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127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Is regulation by degradation of proteins used by bacteria?
Not much
When is degredation of proteins used by bacteria?
In degredation of special sigma factors when not needed
How do prokaryotes regulate gene expression?
Regulate expression of a gene for a protein; only express needed genes; repress not needed genes
How do eukaryotes regulate gene expression?
Regulate protein activity
There are ___ sigma factors in E Coli:
7
There are ___ sigma factors in B subtilis:
14
Heat shock response is regulated by:
sigma-32
How does sporulation in B subtilis use sigma factors?
It uses alternate sigma factors for each stage and compartment
Nitrogen utilization uses what type of sigma factors?
Alternate sigma factors plus other control
Stringent response changes ____ of sigma factor?
Specificity
The stringent response signals what?
The lack of AAs in a cell
Stringent response is mediated by what?
Special nucleotides synthesized by RelA
RelA is associated with ___ ribosome subunit:
50S
RelA makes ____ and ____ when uncharged tRNA binds to ribosome:
ppGpp and pppGpp
What do ppGpp/pppGpp do?
Down regulate treatment of rrn genes, tRNA operons and upregulate treatment of AA biosynthesis genes
Negative regulation of transcription is carried out by what?
DNA-binding proteins called repressors
How do repressors work?
Bind to special DNA sequences called operators and prevent transcription by RNAP; prevent either elongation or initiation of transcription
What are co-repressors or inducers?
Ligands that bind to repressors to to regulate repressor activity under different conditions
Positive regulation of transcription is carried out by:
DNA-binding proteins called activators
Genes that are positively regulated are only transcribed when what?
When acitvatorsbind to DNA and facilitate RNAP activity at promoters
Activators act how?
By helping RNAP directly or by helping other activators to bind at promoters
Activators bind ligands. What do the ligands do?
Regulate DNA-binding activity under different conditions
How is the lac operon regulated in E coli?
LacI gene encodes repressor that binds DNA and blocks binding of RNAP at pLAC
Optimal RNAP binding requires what?
De-repression by lac and positive action of CAP-cAMP
PLAC has poor ____ region:
-35
Binding of RNAP requires prior binding of:
CAP-cAMP to adjacent site to compensate
CAP only binds to DNA when:
cAMP levels are high
CAMP levels are inversely related to:
glc levels in cells
CAP activation by cAMP mediated by adenylate cyclase only in gram ___ bacteria:
negative
Glc down regulates:
adenylate cyclase activity
Modulon:
set of operons that share a common element of regulation
How does the SOS system work?
LexA represses genes necessary for DNA repair after damage
LexA synthesis is controled by?
LexA
LexA inactivated when?
DNA damage is sensed by RecA
What does RecA do?
Cleaves LexA
UmuCD:
error prone DNAP V
Transcriptionally regulated systems:
feeder pathways, developmental pathways
Repressor control that use co-repressors:
ARG
Repressor control that use operon and repressor:
trp
Repressor control that use attenuation:
ARG and trp
+ trpworks by:
ribosome translates through leader, 3+4 form txn termination loop and it stops
- trp works by:
ribosome stalls upstream of RNAP, 2+3 forms and no txn termination loop, so txn of genes proceeds
Riboswitch:
mRNAs bind to metabolites and change conformation; found in bacteria, archea and plants
How does regulation of enzyme levels by regulating translation work?
SRNAS bind to mRNA and block translation, leading to degredation of the RNA
How does covalent modification of glutamine synthetase work?
In nitrogen-rich media GS is progressively adenylated by pII and becomes less active
PII activity is controlled by:
gln and aKG levels
How many total AMP-binding sites are there?
12
How many different biosynthetic pathways use gln as nitrogen donor and regulates GA via feedback inhibition?
9
Allosteric regulation is used in what type of pathways?
Catabolic and anabolic and feedback inhibition
Allosteric regulation occurs when?
When activity of an enzyme is reversibly regulated by ligand or other modulator
Allosteric modulater controls via:
conformational changes in regulated protein (+ or -)
Can allosteric effectors change Km or Vmax?
Yes
Is a 3rd party enzyme needed for allosteric regulation?
No
All biosynthesis of building blocks is ___ controlled at first step:
negatively
What is often the regulator at the first step in many species:
His
The first enzyme leading to arg synthesis is:
AGS
The first enzyme leading to pro synthesis is:
GK
In the 2-component regulatory system sensors are:
integral membrane proteins; often kinases that autophosphorylate when stressor binds
In the 2-component regulatory system phosphorylated sensor kinase does what?
Transfers Pi to response regulator that controls target genes
chemo taxis:
directed movement in response to chemicals
Aerotaxis:
directed movement in response to oxygen
PH taxis:
directed movement either toward or away from acd/ alkaline conditions
Magnetotaxis:
directed movement along geomagnetic lines of force
Thermotaxis:
directed movement toward a range of temperatures
Phototaxis:
directed movement toward wavelengths of light
Chemotaxis in E coli random runs and tumbles in absence of attractent leads to what type of movement?
little net movement
Attractants lead to longer runs when?
When diretion is up the gradient towards the attractent
Sensory proteins are found where?
In membrane
Sensory proteins do what?
Bind chemoattractents/ chemorepellents
MCPs interact with ___ and ____:
CheA and CheW
MCPs form:
CheA-P when bound to repellants
Is the rate of formation of CheA-P increased or decreased when MCP binds attractent?
Decreased
CheA-P phosphorylates CheY to generate ____ :
CheY-P
CheY-P interacts with flagellar motor to induce ___ rotation and tumbling:
clockwise
CheY does not interact with flagellar motor leading to:
long runs
In adaption, MCPs are methylated by:
CheR
In adaption CheA-P phosphorylates CheB to form a demethylase that removes ____:
methyl groups from MCPs
What type of MCPs are most responsive?
Unmethylated
Quorum sensing:
a form of intracellular communication that allows cells to know when population is concentrated enough for group activity
What is used to control quorum sensing?
AHL
What phylum are endospore forming bacteria a part of?
Firmicutes
How does initiation of sporulation work?
Level of SpoOA-P regulates when cell begins sporulation
What keeps SpoOA-P levels low?
Abundent nutrients
Low levels of ApoOQ-P activate what?
Survival responses including formation of abx, toxins etc
For normal vegetative growth sigma factor ___ is used:
A
SpoOA-P leads to expression of 4 sporulation-specific sigma factors that do what?
Regulate genes involved in all stages of sporulation
Describe life cycle of caulobacter crescentus:
loss of flagella, stalk formation and then division
What is required for division in Caulobacter crecentus:
stalk formation
Myxobacteriapartake in “___” behavior which means what?
Wolf behavior: vegetative cells secrete slime in trails that other cells follow
When prey become scarce what do myxobacteria do?
Pile up in aggregates and form fruiting bodies that release myxospores
What do multiple cell walls and cartenoids in germinated cells do?
Confer protection from harsh environments
Akinetes:
reproductive cells of cyan bacteria
EB:
infective form of chlamydia, are dormant and can survive outside cell
RB:
inhibit formation of phagolysosome, grow and divide, then revert to EBS
Fungi are comprised of:
yeasts, molds and mushrooms
All ______ are non-photosynthetic and non-phagocytotic:
fungi
Cell walls of fungi are made of:
chitin
Thallas:
non-reproductive body of fungus
How does sexual reproduction in fungi work?
Haploid spores of 2 mating types grow as filaments, cells from hyphea of 2 different mating types can fuse to make dikaryons
Yeast are ____ and can make some ____ _____:
transformable, recombinant proteins
Yeast have cell walls made of:
chitin
Most protozoa live:
in ponds, streams, lakes, ocean, damp soil
All free-living protozoa exist as __________:
motile feeding trophozoite
Many free-living protozoa have a ____:
cyst
Flagellates:
pathogens including t brucei (sleeping sickness)
Ciliates:
balantdium causes dysentery
Paramecium have a macronucleus which is:
not a tru nucleus
Macronucleus contains 40-1000 what?
Copies of genes needed for rapid growth
Algea classification is based on:
pigments
Examples of algea are:
diatoms and coccolithophores
What causes red tide?
Red algea
Red algea cell walls contain:
chitin
Diatoms:
single cells with protective coats made of SiO2
Viruses:
very abundent, contain: NA (RNA, DNA, DS and SS) and elevelope components and are classified based on these differences
Viroids:
RNA only and infect plant cells
Virusoids:
RNA only and infect animal cells via other virions
Prions have ___ only:
protein
Some viral forms are:
polyhedral, helical, complex and envelope added
General features of viral life cycle are:
attachment to host cell, entry into cell, viral-directed synthesis of new viral component, viral assembly and release of fully assembled virions
How do viruses get out of cell?
Lyse it of bud out
Viroid infection agent is:
RNA that forms double-stranded regions
Plant pathogens include:
coconut cadang cadang viroid and chrysanthemum stunt viroid
Do virusoids have capsids?
No
The infectious agent of prions are:
protein enriched in beta-pleated sheets
PrPsc convert:
cellular protein to altered form
PrPsc is resistent to:
proteases, disinfectants
Prion diseases include:
scrapie, CJD,and BSE