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42 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
In an examination of the antimicrobial properties of a chemical substance, the exposure indicated by the arrow produced the above data with respect to viable bacterial cells and intact bacterial cells determined by microscopic counts. How would the substance be characterized?
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Bacteriolytic
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This type of drug blocks peptidoglycan cross-linking |
Beta-lactam drugs such as Penicillin or Carbapenem |
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This type of drug is a growth factor analog that inhibits folic acid synthesis |
Sulfa drugs such as sulfarilamide |
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This type of drug prevents successful cell division by impairing DNA replication. It inhibits the DNA gyrase enzyme. |
Quinolones such as Ciprofloxacin. |
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Bacteremia is a term used to |
indicate the presence of bacteria in the blood |
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Which type of vaccine is the most effecitve for inducing lifelong immmunity? |
Attenuated live vaccine |
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Which of these would be a common mechanism for dissemination of antibiotic resistance genes among bacteria?
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plasmid
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Pickling is a type of food preservation utilizing
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weak acid
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Is regular flushing of urine a possible form of protection against infection by pathogens that may enter the mouth? |
No. |
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The coliform organisms such as E. coli klensiella and erterobater are used as water quality indicators because |
they are found in animal intestinal tracts and can indicate fecal contamination |
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Which of these is a dangerous strain of bacteria that is essentially resistant to all current antibiotics? |
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus. (MRSA) |
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Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines all target a similar cell structure, albeit in different ways. Which structure is targeted? |
Ribosomes. |
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Which of the following modes of treatment would be used to demonstrate a heat sensitive food product such as uncooked meat? |
Gamma irradiation |
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Which of these organisms or groups of organisms is commonly utilized to produce fermented foods particularly using dairy foods? |
Lactic acid bacteria |
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Which of these is a key component of a direst ELISA or EIA diagnostic test? |
Capture of antigens in the well of a test plate using fixed antibiotics. |
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Which of these environments on the human body is typically sterile? |
lower lungs |
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The coagulase enzymes and toxins produced by some staphylococcus aureus strains are considered examples of
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virulence factors
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Lymphocytes that recognize and kill infected host cells are |
cytotoxic T cells |
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Cells that ingest foreign cells, digest them, and present the antigens to lymphocytes are |
macrophage |
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Cells that will kill host cells not displaying any major histocompatibility complex structure |
Natural Killer cells |
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Upon exposure to antigen, these cells are triggered to divide and begin producing antibodies against the antigen |
B Cells |
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As a physician, you are interested in determining the presence of antibodies to a particular pathogen in a patient's serum for what primary reason? |
It indicates the patient has been infected by the pathogen and made an immune response to it. |
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Which of the following would be an enzyme that would give resistance to the type of antibiotics shown above? |
Beta lactamase |
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This prokaryotic genus is the most prolific producer of antibiotics |
Streptomyces |
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What is defined as: a decrease or loss of virulence to a pathogen?
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Attenuation
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What is an enzyme that is found in tears and degrades cell walls of many bacteria? |
Lysozyme |
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During the process of antibody production, a foreign antigen is presented by a ___________ to a _____________ then the presenting cell is triggered to differentiate into antibody producing cells and memory cells |
B cell; T helper cell |
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The bacteria that are commonly found on the skin are adapted to this environment in that they |
are resistant to dessication (drying out) and salt |
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One reason that NASBA technology is different from the PCR is |
NASBA reactions take place at a single temperature |
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Which of these is a step that a bacterial pathogen usually needs to complete to be able to cause disease in a host?
A: Find nutrients B: Adhere to host cells C: Penetrate epithelial cells D: all the above |
D: all the above |
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What is the process of the destruction of infected host cells by the body's own T cells as a result of pathogen derived antigens present on the outside of the infected cell |
Cell mediated immunity |
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An organism that only causes disease in the absence of normal host immune function is called an |
opportunistic pathogen |
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How is it that PCR is able to detect one specific pathogen and not another bacteria or virus |
The primers used in a PCR assay target a specific gene sequence from the pathogen |
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True or False? Humans are born with a normal microbial flora they acquire while in the uterus |
False |
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True or False? A common indicator used in growth dependent diagnostic methods with differential media is a change in pH due to fermentation of a substance.
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True.
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True or False? The low pH of the stomach kills many potential intestinal pathogens |
True |
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Enteric bacteria like E. coli are considered normal flora inhabiting the bladder in men and women |
False. |
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True or False? In drinking water treatment, flocculation and filtration are used to remove protozoan cysts while chemical disinfection primarily targets bacteria and viruses. |
True. |
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An example of a drug that would be selectively toxic against bacteria without harming mammalian cells could be |
an enzyme that inhibits cell wall synthesis |
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The most common types of bacteria found as normal flora of the skin are |
gram positive cocci and rods like staphylococcus or bacillus |
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When only an antigen derived from a pathogenic organisms is used as a vaccine such as the case for hepatitis B vaccine this describes what type of vaccine? |
A subunit vaccine. |
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Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts are highly resistant to |
chlorine |