Med Tach - 5 Level Vol 1

Front 1

1. How is doctrine applied?

a. Authoritative but not directive.
b. Not authoritative or directive.
c. Directive but not authoritative.
d. Directive and authoritative.

Back 1

a. Authoritative but not directive.

Front 2

2. Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission?

a. AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine.
b. AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development.
c. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services.
d. AFDD 2-8, Command and Control.

Back 2

c. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services.

Front 3

3. Why is Medical Doctrine neccessary?

a. Recommends step by step actions.
b. Directs the actions of commanders.
c. Guides commanders in using assets.
d. Changes faster then Air Force guidance.

Back 3

c. Guides commanders in using assets.

Front 4

4. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

a. Basic.
b. Tactical.
c. Operational.
d. Foundational.

Back 4

c. Operational.

Front 5

5. Tactical Doctrine can be explained BEST by which of the following examples?

a. The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.
b. An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodgebecause they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
c. An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.
d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

Back 5

d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

Front 6

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with?

a. Competency.
b. Use of Force.
c. Force Health Protection.
d. Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service.

Back 6

b. Use of Force.

Front 7

7. While commander's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

a. Physicians.
b. Supervisors.
c. Every airman
d. Health and wellness staff.

Back 7

c. Every airman

Front 8

8. When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Foundational Doctrine is accomplished?

a. Competency.
b. Prevention.
c. Force Health Protection.
d. Roles and Responsibilties.

Back 8

a. Competency.

Front 9

9. What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

a. First.
b. Second.
c. Third.
d. Fifth.

Back 9

a. First.

Front 10

10. How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

Back 10

b. Two.

Front 11

11. In what part of the Career Field Education and training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

Back 11

b. Two.

Front 12

12. Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

a. Individual Training Record.
b. Master Training Plan.
c. AF form 1098.
d. AF form 797

Back 12

b. Master Training Plan.

Front 13

13. Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience Identifier?

a. Aerospace Medical Technician.
b. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician.
c. Squadron Medical Element Technician.
d. Independent Duty Medical Technician.

Back 13

b. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician.

Front 14

14. Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and preforms a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

a. Nurse.
b. Administrative technician.
c. Aerospace medical service craftsman.
d. Aerospace medical service journeyman.

Back 14

d. Aerospace medical service journeyman.

Front 15

15. When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the ..

a. novice to the apprentice.
b. apprentice to the journeyman.
c. joyrneyman to the craftsman.
d. craftsman to the technician.

Back 15

b. apprentice to the journeyman.

Front 16

16. Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent cutsomer service?

a. Prevent lawsuits.
b. Develop job satisfaction.
c. Ensure promotion below-the-zone.
d. Positively influence the patients visit.

Back 16

d. Positively influence the patients visit.

Front 17

17. Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

a. Chief Nurse.
b. Command Chief.
c. Carreer Field Manager.
d. Medical Group Commander.

Back 17

c. Carreer Field Manager.

Front 18

18. How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

a. Six Months.
b. Year.
c. Three Years.
d. Five Years.

Back 18

c. Three Years.

Front 19

19. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assesment Survey?

a. Commander
b. Supervisor.
c. 3-level.
d. 5-level.

Back 19

b. Supervisor.

Front 20

20. What is the purpose of documenting training?

a. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
b. Document the number of personnel and the hours they work.
c. Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board.
d. Establish patenit care guidelines for civilian practice.

Back 20

a. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

Front 21

21. On what form would you document specific duty posistion training that is not listed on the Speciality Training Standard?

a. AF Form 803, Report of Task Evalutaitons.
b. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.
c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
d. AF Form 2096, Classification/On the Job Training Action, Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) Product.

Back 21

c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

Front 22

22. When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Reports be removed from the Individual Training Record?

a. When the airman arrives at the first duty station.
b. When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained.
c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.
d. When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level.

Back 22

c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.

Front 23

23. Where is the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resusciation card be filed in the individual training record?

a. Part 2, Section A.
b. Part 3, Section C.
c. Part 5, Section A.
d. Part 6, Section B

Back 23

d. Part 6, Section B

Front 24

24. What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

a. Ensure that there are refreshments available.
b. Ask how many people will be attending.
c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.
d. Confirm whether the commander will be attending.

Back 24

c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.

Front 25

25. What system is the PRIMARY tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

a. UMD.
b. UMPR.
c. CFETP.
d. MEPRS.

Back 25

d. MEPRS.

Front 26

26. How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

a. Hours and Section.
b. Type and section.
c. Hours and AFSC.
d. Type and AFSC.

Back 26

b. Type and section.

Front 27

27. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

a. UMD.
b. ACR.
c. UPMR.
d. MEPRS.

Back 27

c. UPMR.

Front 28

28. Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the postion in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?

a. Manpower Standard.
b. Manning Assistance.
c. Manpower Requirement.
d. Manpower Authorization

Back 28

d. Manpower Authorization

Front 29

29. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

a. USAFMS.
b. MAJCOM.
c. Squadron Commander.
d. Medical Group Commander.

Back 29

b. MAJCOM.

Front 30

30. Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force?

a. Each Individual.
b. Unit Supervisor.
c. Group Commander.
d. Account Custodian.

Back 30

a. Each Individual.

Front 31

31. Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and discipline of supply use?

a. Supervisors.
b. Commanders.
c. Property Custodians.
d. Medical Equipment Management Office Personnel.

Back 31

b. Commanders.

Front 32

32. By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.
b. Injury to a patient and buying new technology.
c. Reporting damage to the commandar and logistics.

Back 32

a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.

Front 33

33. What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

a. 20 percent.
b. 50 percent.
c. 70 percent.
d. 90 percent.

Back 33

c. 70 percent.

Front 34

34. What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

a. Backorder report.
b. Activity Issue/turn-in summary.
c. Custodial actions/custodian report listing.
d. Medical equipment review and authorization activity.

Back 34

b. Activity Issue/turn-in summary.

Front 35

35. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

a. None. Once an item is ordered you must receive it when it arrives.
b. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.
c. Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it,
d. None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand.

Back 35

b. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.

Front 36

36. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more then 30 days?

a. Cancel the order.
b. Complain to the commander.
c. Wait another 15 fifteen days and then follow-up.
d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.

Back 36

d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.

Front 37

37. When does a new property custodian assume responsibilty for items on the property/equipment list?

a. Upon signing the the custodian receipt/locator list.
b. When they have completed Phase II supply training.
c. Upon being assigned as property custodian.
d. The first day of the new fiscal year.

Back 37

a. Upon signing the the custodian receipt/locator list.

Front 38

38. BEFORE taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian MUST...

a. receive a briefing on responsibilities.
b. conduct a physical inventory of equipment.
c. document his/her experience for commander review.
d. review the files to establish when eqipment was procured.

Back 38

b. conduct a physical inventory of equipment.

Front 39

39. When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

a. When the new fiscal year begins.
b. When MEMO personnel give permission.
c. When a new property custodian takes over.
d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.

Back 39

d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.

Front 40

40. How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly.

Back 40

a. Daily.

Front 41

41. What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

a. Inspect, store and remove.
b. Inspect, remove and report.
c. Report, remove and repair.
d. Remove, store and repair.

Back 41

b. Inspect, remove and report

Front 42

42. What is the PRIMARY source for recording equipment repair?

a. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt Only.
b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.
c. Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report.
d. Activity issue/turn-in summery only.

Back 42

b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.

Front 43

43. Who should you contact to obtain the most current proceedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

a. District sales and maintenance representative.
b. Base supply and equipment maintenance.
c. Biomedical equipment repair technician.
d. Original equipment manufacturer.

Back 43

c. Biomedical equipment repair technician.

Front 44

44. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

a. Telling the truth.
b. Respect for others.
c. The duty to do no harm.
d. Being faithful to do good.

Back 44

c. The duty to do no harm.

Front 45

45. Which of the following defines fidelity?

a. Fairness.
b. Telling the truth.
c. The duty to do no harm.
d. Acting in a responsible manner.

Back 45

d. Acting in a responsible manner.

Front 46

46. What spacifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1career field?

a. UMD.
b. STS.
c. MTF.
d. UPMR.

Back 46

b. STS.

Front 47

47. What are the patient responsibilities designed to do?

a. Protect the patient.
b. Protect other patients.
c. Protect the patient and health care workers.
d. Protect other patients and health care workers.

Back 47

d. Protect other patients and health care workers.

Front 48

48. Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsabilities?

a. Administrative.
b. Chaperone.
c. Supervisory.
d. Appointing.

Back 48

b. Chaperone.

Front 49

49. At which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?

a. Depression.
b. Acceptance.
c. Denial.
d. Anger.

Back 49

a. Depression.

Front 50

50. Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

a. DD Form 2500.
b. DD Form 2005.
c. DD Form 93-975.
d. DD Form 93-552a.

Back 50

b. DD Form 2005.

Front 51

51. Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement-Health Care Records used when providing medical care?

a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.
b. A required document that the patient must sign receiving treatment.
c. Prevents a patient from filing a malpractice suit against the government.
d. Is a military substitute for a patient concent form.

Back 51

a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.

Front 52

52. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurence Portability and Accountability Act affect?

a. Patients handling their information.
b. Anyone handling patient information.
c. Medical staff handling patiient information.
d. Administrative staff handling patient information.

Back 52

b. Anyone handling patient information.

Front 53

53. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use...

a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
b. AFJI 44-17.
c. AFI 41-210.
d. AFI 33-332.

Back 53

a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R

Front 54

54. Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?

a. Preinteractive.
b. Intorductory.
c. Working.
d. Termination.

Back 54

b. Intorductory.

Front 55

55. Which of the following is cosidered a barrier to effective communication?

a. Smiling .
b. Laughing.
c. Talking too much.
d. Identifying commonalities.

Back 55

c. Talking too much.

Front 56

56. Who is considered the patient advocate?

a. Clinic representative only.
b. Officer-in-charge only.
c. Facility representative only.
d. Every staff member.

Back 56

d. Every staff member.

Front 57

57. Who is an excellant resource to guide a patient that is having difficulity understanding facility proceedures or off-base referral services?

a. Family practice clinic.
b. Internal medicine clinic.
c. The MTF commander.
d. The patient advocate.

Back 57

d. The patient advocate.

Front 58

58. What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

a. Reduce the number of lawsuits.
b. Provide an unbiased third party.
c. To determine the correct treatment plan.
d. To approve funding for off-base treatment.

Back 58

b. Provide an unbiased third party.

Front 59

59. What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

a. Collect patient demographic information.
b. Determine the health of the local population.
c. Aid manpower in determining allocation requests.
d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patient.

Back 59

d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patient.

Front 60

60. Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

a. No; advice over the phone leads to innaccurate self treatment and is leagally risky.
b. Yes; the problem may be simple and the patient could treat themselves.
c. No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone.
d. Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctor's examination.

Back 60

a. No; advice over the phone leads to innaccurate self treatment and is leagally risky.

Front 61

61. How should you handle a non-emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.
b. Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later.
c. Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours.
d. Konck on the door and inform the physician he or she has a phone call.

Back 61

a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.

Front 62

62. Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

a. Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness.
b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety.
c. Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider.
d. Refrain from briefing policies on admissions to decrease the patient fear.

Back 62

b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety.

Front 63

63. Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?

a. Provider.
b. Nurse.
c. 4N0.
d. 4A0.

Back 63

b. Nurse.

Front 64

64. What four components make up the PCM team?

a. Provider, nurse, medical technician and mental health technician.
b. Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician.
c. Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician and mental health technician.
d. Nurse, medical technician, dental technician and mental health technician.

Back 64

b. Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician.

Front 65

65. When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each team member do?

a. No team members will work extra hours.
b. Be able to do the job of every other team member.
c. Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice.
d. Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested.

Back 65

c. Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice.

Front 66

66. It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure..

a. each team member enjoys going to work each day.
b. each member can take leave on the requested days.
c. the best care is provided to our customers.
d. the team learns new medical technology.

Back 66

c. the best care is provided to our customers.

Front 67

67. Which one of the following is NOT a habit of successful PCM teams?

a. Being proactive
b. Managing a panel.
c. Communicating.
d. Being punctual.

Back 67

d. Being punctual.

Front 68

68. Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?

a. MTF
b. PCM.
c. MPF.
d. MHS.

Back 68

c. MPF.

Front 69

69. At what age are children required to have thier own ID cards?

a. Eight
b. Nine.
c. Ten.
d. Eleven.

Back 69

c. Ten.

Front 70

70. When a patient requests medical care but had questionable eligibility, you should..

a. make them an appointment and worry about the details later.
b. tell the patient that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility.
c. tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis.
d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.

Back 70

d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.

Front 71

71. If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should ..

a. provide the patient care and then determine eligibility.
b. determine eligibility first and provide treatment only if they are eligible.
c. inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay.
d. have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them

Back 71

a. provide the patient care and then determine eligibility.

Front 72

72. Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

a. 15 days.
b. 30 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days.

Back 72

b. 30 days.

Front 73

73. When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor /family demographics?

a. AHLTA.
b. DEERS.
c. CHCS.
d. MHS.

Back 73

b. DEERS.

Front 74

74. Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least..

a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. annually.

Back 74

c. quarterly.

Front 75

75. If you are working in CHCS, what function would NOT be available for you to use?

a. Appointment scheduling.
b. Results reporting.
c. Entry of lab requests.
d. Outpatient coding data.

Back 75

d. Outpatient coding data.

Front 76

76. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization?

a. CHCS.
b. AHLTA.
c. DEERS.
d. DMLS.

Back 76

b. AHLTA.

Front 77

77. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

a. No care or treatment was accomplished.
b. There is no follow up care required.
c. There were no complications.
d. The outcome was positive.

Back 77

a. No care or treatment was accomplished.

Front 78

78. Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibilty for follow-up care?

a. Provider.
b. Nurse.
c. Patient.
d. Aerospace Medical Service technician.

Back 78

c. Patient.

Front 79

79. The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?

a. Three.
b. Four.
c. Five.
d. Six.

Back 79

c. Five.

Front 80

80. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

a. not elseware classified.
b. next event cancelled.
c. not elsewhere coded.
d. new event code.

Back 80

a. not elseware classified.