• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/123

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

123 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

If as a veterinary Nurse, you were concerned


a Surgeon or nurse was not working in accordance with Veterinary surgeons


act whom should you contact?

Samaritans


BVNA Legal Helpline


Citizen's Advice Bureau


RCVS Professional Conduct Department

Which of the following describes a


referral case?



Vet Surgeon decides to send a patient


to a specialist for Diagnosis and treatment.


A client asks their own vet to examine their


pet and make a diagnosis, then asks a


second vet to do the same.


A vet Surgeon examines an animal, then


asks a colleague to examine and give advice.



Under data protection act 1998, all


companies with personal information


must register with the:

Local Council


HM Revenue and Customs


Information Commissioner's Office


Data Protection Officer's Department

Which of the following commonly used abbreviations means 'every 8 hours?'

BID


QID


SID


Q8H

Under Schedule 3 of Vet Surgeons act 1966,


who of the following may NOT legally


administer medication to an in-patient


either with or without supervision?

A registered veterinary nurse


A veterinary student


A enrolled student veterinary nurse


A qualified un-registered veterinary nurse

According to the RCVS guideance, it is


acceptable for a veterinary surgeon to


decline to accept a non-emergency case,


where the client is seeking a second


opinion if?

The animal if already being treated by


another vet.


The client refuses to disclose the original


vets details.


The client does not agree to become a permanent client.


The vet surgeon is in competition with the original veterinary practice.



Which term is used when one vet surgeon


takes over the client of another vet,


without the original vet's knowledge or


consent?

Stealing


Subterfuge


Supplication


Supersession

According to the code of professional


conduct, there are 5 principles of practice,


which of the following are not one of these?

Honesty and integrity.


Professional competence.


Professional accountability.


Ensuring health and welfare of animals.

According to advice from the RCVS which


of the following statements is true?

Monitoring and maintenance of


anaesthesia must be carried out by


a suitably trained person.


Only registered or enrolled student vet nurses may monitor and maintain anaesthesia.


Anyone can monitor and maintain anaesthesia provided they are under the supervision of a vet surgeon.


Monitoring and maintenance of anaesthesia may only be carried our by a qualified vet nurse or surgeon

Which of the following is not a suitable


bedding material for horses?

Paper


Sawdust


Cushion bed


Wheat Straw

Which of the following is NOT a zoonotic condition of horses?

Psittacosis


Leptospirosis


Salmonellosis


Campylobacter infection?

What is wind-sucking in horses?

A stereotypical coping behaviour.


Behaviour used by stallions to appear


larger before fights.


Method for a horse to increase oxygen


during hard exercise.


Behaviour carried out by foals when


trying to locate mare's teat.

Which of the following is NOT a stable vice in horses?

Weaving


Napping


Crib-biting


Wind-sucking

Tenesmus means,,,,

Vibrations in the animals ears.


Ineffectual Straining to pass faeces or


urine.


Abnormally high temperature.


Abnormal heart beat.

Yellowing of mucous membranes is


referred as...

Jaundice.


Cyanosis.


Pallor.


Haemorrhage.

Dogs normal Temperature range is....

38.0 - 38.5.


38.3 - 38.7.


40 - 43.5.


44 - 48.4.

Adult horses normal heart rate is....

10 - 20 beats per minute.


24 - 40 beats per minute.


40 - 50 beats per minute.


55 - 75 beats per minute.

Anuria means...

No urine being produced.


Decreased amount of urine being produced.


Difficulty in passing urine.


Normal amount of urine produced.

Which is the following may be described


as hyperdynamic circulation?

Abnormal high body temperature.


Abnormal increased blood volume


due to low blood pressure.


Pulse that is abnormally strong and jerky.


Abnormal fast heart rate.

Abnormally low heart rate is termed...

Bradycardia


Bradypneoa


Tachycardia


Tachypneoa

What is normal CRT in healthy cat/dog?

Less than 2 secs


3 - 4 secs


4 - 5 secs


over 5 secs

Which of the following pieces of


equipment may be used to obtain


a blood pressure reading?

A stethoscope


An Oscillotonometer


A tonometer pen


Your fingers

All of the following may be used to assess


the hydration status EXPECT

Amount of urine produced


Amount of water the dog drinks


Capillary refill time


Appearance of mucous membranes

Which of the following drug


administration routes will have the


quickest speed of action?

Oral


Rectal


Subcutaneous


Intravenous

Enteric coatings on tablets...

Make the tablet palatable.


Slow dissolution in the stomach and


intestinal tract.


Aid in the giving of the tablet.


Prevent metabolism of the drug by the liver.



How soon after opening must a


multi-dose drug bottle be disposed of?

Immediately after use


Within 24 hours


28 days


6 months

How often should the insertion site of a IV catheter be checked and dressing changed.

Twice a day


Once a day


When dressing looks dirty


Not until the animal goes home

Which of the following muscles is a


suitable site for administering


intramuscular injections in birds

Pectoral Muscle


Gluteal muscle


Pygostyle muscle


Supracoracoideus Muscle

Which of the following muscles is a


suitable site for administering


intramuscular injections in cats and dogs

Masseter muscles


Gluteal muscles


Quadriceps muscles


Biceps femoris muscles

Which colour waste bins should


cytotoxic drugs and the PPE used


in their administration be disposed of?

Blue


Purple


Yellow and black stripe


Yellow and Orange

What is the purpose of cleaning before disinfection?

To remove organic matter, grease and


debris so that disinfection can take place.


To destroy pathogens.


To make the practice smell nice.


To help maintain personal hygiene.

What is the disinfectant hibiscrub?

A hypochlorite


An iodophor


Cetrimide


Chlorhexidine

Which disinfectants also have a detergent action?

Halogentaed Tertiary Amines


Hypochlorites


Peroxides


Aldehydes

Which of the following can be used


on the skin?

Glutaraldehyde


Chlorinated Phenols


Hypochlorites


Ethylene oxide

What are suture materials that come in


reels stored in?

Glutaraldehyde


Cetrimide


Alcohol


Chlorhexidine

Which of the following do quaternary ammonium compounds inactivate?

Hypochlorites


Alchol


Chlorhexidine


Pine oil fluids

What type of disinfectant is Jeyes fluid?

Iodophor


Bleach


Phenol compound


Aldehyde

Antisepsis is....

The removal of all pathogenic


micro-organisms including spores from


the environment.


The removal of all pathogenic micro-organisms but not necessarily spores from


the environment.


The removal of all pathogenic


micro-organisms but not necessarily


spores from skin


The removal of all pathogenic


micro-organisms including spores from skin.

What is a zoonotic disease?

A contagious disease that may spread from animal to animal.


A disease that DEFRA must be notified


about.


A disease that is resistant to antibiotics.


A contagious disease that may spread


from animals to humans

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

Cat bite abscess


Toxoplasmosis


Otitis Externa


Ctenocephalides felis

How can vet nurses help prevent antibiotic resistant developing in animals?

Encourage clients to have animals screened


for MRSA.


Use effective barrier nursing techniques.


Encourage clients to finish courses of


antibiotics when prescribed by the vet


surgeon.


Wear gloves when nursing animals

Sterilisation is defined as:

Removal or destruction of microorganisms


but not necessarily bacterial spores.


Removal or destruction of all living microorganisms including bacterial spores.


Removal or destruction of microorganisms


but not necessarily bacterial spores on skin or living tissue.


Removal or destruction of microorganisms


but not necessarily bacterial spores from the environment.

Browne's tubes change from red to what


colour once sterilisation is achieved

Green


Brown


Pink


Orange

A true indication of sterilisation is achieved through using...

TST Strips


Indicators on bags


Spore strips


Browne's tubes

It is important for instruments to be clean


before steam sterilisation because...

The steam cannot penetrate through


grease and debris.


It lowers the levels of microorganisms


on the instruments.


It prolongs the life of the instruments.


All of the above.

When using a vacuum autoclave to


sterilise instruments the shortest cycle


possible is....

3 minutes


5 minutes


10 minutes


15 minutes

Which of the following describes infection?

A microorganism invading a host, multiplying and causing a host response.


a microorganism spreading from one animal to another.


A microorganism spreading directly from one host to another.


A microorganism surviving outside the host and spreading by vectors.

A dog has 'Kennel Cough' in kennels. How can this disease be transferred to another animal?

By inhaled Aerosol droplets


By direct contact with infected animal


By indirect contract with infectious orgnisms


All of the above

A pathogen is a/an....

Organism that causes disease.


Method of transmitting diseases.


Inanimate object that is involved in the transmission of disease.


Animal that carries a disease.

Which of the following best describes a prion?

An infectious agent made of protein with


no DNA.


An infectious agent made of protein


with DNA


An infectious agent made of nucleic acid


with a protein coat.


An infectious agent with a similar structure


to an animal cell.

A nosocominal infection is caused by...

Parasites invading the animal's body.


Microorganisms acquired within the hospital environment.


Microorganisms coming directly from another animal.


Viruses attacking the animals body.

All of the following are possible routes by


which an infectious microorganism can


leave an infected animal EXCEPT:

Diarrhoea


Urine


Ear Wax


Milk (Lactation)

All of the following are viruses EXCEPT:

Bordetella Bronchiseptica


Canine distemper


Feline Leukaemia


Rabies

Which organism/s can cause the condition known as 'Ringworm'

Toxoplasma Gondii


Malasezzia Pachydermatis


Microsporum Canis and Trichophyton


Mentagrophytes


Leptospira

Fungi reproduce by...

Invading and replicating inside intestinal cells.


Splitting a parents cell's nucleus and forming a daughter cell.


Producing spores.


Transforming normal cell proteins into a disease causing form.

The ability of a microorganism to pass from one host to another is the definition of....

Infectivity


Pathogenicity


An epidemic


Transmissibility

Which of the following best describes


a paratenic host?

A host which carries an organism and is


necessary for the development of part


of the organism's life cycle.


A vector which can shed the microorganism


at any time.


A host in which the organism completes


its lifecycle.


An intermediate host the must be eaten so that an organism can complete its lifecycle.

What is a fomite?

An inanimate object on which


microorganisms can be spread.


A type of paratenic host.


An intermediate host.


A living organism which spreads disease


by direct contact.


Which animal would you clean out


first in a hospital ward?

A bitch due to be spayed that day.


A kitten with Feline Leukaemia.


An adult dog with a fractured leg


needing pinning.


A cat with a discharging abscess

Why should cadavers be handled using


protective equipment?

The animal may have had a zoonotic disease.


You may contaminate your clothing


with body fluids.


The animal may have had a contagious


disease.


All of the above.

The disposal of pet animal cadavers is


governed by which piece of legislation.

Animal Welfare Act 2006.


Carriage of Dangerous goods and use


of transportable pressure receptacles


regulations.


Animal By-products regulations 2011.


Hazardous Waste regulations 2009.

What is the purpose of cleaning before


disinfection?

To remove organic matter, grease and debris


so disinfection can take place.


Destroy Pathogens


Make practice smell nice


Maintain personal hygiene

How many repetitions of each step are


required when using the WHO six-step


hand washing procedure?

3


4


5


6

All of the following practice areas are classified


as low infection risk for cleaning purposes


EXCEPT:

Cat ward


Practice managers office


Staff room


Store room


A document that describes in a step-by-step


manner how various tasks should be


carried out is...

A cleaning chart


A standard operating procedure


A task sign off sheet


A daily checklist

What is a zoonotic disease?

A contagious disease that may spread


from humans to animals.


A disease that Defra must be notified about.


A disease that is resistant to antibiotics.


A contagious disease that may spread


from animals to humans.

Which zoonotic disease may be spread by


contact with contaminated urine,


particularly in areas frequented by rats?

Toxoplasma Gondii


Leptospirosis


Ringworm


Canine distemper

When approaching the nursing process,


the order of actions should be carried


out in is...

Planning, Evaluation, Assessment and


Implementation.


History, Self care and help needed.


Assessment, implementation, planning and


evaluation.


Assessment, Planning, Implementation


and evaluation

Which model of nursing considers the ability


of animals to 'self-care'

Roper, Logan and Tierney


Orem


Orlando


Casey

Which of the following is NOT an activity


of living as defined in Roper, Logan


and Tierney's nursing model?

Dying


Maintain body temperature


Breeding


Grooming

Which of the following is a feature of the


Roper, Logan and Tierney nursing model?

Self-care requisites


Developmental healthcare needs


Health deviations


Individuality in living

Which nursing model includes consideration


for a patient's extra needs if they are pregnant?

Orem's Self care model.


Orpet and Jeffrey's Ability model.


Roper, Logan and Tierney's activity of


living model.


None of the above.





What ambient temperature should a


hospital kennel area be kept at?



7C


10C


18 - 21C


26 - 29C

What is the recommended number


of air changes per hour in hospital


kennels?

Less than 2


3 - 4


4 - 8


At least 10

Which of the following signs may indicate


stress in hospitalised patients?

Eating ravenously and seeking cold areas.


Lip licking, Salivation and Anorexia.


Normal blood glucose, Slow HR, Slow RR.


Grooming, Eating and toileting twice a day.

Placing a cat in a high level kennel will...

Increase feelings of stress.


Make the cat feel less secure.


Reduce feelings of stress.


Increase chances of the cat developing


urinary problems.

How could you reduce stress for hospitalised


dogs?

Provide frequent opportunities for toileting.


Ensure any radio in the ward is playing


appropriate music.


Minimise chatting, laughing, etc in ward.


All of the above.

When should you remove an ET tube from


an anaesthetised cat?

Immediately once anaesthetic is turned off.


Before the laryngeal reflexes return.


After the laryngeal reflexes return.


Anytime as long as the cuff remains inflated.

The most suitable diet to feed long term


to a cat with a naso-oesophageal feeding


tube would be?

Blended cat food and water.


A mixture of high carbohydrate and fats.


Commercial convalescent food.


Anything as long as it is liquidised.

PEG stands for...

Permanently entered gastrostomy tube.


Percutaneous endoscopically placed


gastrostomy tube.


Permanently endoscopically placed


gastrotomy tube.


None of the above.

When discharging a patient post surgery,


which is the best protocol to follow to ensure


clients fully understand the information?

Discharge in the waiting room and speak


slowly and clearly.


Return the pet to the owner and then take


the client to a separate room to discuss


post op care.


Discuss the post op instructions in a separate


room and then return the pet.


Get Vet surgeon to carry out discharge.

Petrissage is...

Physiotherapy that involves


squeezes muscular areas of the body.


Physiotherapy involving cycling of animals


limbs.


Physiotherapy that helps loosen bronchial


secretions.


Physiotherapy that involves stroking skin


towards the heart.

An indwelling urinary catheter should be


left in place....

For at least 10 days.


For only 24 hours.


For as short an amount of time as possible.


For as long as possible.

Which of the following is not classed as a


nursing consideration that is particularly


associated with recumbency?

Decubitus Ulcers


Hypostatic Pneumonia


Anorexia


Food Aspiration

What is the normal amount of urine


produced by a dog per hour?

0.5 - 1 ml/kg


1 - 2 ml/kg


3 - 4 ml/kg


5 - 6 ml/kg

A foley catheter has....

A stylet down the middle of the catheter to


ease insertion.


A tip that is rigid material and curved.


A balloon around the end that is inflated


once fitted.


None of the above.

Which type of fluid would you use for a


dehydrated dog that had been kept in a hot


car and was suffering from heat stroke?

An artificial colloid


Plasma


Blood


A crystalloid

What is the approximate normal total fluid


requirement for a healthy animal?

20 ml/kg/day


60 ml/kg/day


100 ml/kg/day


150 ml/kg/day

Which of the following conditions may


predispose a patient to circulatory overload


during IV fluid therapy?

Congestive heart failure


Shock


Arthritis


Obesity

Which are the main extracellular ions?

Sodium, Potassium and Chloride


Sodium, Chloride and Bicarbonate


Potassium, bicarbonate and protein


Potassium, protein and phosphate

What proportion of an animal's body weight


is made up of interstitial fluid?

60%


50%


5%


15%


A small kitten is collapsed and very dehydrated


It has not been possible to get a vein.


What is the best route to give fluid?

Orally


Intraperitoneal


Subcutaneous


Intraosseous

Which of the following needle lengths is


suitable for a adult horse?

5/8 inch


1/2 inch


1 1/2 inch


2 inch

When conducting faecal worm egg counts,


what units are used?

Eggs per gram


Eggs per kilogram


Eggs per dropping


Eggs per day

Which of the following is NOT an


endoparasite of horses?

Adult tapeworm


Strongyles


Adult bot fly


Ascarids

Which of the following is NOT a method of


assessing lameness in horses?

Trotting up


Flexion tests


Epidural Blocks


MRI

Which one of the following is correct


concerning a horse that shows a pale


grey/blue pigmentation of the iris?



If shown, this will always occur in both eyes.


This is called 'Wall eye'


This leads to impaired vision or blindness


This is always caused by trauma to the eye


Which one of the following is the most


suitable bedding material for a horse with


COPD?

Sawdust


Hay


Wheat Straw


Paper

What is the heart rate of a foal at 15 mins


of age?

80 - 100 bpm


24 - 40 bpm


120 - 160 bpm


180 - 220 bpm

Which term is used to describe the


behaviour in which a horse grabs a


projecting object, arches its neck and gulps


down air.

Weaving


Napping


Cribbing


Wind sucking

Which reptile substrates will retain humidity


levels most efficiently?

Sand


Wood chip


Paper


Peat

An example of an intensive care cage for


a bird in an...

Aqua Brooder


Aqua Birder


Aquarium


Incubator

Which of the following is a requirement


of a hospital mare and foal box?

It should be at the centre of the in-patient


area to enable quick staff response.


It should be a small box to prevent the


mare and foal over-mobilising.


There should be optional partitioning to


separate mare and foal if necessary.


There should be no airflow so draughts are


prevented.

With the exception of hospital kennel


situations why should dog beds be raised


from the floor?

To allow easier cleaning.


To prevent draughts reaching the dog.


To make it harder for the dog to destroy


its bed.


All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT a zoonotic


condition of horses?

Salmonellosis


Leptospirosis


Camplylobacter infection


Psittascosis

A cat's normal temp is...

37.3 - 37.7


38.0 - 38.5


38.5 - 40.0


40.0 - 40.5


If the mucous membranes of a patient


appeared yellow, its described as....

Hypotensive


Hypertensive


Cyanotic


Jaundiced

What is the normal temp for a dog?

37.2 - 38


38.3 - 38.7


38.9 - 39.3


36.7 - 37.2

Approximately how much water does a


stabled horse require per day?

5 - 10 litres


20 - 40 litres


60 - 100 litres


120 - 160 litres

What type of fluid depletion is seen in animals


suffering from burns?

Primary water loss


Water and sodium loss


Water and potassium loss


Water and loss of all electrolytes


What type of fluid would you use if an animal


with severe liver disease was dehydrated,


and had plasma protein levels of less than


35 g/l?

Whole blood


Colloid


Hartmanns


Normal Saline

Which electrolyte may become depleted in


long-term fluid therapy?

Sodium


Calcium


Potassium


Phosphorus

Under special waste disposal requirements,


what type of waste is placed into a solid


yellow contain with a yellow lid?

Offensive waste


Sharps contaminated with drugs


Waste contaminated with Radioactivity


Waste contaminated with cytotoxic

Who may legally diagnose disease / illness


in animals?

Registered Veterinary Nurse


Member of the British Veterinary Association


Member of the Royal College of


Veterinary Surgeons


All of the Above

Which of the following describes a referral


case?

Vet Surgeon decides to send a patient to a


specialist for diagnosis and treatment.


Client asks their vet to examine their pet


and make a diagnosis then asks a 2nd vet


to do the same.


Vet Surgeon examines an animal, then


asks a colleague to give advise


All of the above.

An example of a closed wound is....

Contusion


Laceration


Incision


Puncture

On average, how long does it take for a


wound to heal by first intention?

2 - 3 days


5 - 7 days


7 - 10 days


More than 14 days

Which of the following would delay wound


healing?

Suturing.


Keeping the wound sufficiently moist.


Foreign material within the wound.


Use of topical antibiotics.

Granulation tissue is visible in which type


of healing?

Healing by close surgical apposition


Healing by primary union


Healing by first intention


Healing by secondary intenion

What type of wound is a cat bite usually?

Lacerated wound


Contusion


Puncture wound


Incised wound

Which of the following laws enables


employees to be accompanied by a trade


union official or a colleague at a disciplinary


or grievance hearing?

Equality Act 2010


Human Rights Act 1998


Employment Relations Act 2004


Protection from Harassment Act 1997

Under the working time regulations what


is the maximum average number of hours


per work you can work?

38 hours


48 hours


58 hours


68 hours

After starting a new job, within what


period of time must your employer provide


you with a written statement of


employment particulars?

2 weeks1 month2 months3 months