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91 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
These are areas of necrosis and ulceration where tissues are compressed between bony prominences and hard surfaces.
Pressure Ulcers
Pressure ulcers result from pressure alone or pressure in combination with what?
in combination with friction, shearing forces or both.
What are the five risk factors for pressure ulcers?
Advanced Age

Impaired Circulation

Immobilization

Malnourishment

Incontinence
Pressure ulcers develop through an interaction between what two factors?
External factors and Host factors
What are the four external factors?
Pressure
Shear
Friction
Moisture
Sustained pressure without repositioning.
Pressure-external factor
Occurs if patient is placed on an incline.
Shear-external factor
Dragging patient across external surface.
Friction-external factor
Sweat, Feces, and/or Urine combined with pressure.
Moisture-external factor
What are the four host factors?
Immobility
Incontinence
Nutritional Status
Cardiovascular disease
What are the three things you watch for in order to prevent pressure wounds?
1. Identify patients at risk and take preventative measure

2. Norton Scale: Score <14 = High Risk

3. Braden Scale
What are the four areas measured on the Norton scale?
Physical Condition

Mental Condition

Activity

Mobility

Incontinent
The following are measured on what scale?

Sensory perception

Moisture

Activity

Mobility

Nutrition

Friction and Shear
Braden Scale
With the Braden Scale the pressure sore risk _____ as score ______?
With the Braden Scale the pressure sore risk increases as score decreases.
What is considered mild risk on the Braden Scale?
15-16
What is considered moderate risk on the Braden Scale?
12-14
What is considered serious risk on the Braden Scale?
<12
What are the most common sites for pressure ulcers?
Sacrum

Ischial Tuberosity

Trochanters

Malleoli

Heels

Elsewhere - Behind the ears with cannula, poorly fitting prosthetic devices over bony prominence.
How often should you change the position of a patient?
Every 2 hours
You should place a patient at what angle, or on their side to avoid direct pressure on the lateral decubitus and trochanter?
30 Degrees
These are static devices that are used with lower risk patients, distribute local pressure over wider BSA. What four things are included?
Mattresses or Overlays containing Gel, Foam, Air, Water.
The dynamic devices, which are used for higher risk patients, or patients who already have ulcers (stage II-IV), include what?
Beds with a power source that alternates air currents to regulate or redistribute pressure against the body.
What is something you should not clean the skin with when it is a bed bound patient?
Peroxide.
What do you follow when watching a bed bound patient's nutritional status?
Caloric Intake - Supplement if Necessary

Vitamin/Mineral Supplements - C, E, Zinc

Follow Serum - Albumin, Pre-Albumin
What are the nutritional requirements/considerations for a bed bound patient?
Protein intake of 1-1.2 g/kg/day

Total Caloric intake of 30 kcal/kg

Supplements
Intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. Darkly pigmented skin may not have visible blanching; its color may differ from the surrounding area.
Stage I Pressure Ulcer
Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough. May also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum filled blister.
Stage II Pressure Ulcer
Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon or muscle are not exposed. Slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. May include undermining and tunneling.
Stage III Pressure Ulcer
Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. Slough or escher may be present on some parts of the wound bed. Often include undermining and tunneling.
Stage IV Pressure Ulcer
Full thickness, but base is covered by slough or eschar, precluding exact determination of stage.
Unstagable Pressure Ulcer
Intact skin with localized purple or maroon discoloration or blood filled blister. May be difficult to detect in individuals with dark skin tone. These evolve rapidly.
Suspected Deep Tissue Injury associated with Pressure Ulcers.
Wound care is usually non operative for stages _ and _?
I and II
Stages III and IV Pressure Ulcers may require what for TX?
Surgical intervention
If you see a pressure ulcer surrounded by infection, you should suspect what?
Sinus tract involvement, cellulitis, or malignancy.
If you see poor healing associated with a pressure ulcer then you should consider what?
Consider atypical lesion (malignancy, pyoderma gangernosa).
What can you use to treat Pre-Ulcer and Stages I and II Pressure Ulcers?
Emolients

Dressings

Pressure Relief
What is used to TX Stages III and IV Pressure Ulcers?
Wound Debridement:

Wet to Dry Dressing

Surgical Debridement

Mechanical Debridement

Chemical Debridement - Autolytic, Enzymatic
This is aimed at removing all devitalized tissue that serves as a reservoir for ongoing bacterial contamination and possible infection.
Debridement
What are the primary principles of wound closure?
Identifying potential injury to underlying structure

Local/Regional Anesthesia

Clean Wound

Wound Exploration

Wound Closure

Dressing
What are the five main reasons for closure?
Decrease time required to heal

Reduce risk of infection

Decrease scar tissue formation

Repair the function or structure

Improve the cosmetic appearance
This is a wound made during a surgical procedure with proper aseptic technique. No involvement of respiratory, GU or GI tract contaminant.
Clean Wound
This is a wound that is a surgical incision with involvement of respiratory, GU or GI tract contaminant.
Clean-contaminated Wound
This is a wound that has gross spillage of bodily content into wounds (i.e. stool, bile). Traumatic wounds, including laceration are in this category.
Contaminated Wound
This is a wound with established infection before wound is made (abscess) or heavily contaminated wounds (e.g. bowel content).
Infected Wound
Wounds should be close within _ hours of injury?
8 hours
What are three contraindications to laceration repair?
1. Wounds that have a high likelihood of contamination.

2. Animal or human bites on extremities and torso (exceptions made for face).

3. High pressure injection injuries (i.e. auto mechanics)
When would you consider delayed closure of a wound?
Consider with contaminated wounds or delayed presentation of patient for treatment.
What are the four steps in preparing a wound?
Anesthesia

Irrigation

Debridement

Cleaning
What are the topical anesthetics used?
Benzocaine

Tetracaine

Cocaine

Lidocaine
What are the injectable injections used for anesthesia?
Lidocaine

Mepivacaine

Prilocaine

Bupivacine

Procaine

Tetracaine
Local anesthetic acts to block the conduction of nerve impulses by selectively binding to?
Sodium channels
Epinephrine is more effective with what, compared to what?
Epinephrine is more effective with lidocaine than with bupivacaine.
What are the absolute contraindications for using epinephrine?
Untreated hyperthyroidism or phenochromocytoma.

Administration to areas of the body with single dependent blood supply: fingers, toes, penis, nose, and pinna of ear.
Buffering anesthetic with this will eliminate burning sensation and increase onset of action.
10% sodium bicarbonate
Anesthetic will be less effective in what kind of tissue?
Infected tissue
If you are using a topical solution that contains epinephrine, what will happen at the site?
It will blanch when the solution has been absorbed (may take 15-30 minutes for lidocaine).
This is used to anesthetize adult nasal mucosa?
Cocaine
Adding this to 1% lidocaine achieves same effect as using plain 2% lidocaine.
Epinephrine
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine?
3-5mg/kg
What is the level of lidocaine where toxicities can be noticed?
May be observed at 6 mcg/mL, but more commonly occur once levels exceed 10 mcg/mL
What are the local complications associated with injections?
Bruising

Edema

Infection

Prolonged or permanent nerve damage

Temporary motor nerve paralysis
When the lidocaine dose is increased from __ to __ the risk of CNS toxicity increases from 10% to 80% symptoms.
1mg/kg to 1.5mg/kg
Method of anesthetic administration:

This is appropriate for small wounds. There is a rapid onset of action.
Direct infiltration of wound
Method of anesthetic administration:

Appropriate for procedures (LP, skin biopsy, abscess without surrounding infection).
Direct infiltration of intact skin
Method of anesthetic administration:

Larger areas, contaminated wounds
Field Block
What do you use to irrigate a wound with?
Saline
This closure material cannot be used on an area with hair, or on an area of tension.
Dermabond
This is similar strength to sutures, good for superficial wounds or skin tears.
Steri strips
This is good for scalp lacerations or large surgical incisions, this should NEVER be used on the face.
Staples
These sutures are absorbable and can be used for mucosal areas and deep sutures.
gut, vicrayl, chromic
What are the local complications associated with injections?
Bruising

Edema

Infection

Prolonged or permanent nerve damage

Temporary motor nerve paralysis
When the lidocaine dose is increased from __ to __ the risk of CNS toxicity increases from 10% to 80% symptoms.
1mg/kg to 1.5mg/kg
Method of anesthetic administration:

This is appropriate for small wounds. There is a rapid onset of action.
Direct infiltration of wound
Method of anesthetic administration:

Appropriate for procedures (LP, skin biopsy, abscess without surrounding infection).
Direct infiltration of intact skin
Method of anesthetic administration:

Larger areas, contaminated wounds
Field Block
What do you use to irrigate a wound with?
Saline
This closure material cannot be used on an area with hair, or on an area of tension.
Dermabond
This is similar strength to sutures, good for superficial wounds or skin tears.
Steri strips
This is good for scalp lacerations or large surgical incisions, this should NEVER be used on the face.
Staples
These sutures are absorbable and can be used for mucosal areas and deep sutures.
gut, vicrayl, chromic
These are nonabsorbable suture materials that are primarily used to close the skin.
Silk, nylon, prolene
What are the contraindications for dressing a wound?
Skin allergy to adhesive material

Dressing that impairs circulation

Dry dressing that may stick to wound and cause loss of granulation tissue

Tape directly to skin (may cause skin tears in elderly)
Scalp sutures should be removed when?
6-8 days
Face and Ear sutures should be removed when?
4-5 days
Chest/Abdomen, Arm/Leg, and Hand sutures should be removed when?
8-10 days
Back and Foot sutures should be removed when?
12-14 days
Fingertip sutures should be removed when?
10-12 days
You add 2-3 days to the time when a suture should be removed if?
It is over a joint surface
This is particularly important for the aftercare in extremity wounds.
Elevation
What body location uses the smallest suture size for repair?
Eyelid percutaneous 7.0/6.0 monofilament
What uses the largest suture material for repair?
Foot/Sole percutaneous 4.0/3.0 monofilament