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127 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Is regulation by degradation of proteins used by bacteria?
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Not much
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When is degredation of proteins used by bacteria?
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In degredation of special sigma factors when not needed
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How do prokaryotes regulate gene expression?
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Regulate expression of a gene for a protein; only express needed genes; repress not needed genes
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How do eukaryotes regulate gene expression?
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Regulate protein activity
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There are ___ sigma factors in E Coli:
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7
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There are ___ sigma factors in B subtilis:
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14
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Heat shock response is regulated by:
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sigma-32
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How does sporulation in B subtilis use sigma factors?
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It uses alternate sigma factors for each stage and compartment
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Nitrogen utilization uses what type of sigma factors?
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Alternate sigma factors plus other control
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Stringent response changes ____ of sigma factor?
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Specificity
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The stringent response signals what?
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The lack of AAs in a cell
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Stringent response is mediated by what?
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Special nucleotides synthesized by RelA
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RelA is associated with ___ ribosome subunit:
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50S
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RelA makes ____ and ____ when uncharged tRNA binds to ribosome:
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ppGpp and pppGpp
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What do ppGpp/pppGpp do?
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Down regulate treatment of rrn genes, tRNA operons and upregulate treatment of AA biosynthesis genes
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Negative regulation of transcription is carried out by what?
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DNA-binding proteins called repressors
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How do repressors work?
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Bind to special DNA sequences called operators and prevent transcription by RNAP; prevent either elongation or initiation of transcription
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What are co-repressors or inducers?
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Ligands that bind to repressors to to regulate repressor activity under different conditions
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Positive regulation of transcription is carried out by:
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DNA-binding proteins called activators
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Genes that are positively regulated are only transcribed when what?
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When acitvatorsbind to DNA and facilitate RNAP activity at promoters
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Activators act how?
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By helping RNAP directly or by helping other activators to bind at promoters
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Activators bind ligands. What do the ligands do?
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Regulate DNA-binding activity under different conditions
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How is the lac operon regulated in E coli?
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LacI gene encodes repressor that binds DNA and blocks binding of RNAP at pLAC
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Optimal RNAP binding requires what?
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De-repression by lac and positive action of CAP-cAMP
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PLAC has poor ____ region:
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-35
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Binding of RNAP requires prior binding of:
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CAP-cAMP to adjacent site to compensate
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CAP only binds to DNA when:
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cAMP levels are high
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CAMP levels are inversely related to:
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glc levels in cells
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CAP activation by cAMP mediated by adenylate cyclase only in gram ___ bacteria:
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negative
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Glc down regulates:
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adenylate cyclase activity
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Modulon:
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set of operons that share a common element of regulation
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How does the SOS system work?
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LexA represses genes necessary for DNA repair after damage
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LexA synthesis is controled by?
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LexA
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LexA inactivated when?
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DNA damage is sensed by RecA
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What does RecA do?
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Cleaves LexA
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UmuCD:
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error prone DNAP V
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Transcriptionally regulated systems:
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feeder pathways, developmental pathways
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Repressor control that use co-repressors:
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ARG
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Repressor control that use operon and repressor:
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trp
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Repressor control that use attenuation:
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ARG and trp
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+ trpworks by:
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ribosome translates through leader, 3+4 form txn termination loop and it stops
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- trp works by:
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ribosome stalls upstream of RNAP, 2+3 forms and no txn termination loop, so txn of genes proceeds
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Riboswitch:
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mRNAs bind to metabolites and change conformation; found in bacteria, archea and plants
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How does regulation of enzyme levels by regulating translation work?
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SRNAS bind to mRNA and block translation, leading to degredation of the RNA
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How does covalent modification of glutamine synthetase work?
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In nitrogen-rich media GS is progressively adenylated by pII and becomes less active
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PII activity is controlled by:
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gln and aKG levels
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How many total AMP-binding sites are there?
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12
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How many different biosynthetic pathways use gln as nitrogen donor and regulates GA via feedback inhibition?
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9
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Allosteric regulation is used in what type of pathways?
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Catabolic and anabolic and feedback inhibition
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Allosteric regulation occurs when?
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When activity of an enzyme is reversibly regulated by ligand or other modulator
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Allosteric modulater controls via:
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conformational changes in regulated protein (+ or -)
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Can allosteric effectors change Km or Vmax?
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Yes
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Is a 3rd party enzyme needed for allosteric regulation?
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No
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All biosynthesis of building blocks is ___ controlled at first step:
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negatively
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What is often the regulator at the first step in many species:
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His
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The first enzyme leading to arg synthesis is:
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AGS
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The first enzyme leading to pro synthesis is:
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GK
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In the 2-component regulatory system sensors are:
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integral membrane proteins; often kinases that autophosphorylate when stressor binds
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In the 2-component regulatory system phosphorylated sensor kinase does what?
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Transfers Pi to response regulator that controls target genes
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chemo taxis:
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directed movement in response to chemicals
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Aerotaxis:
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directed movement in response to oxygen
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PH taxis:
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directed movement either toward or away from acd/ alkaline conditions
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Magnetotaxis:
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directed movement along geomagnetic lines of force
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Thermotaxis:
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directed movement toward a range of temperatures
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Phototaxis:
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directed movement toward wavelengths of light
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Chemotaxis in E coli random runs and tumbles in absence of attractent leads to what type of movement?
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little net movement
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Attractants lead to longer runs when?
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When diretion is up the gradient towards the attractent
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Sensory proteins are found where?
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In membrane
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Sensory proteins do what?
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Bind chemoattractents/ chemorepellents
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MCPs interact with ___ and ____:
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CheA and CheW
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MCPs form:
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CheA-P when bound to repellants
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Is the rate of formation of CheA-P increased or decreased when MCP binds attractent?
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Decreased
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CheA-P phosphorylates CheY to generate ____ :
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CheY-P
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CheY-P interacts with flagellar motor to induce ___ rotation and tumbling:
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clockwise
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CheY does not interact with flagellar motor leading to:
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long runs
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In adaption, MCPs are methylated by:
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CheR
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In adaption CheA-P phosphorylates CheB to form a demethylase that removes ____:
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methyl groups from MCPs
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What type of MCPs are most responsive?
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Unmethylated
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Quorum sensing:
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a form of intracellular communication that allows cells to know when population is concentrated enough for group activity
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What is used to control quorum sensing?
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AHL
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What phylum are endospore forming bacteria a part of?
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Firmicutes
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How does initiation of sporulation work?
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Level of SpoOA-P regulates when cell begins sporulation
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What keeps SpoOA-P levels low?
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Abundent nutrients
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Low levels of ApoOQ-P activate what?
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Survival responses including formation of abx, toxins etc
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For normal vegetative growth sigma factor ___ is used:
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A
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SpoOA-P leads to expression of 4 sporulation-specific sigma factors that do what?
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Regulate genes involved in all stages of sporulation
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Describe life cycle of caulobacter crescentus:
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loss of flagella, stalk formation and then division
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What is required for division in Caulobacter crecentus:
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stalk formation
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Myxobacteriapartake in “___” behavior which means what?
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Wolf behavior: vegetative cells secrete slime in trails that other cells follow
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When prey become scarce what do myxobacteria do?
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Pile up in aggregates and form fruiting bodies that release myxospores
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What do multiple cell walls and cartenoids in germinated cells do?
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Confer protection from harsh environments
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Akinetes:
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reproductive cells of cyan bacteria
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EB:
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infective form of chlamydia, are dormant and can survive outside cell
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RB:
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inhibit formation of phagolysosome, grow and divide, then revert to EBS
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Fungi are comprised of:
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yeasts, molds and mushrooms
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All ______ are non-photosynthetic and non-phagocytotic:
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fungi
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Cell walls of fungi are made of:
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chitin
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Thallas:
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non-reproductive body of fungus
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How does sexual reproduction in fungi work?
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Haploid spores of 2 mating types grow as filaments, cells from hyphea of 2 different mating types can fuse to make dikaryons
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Yeast are ____ and can make some ____ _____:
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transformable, recombinant proteins
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Yeast have cell walls made of:
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chitin
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Most protozoa live:
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in ponds, streams, lakes, ocean, damp soil
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All free-living protozoa exist as __________:
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motile feeding trophozoite
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Many free-living protozoa have a ____:
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cyst
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Flagellates:
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pathogens including t brucei (sleeping sickness)
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Ciliates:
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balantdium causes dysentery
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Paramecium have a macronucleus which is:
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not a tru nucleus
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Macronucleus contains 40-1000 what?
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Copies of genes needed for rapid growth
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Algea classification is based on:
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pigments
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Examples of algea are:
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diatoms and coccolithophores
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What causes red tide?
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Red algea
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Red algea cell walls contain:
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chitin
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Diatoms:
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single cells with protective coats made of SiO2
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Viruses:
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very abundent, contain: NA (RNA, DNA, DS and SS) and elevelope components and are classified based on these differences
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Viroids:
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RNA only and infect plant cells
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Virusoids:
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RNA only and infect animal cells via other virions
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Prions have ___ only:
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protein
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Some viral forms are:
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polyhedral, helical, complex and envelope added
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General features of viral life cycle are:
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attachment to host cell, entry into cell, viral-directed synthesis of new viral component, viral assembly and release of fully assembled virions
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How do viruses get out of cell?
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Lyse it of bud out
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Viroid infection agent is:
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RNA that forms double-stranded regions
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Plant pathogens include:
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coconut cadang cadang viroid and chrysanthemum stunt viroid
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Do virusoids have capsids?
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No
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The infectious agent of prions are:
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protein enriched in beta-pleated sheets
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PrPsc convert:
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cellular protein to altered form
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PrPsc is resistent to:
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proteases, disinfectants
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Prion diseases include:
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scrapie, CJD,and BSE
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