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72 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the safest duration between ceasing Ticagrelor and performing a neuraxial block? a) 1 day b) 3 days c) 5 days d) 7 days? |
c) 5 days |
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You are a consultant anaesthetist asked to help a junior registrar who is having difficulty siting a labour epidural. In assisting them site the epidural all you do is place on sterile gloves. This is known as a: a) Slip b) Lapse c) Violation d) Deviation e) Mistake |
d) Deviation |
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What is not a feature of Horner’s Syndrome? a) Exophthalmos b) Anhydrosis c) Miosis d) Ptosis e) |
a) Exophthalmos |
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The Pin Index System for nitrous oxide on a size C cylinder: a) 1, 5 b) 1, 6 c) 2, 5 d) 3, 5 e) 3, 6 |
d) 3, 5 |
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Patient is nil by mouth. 2L Hartmann’s,1L NS over 24 hours. How much Na in mmol did he receive?a) 390 b) 410 c) 430 d) 440 e) 460 |
b) 410 |
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Patient with chronic liver failure. Coagulation factor least likely to be affected: a) I b) VII c) VIII d) XII e) iX |
c) VIII |
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Tumour lysis syndrome causes all of the following biochemical abnormalities EXCEPT: a) Hyperkalaemia b) Hypernatraemia c) Hyperphosphataemia d) Hyperuricaemia e) Hypocalcaemia |
b) Hypernatraemia |
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A 22 year old previously healthy man was involved in a motorbike accident two weeks ago, when he sustained a spinal cord injury at T1. Evidence of autonomic hyperreflexia includes: a) Pulmonary oedema b) Atrial fibrillation c) Bradycardia d) Profound hypotension e) Piloerection below T10. |
c) Bradycardia |
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Peribulbar block, get numbness of ipsilateral upperlip. Which nerve is responsible? A. Infraorbital B. Trochlear C. Facial D. Mental E. |
A. Infraorbital |
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What is the osmolality of Glycine1.5% used for a TURP 150 200 250 300 350 |
200 |
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During interscalene block placement get medial movement of the scapula. This is secondary to stimulation of: A: long thoracicnerve B: dorsal scapula nerve C: suprascapular nerve D:supraclavicular nerve E: accessory nerve |
B: dorsal scapula nerve |
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Cuff pressure in an ETT to avoid damage/ischaema a) 20 cm H2O b) 30 cm H2O c) 40 cm H2O d) 50 cm H2O |
a) 20 cm H2O |
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Most cephalic interspace in neonate to perform spinal while minimising the possibility of spinal cord puncture A. L1-L2 B. L2-L3 C. L3-L4 D. L4-L5 E. L5-S1 |
D. L4-L5 |
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Laser flex tube with double cuffs - how to inflate cuff(s)? A. Inflate proximal then distal B. Inflate distal then proximal C. Inflate both with saline? D. Inflate distal only E. Inflate proximal only |
B. Inflate distal then proximal |
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Surgery planned under brachial plexus block performed at axilla. Pain is felt on incision at the anterolateral right forearm. Which nerve has been insufficiently blocked? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Musculocutaneous E. Median brachial cutaneous |
D. Musculocutaneous |
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Interscalene block – what is most likely to be missed: A. Medialcutaneous nerve of forearm B. Radial nerve C. Median nerve D. Axillarynerve E. Musculocutaneous |
A. Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm |
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In regards to systemic sclerosis, what is the least likely cardiac manifestation?
A. accelerated coronary artery disease B. atrioventricular conduction block C. myocarditis D. pericardial effusion E. valvular regurgitation |
E. valvular regurgitation |
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Patient with subdural haematoma, on warfarin. INR 4.5. Needs urgent craniotomy. Vit K given already by ED resident. What further do you give for urgent reversal of this patient's INR? A. Factor VII B. Cryoprecipitate C. FFP D. Prothrombinex E. FFP +prothrombinex |
E. FFP + prothrombinex |
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According to guidelines endorsed by ANZCA, the label of an intra-osseous infusion should be A. beige B. blue C. Pink D. Red E. yellow |
C. Pink A. beige subcut B. blue venous C. Pink - anyother D. Red arterial E. yellowneuraxial/regional |
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A 45 year old obese man complains of headache, lower limb weakness and polyuria. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/70mmHg. He has a displaced apex beat.Bloods revealed Na145, K2.8, Cl101, HCO3 27. What is the most likely diagnosis A. Cushings B. Diabetes C. Primary hyperaldosteronism D. Hypothyroidism E. Phaeochromocytoma |
C. Primary hyperaldosteronism |
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In attempting to make a precise diagnosis of parathyroid adenoma, you would expect all of the following are found in hyperparathyroid disease EXCEPT: A. decreased urinary calcium B. extraosseous calcifications C. increased plasma calcium D. increased urinary phosphate E. renal calculi |
A. decreased urinary calcium |
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Performed a brachial plexus block. Normal sensation still remains in medial forearm. Which part of brachial plexus is most likely to have been missed A. Inferior trunk B. Ulnar nerve C. Median brachial cutaneousnerve D. Anterior division E. Posterior cord |
A. Inferior trunk |
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Regarding Le Fortfractures: A. External signs correlate with internal skeletal damage B. Le Fort fractures don't usually occur in combination (for example I and II) C. Patients with a LeFort I fracture should NOT undergo nasal intubation D. Patients with a Le Fort II fracture should have evaluation of the base of skull prior to nasal intubation E. Le Fort III fracture is associated with fracture of the cribiform plate |
E. Le Fort III fracture is associated with fracture of the cribiform plate |
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Patient complains of numbness in the anterior 2/3 of tongue after GA with LMA. Most likely nerve injured is A. Glossopharyngeal B. Facial nerve C. Mandibular D. Superior vagus E. Maxillary nerve |
C. Mandibular |
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Which of the following are NOT useful in the management of Torsades de Pointes A. Isoprenaline B. Procainamide C. DCCV D. Electricalpacing E. Magnesium |
B. Procainamide |
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The incidence off embolism syndrome following a unilateral closed femoral fracture is A. 0 -3% B. 4 – 7% C. 8 -11% D. 12 – 15% E. 16 - 19% |
A. 0 -3% |
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The thoracodorsal nerve arises from A. Medial cord of brachial plexus B. Lateral cord of brachial plexus C. Posterior cord of brachial plexus D. Dorsalscapular nerve E. Long thoracic nerve |
C. Posterior cord of brachial plexus |
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Subarachnoid haemorrhage patient. What percentage rebleed in the first 24 hours A <5% B 5-10% C 10-15% D 15-20% E >20% |
A <5% |
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What percentage of primiparous women experience a headache in the first week following delivery? a. 3-5% b. 5-15% c. 15-40% d. 40-65% e. 65-85% |
c. 15-40% |
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What percentage of the population have their AV node supplied by the right coronary artery? a. 5 b. 15 c. 40 d. 50 e. 85 |
e. 85 |
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The nerve supplying area of skin between greater trochanter and iliac crest: A. subcostal nerve B. ilioinguinal nerve C. genitofemoral nerve D. femoral nerve E. lat cutaneous femoral nerve |
A. subcostal nerve |
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What is the half life of clopidogrel? a. 6 hours b. 14 hours c. 24 hours d. 7 days |
a. 6 hours |
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When stimulating the ulnar nerve with a nerve stimulator, which muscle do you see twitch? A. opponens abducens B. abductor pollicis brevis C. adductor pollicis D. extensor pollicis E. flexor pollicis brevis |
C. adductor pollicis |
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Regarding mixed venous blood oxygen saturation, which statement is correct? a. it is collected from the right atrium b. it is used to calculate cardiac output c. it can be used to accurately measure the mixed venous pO2 d. it has no impact on the A-a gradient e. it is usually 40% |
d. it has no impact on the A-a gradient |
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Compared to lignocaine, bupivacaine is A. Twice as potent B. Three times as potent C. Four times as potent D. Five times as potent E. Same potency |
C. Four times as potent |
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What splitting ratio gives a 3% concentration of isoflurane? a. 1/5 b. 1/9 c. 1/13 d. 1/20 e. 1/23 |
c. 1/13 |
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How much air is the maximum to that should be used to inflate a 5 LMA classic cuff a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 40 e. 45 |
d. 40 #3, 20mL #4, 30mL #5, 40mL |
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In an infant, the intercristal line is at the level of a. L1-L2 b. L2-L3 c. L3-L4 d. L4-L5 e. L5-S1 |
e. L5-S1 |
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The muscles of the upper eyelid receive a somatic nerve supply from the A. Oculomotor nerve and a parasympathetic supply from the superior vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve and a sympathetic supply from the superior cervical ganglion C. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve and a parasympathetic supply from the superior vagus nerve D. ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve and a sympathetic supply from the superior cervical ganglion E. ophthalmic division of the facial nerve only |
B. Oculomotor nerve and a sympathetic supply from the superior cervical ganglion |
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In congenital diaphragmatic hernia A. there is hyperplasia of pulmonary arterioles inthe hypoplastic lung B. right-sided lesions are more pathologically significant C. vasodilator drugs are contraindicated D. right-sided lesions through the foramen o fBochdalek are the most common E. intrapulmonary shunts are the major cause of cyanosis |
A. there is hyperplasia of pulmonary arterioles in the hypoplastic lung |
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An elderly lady has a closed neck of femur fracture and presents to ED. She is in chronic AF and on warfarin. INR is 2.6 and she is not bleeding. It is 9am and she is scheduled for repair the following day.According to current guidelines, how should her warfarin be reversed? A. Prothrombinex 25IU/kg immediately and then 2units FFP immediately prior to surgery B. No immediate treatment then 2 units FFP immediately prior to surgery C. Vitamin K 1mg IV immediately D. Vitamin K 10mg IV immediately E. Withhold warfarin |
C. Vitamin K 1mg IV immediately |
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Complication of coeliac plexus block A. Hypertension B. Failure of erection C. Constipation D. Paraplegia E. L3,4 lumbar pain |
D. Paraplegia |
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LUSCS for failure to progress. Spinal is inserted uneventfully. Next day the patient has foot drop. The most likely cause is? A. epidural haematoma B. lumbosacral palsy C. sciatic nerve palsy D. common peroneal palsy E. ? |
B. lumbosacral palsy |
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After transfusion of 5 unitof FFP what is least likely to occur A. Haemolytic reaction B. Hypocalcaemia C. Infection D. Hyperkalaemia |
D. Hyperkalaemia |
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The most effective method for cerebral protection in aortic arch aneurysm repair A. Systemic hypothermia 20 degrees B. Antegrade perfusion to carotid arteries C. Retrograde perfusion to jugular veins D. Thiopentone E. Steroid |
A. Systemic hypothermia 20 degrees |
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Stellate ganglion block associated with all except: A. Ptosis B. Meiosis C. Sweating D. Facial flushing E. Nasal stuffiness |
C. Sweating |
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Compared to retrobulbar block, peribulbar block is associated with A. More bleeding B. More risk to optic nerve C. More akinetic eye D. Less block to orbicularis oculi E. Infection |
D. Less block to orbicularis oculi |
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Reverse splitting of the 2nd heart sound is caused by A. acute pulmonary embolism B. ASD C. complete LBBB D. severe MR E. pulmonary HT: |
C. complete LBBB |
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Baby with Tracheo-oesophageal fistula found by bubbling saliva and nasogastric tube coiling on Xray. BEST immediate management? A. Bag and mask ventilate B. Intubate and ventilate C. position head up, insert suction catheter in oesophagus D. Place prone, head down to allow contents to drain E. Insert gastrostomy- |
C. position head up, insert suction catheter in oesophagus |
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A patient with severe COPD on home oxygen is having an excision of a submandibular tumour under local anaesthesia. The best way to prevent fire in the operating room is: A. seal the surgical site from the patients airway with adhesive drapes B. use bipolar instead of monopolar diathermy C. decr FIO2 to maintain sats 97% D. use alcoholic chlorhex instead of iodine E. add nitrous oxide to the inhaled gases to reduce the FiO2 and provide sedation |
B. use bipolar instead of monopolar diathermy |
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The most frequently reported clinical sign in malignant hyperpyrexia is A. arrhythmia B. cyanosis C. sweating D. tachycardia E. rigidity |
D. tachycardia |
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Post scoliosis repair, decreased movement bilaterally in the legs with decreased pain and temperature sensation but spared joint position sense and vibration. What is at fault? A: Posterior spinal arteries B: Anterior spinal arteries C: Epidural haematoma D: Misplaced pedicle screw E: Lateral cord syndrome |
B: Anterior spinal arteries |
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The anterior branch of the femoral nerve supplies everything but: A: pectineus B: rectus femoris C: medial thigh D: anterior thigh E: Sartorius |
B: rectus femoris |
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During lumbar plexus block placement, which of the following indicates inappropriate needle placement? A: hip flexion B: hip adduction C: knee extension D: knee flexion E: lumbar extension |
D: knee flexion sciatic |
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What percentage of patients with SAH are troponin positive? A: <5% B: 15-30% C: 40-60% D: 70-90% E: 100% |
B: 15-30% |
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Postthyroidectomy patient, patient in PACU for 30 minutes. Develops respiratorydistress. Most likely cause? A. Hypercalcemia from taking parathyroids B. Bilateral laryngeal nerve palsies C. bleeding and haematoma D. Tracheomalacia E. PACU nurse a knob |
C. bleeding and haematoma |
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Von Hippel-Lindaudisease is associated with: A. increased risk of malignant hyperthermia B. meningiomas C. peripheral neuropathy D. pheochromocytomas E. poor dentition n |
D. pheochromocytomas |
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Theintercostobrachial nerve: A. Arises from T2 trunk B. Is usually blocked in brachial plexus block C. Supplies antecubital fossa D. can be damaged by torniquet E. Arises from inferior trunk |
D. canbe damaged by tourniquet "tickle nerve" supplies axilla andoriginates from 2nd intercostal nerve |
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Most common congenital heartdisease (repeat)A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. TOF E. Transpositiongreat arteries |
A. VSD |
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Which is not a branch of themandibular nerve A. Auriculotemporal B. Great auricular C. Lingual D. Masseteric E. Buccal |
A. Auriculotemporal |
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Respiratory function in quadriplegics is improved by A. abdominal distension B. an increase in chest wall spasticity C. interscalene nerve block D. the upright position E. unilateral compliance reduction |
B. an increase in chest wall spasticity |
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Carcinoid syndrome - finding on examining heart: A. Fine inspiratory crepitations B. Systolic murmur at apex C. Systolic murmur at left sternal edge D. Murmur at apex with opening snap E. Pericardial rub |
b. Systolic murmur atleft sternal edge RHF associated with liver mets releasing factors(which are inactivated by the lungs so they don't affect left heart)ernal edge |
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Patient withaortic dissection. Blood pressure 150/90. Best drug to control BP: A. Captopril B. Esmolol C. GTN D. Hydralazine E. SNP |
B. Esmolol |
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A 4 year oldchild with VSD (repaired when 2 years old) for dental surgery. What antibioticprophylaxis do the guidelines recommend? A. Amoxycillynorally B. AmoxycillinIV C. Cephazolin IV D. Amoxycillin /gentamicin E. Noantibiotics required |
E. No antibiotics required |
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Cell saver.Which does NOT get filtered ? A. Foetal cells B. Free Hb C. Platelets D. Clottingfactors E.Microaggregates of leukocytes |
A. Foetal cells |
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Burns dressings.The following is proven to be of analgesic benefit: A. Morphine gel B. Biosyntheticdressings C.Dexmedetomidine IV D. Lignocaine IV E.Cognitive/Distraction technique |
B. Biosynthetic dressings |
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Complex regionalpain syndrome. What proportion of patients have motor involvement ?A. 0 % B. 25 % C. 50 % D. 75 % E. 95 % |
D. 75 % |
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Maternal cardiacarrest. In making the diagnosis of amniotic fluid embolism, large amount ofPMNs surrounding foetal squamous cells are A. Pathognomonic B. Supportive C. Only found atpostmortem D. Irrelevant E. Incidental |
B. Supportive |
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Histaminerelease in anaphylaxis does NOT cause: A. Tachycardia B. Myocardialdepression C. Coronaryartery vasodilatation D. Prolonged PRinterval E. Decreasedimpulse conduction |
B. Myocardial depression |
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Which LMA hashighest seal pressure? A. Classic B. Disposablesupreme C. Flexible D. Intubating E. Proseal |
E. Proseal |
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When hearingloss occurs following spinal anaesthesia it is usually in which of thefollowing frequency ranges: A. 125 - 1000 Hz B. 1500 - 3000Hz C. 3500 - 5500Hz D. 6000 -10000Hz E. > 11000Hz |
A. 125 - 1000 Hz |
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Anaemia inchronic renal failure is characteristically: A. due tohaemolysis in the renal vascular bed B. normochromicand microcytic C. due todefective haemoglobin synthesis D. responsive toiron and folate therapy E. associatedwith increased 2,3-DPG levels in blood cells |
E. associated with increased 2,3-DPG levels in blood cells |
