufficiency. They should be placed on supplemental steroids for oral procedures. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
b. Both statements are false.
Ref: p 135 |
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Antibiotic prophylaxis may be indicated for individuals with SLE who have all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Have cardiac valve damage. b. Take immunosuppressive drug therapy. c. Have hypertension. d. Have signs of endocarditis. |
c. Have hypertension
Ref: p 135 |
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A physician consult should be performed in clients with SLE to avoid potential problems such as hemorrhage and infection. a. Both statement and reason are correct and related. b. Both statement are reason are correct, but NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT d. the statement is NOT correct , but the reason is correct. e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. |
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Ref: p 136 |
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Individuals with RA may have one autoimmune disease. Prophylactic antibiotics are strongly recommended for these clients. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
Ref: pp 137-138 |
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From the following list, identify the oral effects associated with postransplant medications.
a. Hemorrhage. b. Poor wound healing. c. Gingival hyperplasia. d. Oral ulcerations. e. Candidiasis. f. Oral malignancies. g. Hairy leukoplakia. |
a. b. c. d. e. f. & g. Hemorrhage, poor wound healing, gingival hyperplasia, oral ulcerations, candidiasis, oral malignancies, and hairy leukoplakia.
Ref: p 141 |
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Jaw pain may be associated with angina or MI due to cardiac ischemia. a. Both statement are reason are correct and related. b. Both statement are reason are correct, but NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT d. the statement is NOT correct , but the reason is correct. e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. |
a. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
Ref: p 146 |
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The form of angina that poses the greatest risk of emergency is: a. stable angina. b. variant angina. c. acute coronary syndrome. d. all forms pose equal risk. |
c. acute coronary syndrome.
Ref: p 146 |
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The recommended cardiac dose of vasoconstrictor (Epi) in local anesthesia is: a. 0.01 mg. b. 0.02 mg. c. 0.03 mg. d. 0.04 mg. |
d. 0.04 mg.
Ref: p 147 |
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The maximum dose of nitroglycerin sublingual tablets that should be administered during a 10-minute period is: a. 1 tablet b. 2 tablets c. 3 tablets d. 4 tablets |
c. 3 tablets
Ref: p 148 |
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What percentage of cardiac deaths occur within 1 hr of onset of symptoms? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% |
d. 50%
Ref: p 145 |
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Elective oral healthcare procedures should be postponed when the blood pressure valures are greater than 180/110 mm Hg. If the client takes Coumadin, an INR value of 4.5 is acceptable for reducing the risk of hemorrhage during dental treatment. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. REF: pp 147-148 |
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For which classes of HF can dental hygiene care be provided without the need for a medical clearance? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D |
a. & b. Class A and Class B
Ref: p 151 |
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Edema of the feet, ankles, and lower legs are indicative of: a. right-sided congestive HF. b. left-sided congestive HF. c. orthopnea. d. Compromised kidney function. |
a. right-sided congestive HF. |
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The leading cause of death in the US is attributed toL a. angina pectoris b. congenital heart disease. c. congestive HF d. MI. |
d. MI.
Ref: p 152 |
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Elective oral health care after MI is contraindicated for 1 month: a. Because congestive HF may occur in this time period. b. To allow the heart a chance to repair itself. c. To reduce the chance of blood clot formation. d. To reduce the chance of bacterima. |
b. To allow the heart a chance to repair itself.
Ref: p 153 |
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If a client is suspected of having an MI, which of the following medications should be administered as part of emergency management a. Sublingual nitroglycerin b. Aspirin c. Inderal b. Beta-blocker |
a. & b. Sublingual nitroglycerin and Aspirin
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The leading cause of hypertension is: a. unknown b. obesity c. high cholesterol d. aging |
a. unknown.
Ref: p 154 |
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A blood vessel disturbance of the brain for which the client recovers within 5 minutes is refered to as a(n): a. cerebral hemorrhage b. occlusal stroke c. transient ischemic attack d. arterial thrombosis |
c. transient ischemic attack
Ref: p 157 |
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From the following list, identify the signs of a cerebrovascular accident. a. severe headache. b. unequal pupil size c. slurred speech d numbness e. profuse sweating f. visual disturbances g. difficulty breathing |
a. b. c. d. & f. Severe headache, unequal pupil size, slurred speech, numbness, and visual disturbances. |
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Clients taking a beta blocker or calcium chancel blocking medications for migraine headaches may be vulnerable to what condition during oral health treatment? a. high blood pressure b. orthostatic hypotension c. syncope d. nausea and confusion |
b. orthostatic hypotension
Ref: p 159 |
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Causes of aquired epilepsy include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. high temperature b. idiopathic causes c. head injury d. drug toxicity |
b. idiopathic causes
Ref: p 164 |
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Tingling sensations in the arm, seeing flashing lights, and perceiving a bad odor are signs of a(n): a. simple focal seizure b. tonic-clonic seizure. c. myoclonic seizure. d. absence seizure. |
a. simple focal seizure.
Ref: p 164 |
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Loss of consciousness, loss of urinary control, thrashing movements of the limbs, and an aura are signs of a(n): a. simple focual seizure b. tonic-clonic seizure c. myoclonic seizure d. absence seizure |
b. tonic-clonic seizure. |
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The most life-threatening type of seizure is: a. complex partial seizure b. absence seizure c. generalized convulsive seizure d. status epilepticus |
d. status epilepticus
Ref: p 165 |
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The preferred treatment to resolve status epilepticus is to: a. move the client away from areas of injury b. place a pillow under the client's head c. activate the EMS/911 system d. administer diazepam (Valium) |
d. administer diazepam (Valium)
Ref: p 167 |
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When a client reports having seizures even while taking anticonvulsant medications, the risk for seizure during an oral healthcare appointment increases because the seizure disorder is not controlled. a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and reason are correct, but NOT related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. |
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Ref: p 166 |
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Epileptic cry occurs when the: a. brain perceives changes as painful b. diaphragm contracts to force air from lungs through vocal cords c. muscle contracts causing sudden painful sensations d. seizure crossed and involved both sides of the brain |
b. diaphragm contracts to force air from lungs through vocal cords.
Ref: p 165 |
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The most common reason for fainting is: a. anxiety b. irregular heartbeat c. hypotension d. stress |
a. anxiety
Ref: p 169 |
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Sleep disorders may cause what type of problem during oral health care? a. decreased memory b. breathing difficulty c. drowsiness d. irritability |
b. breathing difficulty
Ref: p 169 |
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Some clients with sleep apnea can have both cardiovascular and respiratory problems because carbon monoxide builds up in the blood. a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and reason are correct, but NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. |
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
Ref: p 169 |
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An irresistable urge to sleep refers to: a. sleep apnea b. insomnia c. narcolepsy d. sleep disorder |
c. narcolepsy
Ref: p 169 |
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The most common symptom that induces clients to seek treatment is bleeding. This symptom can be managed through regular dental treatment and meticulous home care. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
Ref: p 170 |
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Individuals with a mental health disorder may become belligerent or uncooperative during oral health care as a result of: a. misunderstanding procedures to be performed. b. feeling a loss of control. c. side effects of medication management. d. poor oral habits. |
a. misunderstanding procedures to be performed.
Ref: p 172 |
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Oral effects of psychotherapy medications include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Xerostomia b. Caries c. Candidiasis d. Bleeding |
d. Bleeding
Ref: p 173 |
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One of the most treatable forms of mental illness is:
a. depression b. bipolar disorder c. schizophrenia d. Alzheimer disease |
b. bipolar disorder
Ref: p 172 |
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Clients with Parkinson disease have a higher incidence of falls due to orthostatic hypotension occurring from medications used to treat the disease. a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and reason are correct, but NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. |
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Ref: p 174 |
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Alzheimer disease is a progressive brain disorder that gradually causes memory changes and the ability to reason. New medications are reversing these effects by removing meta-amyloid plaques in the brain. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
Ref: p 174 |
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Excessive salivation and xerostimia are both found in clients with Parkinson disease. salivation is associated with the disease itself while xerostomia is a side effect of medications used to treat the disease. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. |
a. Both statements are true.
Ref: p 175 |
