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255 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The plasma membrane contains (3)
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1) embedded proteins
2) cholesterol 3) phospholipid bilayer |
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glycolysis is the ____1_____ catabolism of ____2____ to ____3_____
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1) anaerobic
2) glucose 3) pyruvic acid (pyruvate) |
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how many molecules of pyruvate per glucose?
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2
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How many ATP per molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration
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36
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Pyruvate decarboxylation reaction
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|
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What 4 things does the Krebs (TCA, citric acid) cycle produce and in what amounts?
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1) 6x NADH (3 per turn)
2) 2x FADH2 (1 per turn) 3) 2x GTP (1 per turn) 4) 4x CO2 (2 per turn) |
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Pathway of sperm (7up)
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Seminiferous Tubules
Epididymus Vas Deferens Ejaculatory Duct N -N/A Urethra Penis |
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Ectoderm examples
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nervous system (brain & spinal cord), epidermis, eye, ear
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Mesoderm
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muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, gonads, kidneys
(think means of moving) |
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Endoderm
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epithelial lining of digestive tract, lungs, liver, pancreas
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How many ATP per NADH?
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3
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How many ATP per FADH2?
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2
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Diffusion
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Moves permeable things, does NOT require a concentration gradient
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Facilitated Diffusion
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Moves impermeable things, requires a canal (embedded protein) but does NOT require ATP.
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Active Transport
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Moves permeable OR non-permeable things. Requires ATP and embedded proteins.
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What molecules are permeable to cell membranes?
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small and non-polar
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What molecules are non-permeable to the cell membrane?
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Large, polar and charged
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Cofactors
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Non-protein chemical compound that is bound to a protein and is required for the protein's biological activity.
When loosely bound - coenzyme When tightly bound - prosthetic group |
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Glycolysis is the _____________ catabolism of glucose to pyruvic acid
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anaerobic
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pyruvate decarboxylation is the conversion of pyruvate to what?
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acetyl-CoA
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Where do the following take place:
1) Glycolysis 2) Fermentation 3) Pyruvate to acetyl-Coa 4) TCA cycle 5) electron transport chain |
1) Cytoplasm
2) Cytoplasm 3) Mitochondrial matrix 4) Mitochondrial matrix 5) Inner Mitochondrial membrane |
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Morula
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A solid ball of embryonic cells. Forms before the blastula
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When it comes to alleles...does Prevalence equal dominance
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No, just because there are many affected progeny doesn't make it a dominant trait!
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How can you distinguish an autosomal recessive pedigree?
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Generation skipping (only has to skip one child and show up in their progeny)
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Average number of days in a human pregnancy
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266
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Where must the embryo implant in order to grow properly?
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The endometrium
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When does the nervous system develop?
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during gastrulation
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Where is fetal respiration carried out?
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At the placenta and NOT in the developing lungs
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Gastrulation
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development of 3 cell layers
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Basic Amino Acid structure
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What are the BASIC Amino Acids
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Lysine
Arginine Histidine |
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What are the ACIDIC Amino Acids
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Aspartic Acid
Glutamic Acid |
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Simplest Amino Acid
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Glycine - has a H for its side chain
It's also the only achiral amino acid |
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Cyclical Amino Acids
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Phenylalanine - has toluene side chain
Tryptophan - has a benzene and 5 membered ring Proline - has 5 membered ring Tyrosine - has phenol side chain |
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Protein Structures
1) primary 2) secondary 3) tertiary 4) quaternary |
1) determined by amino acid order and length
2) a-helix or b-pleated sheets (conformation of protein) 3) 3D shape from curls and folds. Due to: covalent sulfide bonds, van der waals, hydrophobic side chains pushed away from water. 4) Binding of 2 or more polypeptide chains (same forces as #3) |
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Cartilage
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one of 2 components making up the skeleton (bones and cartilage).
Made of chondrin secreted by chondrocytes |
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Bone types
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Spongy - where marrow is. Red = makes blood cells; yellow = made of fat)
Compact |
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Word Roots:
1) MYO- 2) CHONDRO - 3) OSTEO - |
1) Muscle
2) Cartilage 3) Bone |
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Ligaments
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fibrous tissue connecting bones together at joints
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3 types of muscle
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1) smooth - responsible for involuntary action, found in digestive tract, uterus, bladder...
2) skeletal - used for movement 3) cardiac - involuntary, used to pump blood etc |
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Red Muscle Fibers
White Muscle Fibers |
Red - slow twitch, mitochondria rich, utilize aerobic respiration.
White - fast twitch, mitochondria poor, anaerobic respiration |
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Sarcomere
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Basic unit of muscle fiber. Organized in to thick filaments (myosin) and thin filaments (actin)
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Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
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modified endoplasmic reticulum in muscles that contains lots of Ca2+
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Skeletal Muscle
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Striated, multiple nuclei per cell, voluntary / somatic nervous system, strong forceful contractions
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Smooth Muscle
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non-striated, 1 nucleus per cell, involuntary / autonomic nervous system, smooth continuous contractions.
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Cardiac Muscle
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striated, 1-2 nuclei per cell, involuntary / autonomic nervous system, strong forceful contractions
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tendons
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attach muscle to bone
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types of connective tissue
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cartilage, bone, ligaments and tendons
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Reactants and products of Glycolysis
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Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm under anaerobic conditions and requires 2X ATP to activate
reactants - 1X Glucose, 2X NAD+, products - 2X pyruvic acid, 2X NADH, 2X ATP |
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How many FADH2 are produced in TWO turns of TCA cycle
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2X FADH2 (1 per each turn)
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What is the only amino acid whose side chain can form covalent bonds
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CYSTEINE - forms a disulfide bond with another cysteine
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How many NADH are produced by 2 turns of TCA cycle
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6 NADH total (3X per turn)
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Order of digestive tract
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1) oral cavity
2) phharynx 3) esophagus 4) stomach 5) small intestine 6) large intestine |
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Is the stomach primarily a site of absorption or digestion?
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Digestion
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What 6 products does the stomach secrete?
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1) H+ kills microbes, denatures protein, converts pepsinogen to pepsin
2) pepsingogen - turns into pepsin and partially digests proteins 3) mucus (protect mucosa) 4) bicarbonate (protect mucosa) 5) water 6) intrinsic factor - required for normal absorption of B12 |
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Gastrin
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hormone secreted by pyloric glands which induces stomach to produce HCl
|
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Where does most absorption and digestion occur?
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Small Intestine
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3 sections of small intestine
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1) Duodenum - connects stomach to small intestine
2) Jejunum 3) ileum |
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Where does most digesttion occur within the small intestine?
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duodenum
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Pancreas releases 3 enzymes in a bicarbonate juice (somewhat basic)
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1) pancreatic amylase - breaks polysaccharides into disaccharides
2) peptidase - break down proteins (they are zymogens that need activating first...trypsinogen is the primary) 3) lipase - breaks down fats to free fatty acids |
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Absorption occurs mainly in what part of the small intestine?
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jejunum and ileum
|
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What are the 4 fat soluble vitamins?
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K D A E
(Kids Don't Always Exercise) |
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What is the large intestine primarily for?
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Water absorption. But it doesn't regulate body water levels (kidneys do that)
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3 sections of the large intestine
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1) cecum - connects small intestine to large and contains the appendix
2) colon - absorbs water & salts 3) rectum |
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5 enzymes digest carbohydrates (and where they come from)
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1) salivary amylase - hydrolyzes starch to maltose (salivary glands --> mouth)
2) pancreatic amylase - hydrolyzes starch to maltose (pancreas --> small intestine) 3) maltase - hydrolyzes maltose to 2x glucose (intestinal gland --> S.I.) 4) Sucrase - hydrolyzes sucrose to glucose & fructose (intestinal gland --> S.I.) 5) Lactase - hydrolyzes lactose to glucose and galactose (Intestinal Gland --> S.I.) |
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7 Enzymes that digest Proteins
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1) Pepsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (gastric gland --> stomach)
2) Trypsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (pancreas --> S.I.) 3) Chymotrypsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (pancreas --> S.I.) 4) Carboxypeptidase - hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at COO end (pancreas --> S.I.) 5) Aminopeptidase - hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at NH2 end (intestinal gland --> S.I.) 6) Dipeptidase - hydrolyzes pairs of amino acids (intestinal gland --> S.I.) 7) Enterokinase - converts trypsinogen to trypsin (Intestinal gland --> S.I.) |
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2 things that digest Lipids
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1) Bile - NOT AN ENZYME - emulsifies fat (Liver --> S.I.)
2) Lipase - hydrolyzes lipids (Pancreas --> S.I.) |
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What are the only two arteries that do not carry oxygenated blood?
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Pulmonary and Umbilical
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Where does freshly oxygenated blood get forced into the body at?
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The aorta (which is the largest artery in the body)
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The heart is made of 2 (right and left) pumps. Which pump accepts deoxygenated blood and which pump pushes out oxygenated blood?
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The left pump - receives oxygenated blood form the lungs through pulmonary vein
The right pump - accepts deoxygenated blood from the body and moves it to the lungs through the pulmonary artery |
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Each heart side (pump) is made of what two chambers?
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Atrium - where blood waits to move to ventricle
Ventricle - more muscular because they actually pump the blood |
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Pathway blood takes as it travels through the body (start in Left Atrium
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Left Atrium > left ventricle > aorta > arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > veins > IVC and SVC (inferior and superior Vena Cava > right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium
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portal system
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when blood passes through two capillary beds before returning to the heart.
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2 portal systems
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hepatic - connects vascularities of intestines and liver
hypophyseal - in the brain connects the vasculatures of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland |
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Right heart
Left heart |
Right heart - sends blood to lungs
Left heart - sends blood to body |
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What type of muscle is the heart
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Cardiac - the only place cardiac muscle is found
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How many valves are in the heart? what is their function?
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4 valves - to prevent blood from flowing in 2 directions
1) 2x atrioventricular (AV) valves - between atrium and ventricle 2) semilunar valve - prevents backflow into the ventricles. |
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What are the colloquial names for the right and left atrioventricular (AV) valves?
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Right - tricuspid
Left - Bicuspid / mitral LAB RAT Left - Atrium bicuspid Right - Atrium tricuspid |
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What are the colloquial names for the righ and left Semilunar valves?
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Right - pulmonary valve
Left - aortic valve |
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Semilunar valves prevent backflow during which portion of the heart beat
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Diastole - ventricular relaxation - prevents backflow from aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles
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AV valves prevent backflow during which portion of the heart beat
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Systole - contraction, prevents backflow from ventricle into atria
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What are the 4 electrically excitable heart structures in order?
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1) Sinoatrial (SA) node
2) atrioventricular (AV) node 3) bundle of His (AV bundle) 4) Purkinje fibers they generate and pass the electrical impulse that keeps the heart beating |
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what part of the nervous system can influence cardiac contractions
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the autonomic division - consists of the parasympathetic (rest/digest) and the sympathetic (flight/flight)
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What are the only two veins that carry oxygenated blood?
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The pulmonary vein and the fetal umbilical vein
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Do veins or arteries have more smooth muscle
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arteries have more smooth muscle
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Blood is _______ percent plasma and _______ percent cells
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55% plasma
45% cells |
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What 3 categories of things are in the cell part of blood
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1) erythrocytes - red blood cells
2) leukocytes - white blood cells 3) platelets - blood clotters |
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erythrocytes
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specialized cell (red blood cell) designed for oxygen transport. contains many hemoglobin.
HAVE NO ORGANELLES so they must use fermentation (lactic acid) for ATP. Since no nuclei they cannot divide and die after about 120 days. Spleen and liver break down the dead ones new ones form in bone marrow |
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leukocytes
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form in the bone marrow
less than 1% of blood volume but increases during infection 5 basic types of leukocytes broken down into two classes: GRANULOCYTES and AGRANULOCYTES |
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granulocytes
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these granular leukocytes are called so because they have granular packets of destructive material that is released during infection.
Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Involved in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria and parasites |
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agranulocytes
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these non-granular leukocytes consist of:
lymphocytes - used in specific immune response. maintain a memory bank of infections monocytes - macrophages. Can move into tissues outside the vascular system. |
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lymphocytes are divided into classes based on where they mature:
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B-Cells mature in the spleen or lymph nodes. They generate antibodies
T-cells mature in the thymus. They kill virally infected cells and activate other immune cells |
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platelets
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fragments of cells from teh breakup of cells called MEGAKARYOCYTES in the marrow. They clot blood
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antigens
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proteins on a cell surface that can initiate an immune response
they are the stimulus for B-Cells to make antibodies |
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What nerve does the parasympathetic (rest/digest) nervous system use to slow down the heart rate
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Vagus Nerve
whereas sympathetic neruotransmitters can speed it up |
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What creates the sigmoidal binding curve for oxygen in hemoglobin?
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Since hemoglobin can carry 4 oxygen, and the binding of one oxygen increases affinity for more oxygen, it is said to be cooperative and results in the S-shaped curve
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myoglobin
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the globular protein responsible for transferring oxygen from hemoglobin to muscle cells
only has 1 subunit |
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how is CO2 taken out of the body (from cellular respiration)
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1) dissolved in plasma (not much at all!)
2) bound to hemoglobin (lower affinity than O2) 3) as bicarbonate (HCO3-) MAJORITY |
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When does a right shift (lower % saturation of O2 on hemoglobin) occur
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High energy demands
Increase in CO2 or lactic acid which decrease the pH and signals that tissue needs more O2 |
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With regards to blood pressure during the systole: where does the greatest drop in BP occur?
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across the arterioles
necessary because capillaries cannot handle the high pressure |
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How do carbohydrates and amino acids enter the blood?
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absorbed in the small intestine capillaries and enter systemic cirulation via the HEPATIC PORTAL SYSTEM
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How do fats enter the blood
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absorbed in the small intestine. BYPASS the hepatic portal system and enter systemic circulation via the THORACIS DUCT.
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how do wastes enter the blood
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travel down concentration gradients
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4 major organs of the immune system
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Lymph Nodes - filter lymph and help attack bacteria and viruses
Bone Marrow - immune cell production Thymus - secretes thymosin - a hormone that stimulates pre-T cells to mature Spleen - storage area for blood; filters blood and lymph |
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2 divisions of the immune system
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Innate (non-specific)- acts as a near entry point (skin etc) monocytes (macrophages)
Adaptive (specific) - B Cells and T Cells which attack and kill antigens...can learn |
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3 types of T-Cells
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helper T-Cells - aka T4 cells coordinate the immune respone by secreting chemicals called lymphokines. These recruit other immune cells
suppressor T-Cells - tone down the immune response once the infection is contained Killer (cytotoxic) - aka T8 can directly kill virally infected cells by secreting toxic chemicals |
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what is the cell body of a neuron called
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soma
it contains the nucleus, ER and ribosomes |
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what structures receive information in a neuron
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dendrites - they are attached to the soma (nerve cell body)
|
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axon hillock
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the enlargement at the beginning of the axon
where to axon connects to the cell body (soma) |
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axon
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a nerve fiber that is specialized to carry an electrical message
|
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myelin
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an insulator on mammalian neurons. It helps prevent signal loss
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where is myelin produced?
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oligodendrocytes in the CNS
Schwann cells in the periphery |
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what are the spaces between the myelin sheaths called on the axon of a nerve
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nodes of Ranvier
|
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In nerves, does hyperpolarization or depolarization lead to an action potential?
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depolarization - these are caused by excitatory input
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depolarization makes the cell ______ negative
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LESS negative. A nerve cell is more negative than its environment. As it gets less negative once the threshold is reached an action potential will initiate
|
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How does an action potential begin?
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Once the threshold value is reached, VOLTAGE-GATED ION CHANNELS (Na and K) open.
[Na] is higher outside of the cell b/c Na/K pumps out 3 Na for every 2 K it brings in Thus Na pours into the cell (due to electric and chemical gradients). The cell become rapidly positive at the areas where Na enters which closes the ion channels The pos. potential inside the cell opens voltage gated K channels. K pours out of the cell (chem and electrical forces) and can overshoot the resting potential. |
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Refractory periods (2 kinds)
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Period of time after an action potential
absolute - no amount of stimulation will cause another action potential to occur relative - needs a greater than normal stimulation to cause an action potential |
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saltatory conduction
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the jumping of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to another
|
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effector cell
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a neuron that signals to a gland or muscle
|
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What causes excitatory and inhibitory influences on neurons?
|
neurotransmitters
|
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What is the difference between AFFERENT and EFFERENT neurons?
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AFFERENT - sensory neurons. They carry info from the periphery to the brain or spinal cord
EFFERENT - motor neurons. |
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What is a nerve?
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Many axons bundled together.
Nerves can be: sensory, motor, or a mix |
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In a nerve axons bundle together...the somas will also bundle...what are these called?
|
Bundled somas are called:
In the peripheral nervous system - ganglia In the central nervous system - nuclei |
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What constitutes the central nervous system?
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The brain and spinal cord
|
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What constitutes the peripheral nervous system?
|
Somatic
Autonomic - further divided into the sympathetic (fight/flight) and parasympathetic (rest/digest) |
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What constitutes the entire bodies nervous system (2 broadest groups)
|
1) Central Nervous System - broken down into brain and spinal cord
2) Peripheral Nervous System - broken down into somatic and autonomic *(autonomic is then broken down into sympathetic and parasympathetic) |
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The telencephalon is broken down into 2 hemispheres each of which has what 4 lobes?
|
Frontal
Parietal Occipital Temporal |
|
cerebral cortex
|
A large part of the forebrain responsible for the highest-level functioning in the nervous system (creative though, planning etc)
|
|
corpus collosum
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connects the two forebrain lobes
|
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What two sections compose the forebrain
|
Telencephalon - grey matter, 2 hemispheres, contains cerebral cortex
Diencephalon - contains thalamus and hypothalamus |
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What 3 things make up the hindbrain?
Together they are called the "Brain Stem" and connect to the spinal cord |
Cerebellum - quality control, adjusts to new situations (falling instead of walking)
Pons Medulla - modulates ventilation, heart rate, gastrointestinal tone |
|
Somatic nervous system
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part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for voluntary movement
|
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2 eye receptors?
Which sees color? |
Rods - black and white (only one pigment - Rhodopsin)
Cones - color (3 types of cones - Red, Green, Blue) |
|
DIGESTION
What two things does the stomach secrete |
Pepsin
HCl |
|
DIGESTION
What is the livers function? |
Makes bile
detoxify stores glycogen makes urea |
|
DIGESTION
Gall bladder? |
Stores bile from the liver
|
|
DIGESTION
What does the Pancreas make? |
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin amylase Lipase HCO3- (bicarbonate) Pancreas feeds into the duodenum |
|
DIGESTION
What does the duodenum do? |
Makes CCK (signal molecuel)
Main site of digestion CCK = CholeCystoKinin |
|
DIGESTION
Parts of Small Intestine (in order) |
Duodenum
Jejunum ileum |
|
DIGESTION
In the mouth... |
Salivary amylase (ptyalin) breaks down polysaccharides into maltose (disaccharide).
Tongue forms food into BOLUS |
|
DIGESTION
How does food move down the esophagus and what valve does it pass through? |
Moves via peristalsis (smooth muscle contraction)
Passes through Cardiac Sphincter |
|
DIGESTION
After the food mixes in the stomach its called __________ and passes through the ____________ to the duodenum |
The mix is called CHIME
Passes through the PYLORIC Sphincter into duodenum pH ~2 in stomach |
|
DIGESTION
What happens when food enters the duodenum? |
Duodenum releases CCK to tell the pancrease and gall bladder to release their juices.
CCK also signals the brain to tell you that you are full CCK = CholeCystoKinin |
|
What are the folds in the Small Intestine called (to increase surface area)
|
Villi and micro villi
|
|
What is the main function of the large intestine
|
water absorption
|
|
What are the 3 sections of the large intestine in order
|
Cecum - connects LI to SI
Colon - absorbs water and ions Rectum - stores feces |
|
What bacteria reside in our colon?
|
E Coli - give us vitamin K and Biotin.
Help us digest things we cant |
|
What are the ENDOCRINE and EXOCRINE juices the pancreas secretes?
|
ENDOCRINE - insulin and glucagon
EXOCRINE - trypsinogens, chymotrypsinogen, amylase, lipase, bicarbonate |
|
Amylase
|
Produced in: Salivary gland & Pancreas (acinar cells)
Active in: mouth & duodenum Function: Breaks polysaccharides into disaccharides (maltose) |
|
Pepsin
|
Stored as: pepsinogen - activated by HCl
Produced in: Stomach (chief cells) Active in: Stomach Function: Digest proteins |
|
Trypsin
|
Stored as: Trypsinogen - activated by enterokinase
Produced in: pancreas (acinar cells) Active in: duodenum Function: digest protein |
|
Maltase
|
Produced in: Duodenum (mucosa cells)
Active in: duodenum Function: cleave maltose to glucose |
|
Lipase
|
Produced in: Pancreas (acinar cells)
Active in: duodenum Function: breaks down fats into fatty acids and mono glycerides |
|
Carboxypeptidase
|
Stored as: procarboxypeptidase - activated by enterokinase
Produced in: pancreas (acinar cells) Active in: duodenum Function: digest proteins |
|
Aminopeptidase
|
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)
Active in: duodenum Function: digest proteins |
|
Enterokinase
|
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)
Active in: duodenum Function: activate zymogens (trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase) |
|
Bile Salts
|
Produced in: Liver (stored in gall bladder)
Active in: duodenum Function: emulsifies fats |
|
CCK (CholeCystoKinin)
|
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)
Active in: SYSTEMIC - brain, gall bladder, pancreas Function: activate accessory organ enzyme release and signal a STOP hunger signal |
|
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
Ductus Venosus |
Connects Umbilical Vein to Inferior Veina Cava (IVC)
Used to bring in oxygenated blood to the heart from the placenta. It bypasses the liver |
|
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
Foramen ovale |
Connects the Right and Left Atrium
Bypass the developing lungs |
|
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
Ductus arteriosus |
Connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta
Bypass the developing lungs...Gets most blood that the Foramen ovale missed. |
|
What is the order of electrical discharge in the heart?
|
SA node
AV node Bundle of his (AV bundle) purkinje Fibers Sally And Bob Pace the heart Sally (SA) And (AV) Bob (bundle...) Pace (perkinje Fibers) |
|
Bohr effect
|
The shifting of the sigmoidal hemoglobin/oxygen saturation curve.
Increasing concentration of protons and/or carbon dioxide will reduce the O2 affinity of hemoglobin. Increasing blood CO2 levels can lead to a decrease in pH because of the chemical equilibrium between protons and CO2 |
|
When A muscle contracts what happens to:
1) H Zone 2) A Band 3) I Band 4) Z Lines |
1) H Zone shrinks
2) A band remains the same 3) I Band Shrinks 4) Z lines Get closer |
|
H Zone
|
Part of sarcomere that contains ONLY MYOSIN (thick filaments)
|
|
A Band
|
Part of sarcomere that encompases the entire Myosin (thick filament), even the part that overlaps with the actin (think filament)
|
|
I Band
|
Part of sarcomere that contains only the thin filament (actin)
|
|
Z Line
|
the boundary of a sarcomere
|
|
Describe smooth muscle
|
Non striated
Involuntary contraction (peristalsis) uni-nucleated arteries, respiratory system, intestines, uterus |
|
Describe cardiac muscle
|
striated
involuntary sometimes 2 nuclei, usually 1 |
|
Describe skeletal muscle
|
Striated
multi-nucleated voluntary contractions |
|
What makes myelin sheaths in the CNS
|
oligodendrocytes
|
|
What makes myelin sheaths in the PNS
|
Schwann cells
|
|
An influx of _______ releases neurotransmitters
|
Ca 2+
|
|
What is the average resting potential of a nerve?
What is the average threshold value for an action potential? |
1) -70mV
2) -50mV |
|
What is AFFERENT
What is EFFERENT |
AFFERENT - travels towards CNS (sensory)
EFFERENT - travels away from CNS |
|
Nervous System flowchart
|
|
|
Hepatic Portal System
|
Directs blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver
|
|
What covers the larynx to keep food out of the respiratory tract?
|
The epiglottis. The glottis is the opening of the larynx.
|
|
The pathway air takes when it enters the body
|
External nares > pharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi (1 per side) > bronchioles > alveoli (where gas exchange occurs)
|
|
What cavity is the heart and lungs in?
|
Thoracic cavity
|
|
What membranes surround the lungs
|
visceral pleura (closest to the lung)
parietal pleura (further from lung) |
|
Total Lung Capacity
|
TLC = RV + VC
RV = residual volume (whats left after a forceful exhale, what we couldn't forcefully exhale) VC = Vital Capacity (amount of air forced out of our lungs) |
|
Vital Capcity
(What we forcefully can exhale from out lungs) |
VC = TV + ERV + IRV
TV = Tidal volume (the smaller amount of air that naturally comes in and out from lungs) ERV - Expiratory reserve volume IRV - inspiratory reserve volume RV's are extra air taken in or pushed out after a tidal breath |
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glomerulus
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Afferent arterioles bring blood in
Efferent arteriols take blood away glomerulus is like a filter for fluids/solvents into the nephron |
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vasa recta
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second set of capillaries in the renal portal system. First set is the glomerular capillaries
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What are the two sets of arterioles in the kidneys?
What comes between them? |
Afferent leads to Capillaries Leads to Efferent.
Afferent before Efferent, with C in between |
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Afferent carries things _________
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TOWARDS!!
Afferent nerves carry signals to the brain Afferent arterioles carry blood towards the glomerulus |
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What is the order of structures in the nephron?
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Nephron = functional unit of the kidney!
Glomerulus in Bowman's capsule -> proximal convoluted tube -> descending () -> ascending loop of Henle -> distal convoluted tube -> collecting duct -> ureter -> bladder -> urethra |
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Proximal Convoluted Tubule
Passive Reabsorption (what your body takes back) |
Cl, Water
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Proximal Convoluted Tubule
Active Reabsorption (what your body takes back) |
Na, amino acids, glucose, vitamins
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Proximal Convoluted Tuvbule
Active Absorption (what gets put into your pee) |
H, K, NH3, Urea
most nitrogenous waste |
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Descending loop of Henle
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Water is passively reabsorbed (taken out of the pee) but salts are not permeable
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Ascending loop of Henle
1) thin bottom part 2) thick upper part |
1) Passive Reabsorption - Na, Cl
2) Active Reabsorption - Na, Cl |
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Distal Convoluted Tubule
1) Active Reabsorption 2) Passive Reabsorption |
1) NaCl is actively taken out of pee
2) Water goes with it |
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Distal Convoluted Tubule
1) Active absorption (goes into pee) |
1) H, K, NH3
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Collecting Duct
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Water can be taken out and put back into body in the presence of ADH if the body is conserving water.
This increases the osmolarity of the filtrate (pee) |
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What is the only thing permeable to the descending loop of Henle in the kidney?
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Water
The Osmolarity of the filtrate is less than the interstitium. So water moves out to try and balance it |
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What is the only thing permeable to the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney?
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Salt
As filtrate moves up the osmolarity becomes balanced and the salt has to be actively pumped out |
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What determines the concentration of urine?
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The permeability of the collecting duct (via ADH and aldosterone)
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Aldosterone
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A steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to decreased blood volume.
Diretly increases Na reabsorption and water follows. It is released in response to an increase in angiotensin which is positively regulated by renin |
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ADH - Antidiuretic hormone (AKA VASOPRESSIN)
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A peptide hormone that directly alters the permeability of the collecting duct.
Made in the hypothalamus, stored in the posterior pituitary and SECRETED WHEN blood osmolarity is high. Alcohol and caffeine inhibit ADH |
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3 compounds that should ALWAYS be absent in healthy urine?
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1) Blood - erythrocytes are too large to filter through glomerulus
2) Proteins 3) Glucose 2 and 3 are filtered but should be reabsorbed |
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HEPATO-
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Refers to liver
(think hepatitis) |
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What functions does the liver perform?
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DIGESTION
-produces bile REGULATION -eliminates nitrogen waste (combines amino acid's amino group with CO2 to make urea) -regulates blood glucose (gluconeogenesis) -stores glucose as glycogen DETOX STORAGE -vitamins and cofactos DESTROYS OLD ERYTHROCYTES DEFENSE AGAINST ANTIGENS |
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1) Autocrine
2) Paracrine 3) Endocrine |
1) same cell is stimulated
2) signaling between cells close to each other 3) action over a long distance |
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List some endocrine organs
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Hypothalamus
Pituitary Testes Ovaries Pineal Gland Kidneys G.I. Glands Heart Thymus |
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Hypothalamus
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The master control gland in the brain
Located in forebrain, regulates the pituitary (lies directly above the pituitary and directly below the thalamus |
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How does the hypothalamus communicate with the pituitary?
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Paracrine signaling through a portal (hypophyseal portal system) which connects the two.
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What are the 7 hormones of the anterior pituitary?
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FLAT PEG
FSH LH ACTH TSH Prolactin Endorphins GH |
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All the 7 hormones of the anterior pituitary (FLAT PEG) require a stimulating hormone from the hypothalamus to be released except for which one?
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Prolactin. In fact, the hypothalamus will release Prolactin inhibitory factor (PIF) which will STOP the flow of prolactin. (Default is on)
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How does the hypothalamus communicate with the posterior pituitary?
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Neurons in the hypothalamus send neurons to the posterior pituitary.
NOTE: The anterior pituitary communication is through the hypophyseal portal system |
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What 2 hormones does the posterior pituitary release?
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Oxytocin - for stronger uterine contractions
ADH (Vasopressin) - increase water uptake in kidney collecting ducts NOTE: They are made in the hypothalamus, but stored in the posterior pituitary |
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Where does bone growth occur in puberty?
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The epiphyseal plates (which seal at the end of puberty)
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What are the DIRECT hormones of the anterior pituitary?
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Direct Hormones bind to receptors on target organs and effect immediate changes
PEG Prolactin Endorphins GH |
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What are the INDIRECT (tropic) hormones of the anterior pituitary?
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Indirect hormones act through intermediates
FLAT FSH LH ACTH TSH |
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Thyroid Gland
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Controlled by the Anterior Pituitary (which is controlled by the hypothalamus)
Sets Basal Metabolic Rate - Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3) Maintains Calcium homeostasis - Calcitonin |
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What are some important functions of Calcium?
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Principle component of bone
Regulator of muscle contraction Cofactor for blood clotting Also plays a role in: cell movement exocytosis neurotransmitter release |
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Calcitonin
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Acts to decrease plasma Ca levels by:
1) increase excretion from kidneys 2) increase storage in bones 3) decrease absorption from the gut think -tonin (tones down) |
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What hormone counteracts calcitonin?
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PTH - parathyroid hormone
Comes from parathyroids (4 small pea-shaped structures that sit on the surface of the thyroid) |
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Adrenal Glands
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Located on top of the kidneys
consists of 2 areas: ADRENAL CORTEX and the ADRENAL MEDULLA |
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Adrenal Cortex
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Releases corticosteroids in response to ACTH stimulation from anterior pituitary
3 types released: glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, cortical sex hormones sugar, salt, sex |
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Glucocorticoids
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Come from Adrenal Cortex
1) cortisol 2) cortisone both increase gluconeogenesis and decrease protein synthesis. Both decreasee inflammation and immunological responses |
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Mineralcorticoids
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Come from Adrenal Cortex
Help maintain a healthy mineral balance. Aldosterone - increased reabsorption of Na and therefore water as well released when blood volume is low |
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Adrenal Medulla
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Sits inside the Adrenal Cortex
Produces the fight-or-flight sympathetic hormones: 1) Epinephrine 2) Norepinephrine secreted directly into the circulatory system, both are peptide |
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Endocrine Pancreas
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hormones come from islets of Langerhans (alpha, beta, delta)
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Glucagon
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Comes from alpha cells of islets of Langerhans (endocrine pancreas)
Increases plasma glucose. antagonist of insulin, secreted when glucose is gone (high glucose -> insulin released) (low glucose -> glucagon released) |
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Insulin
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Comes from beta cells of islets of Langerhans (endocrine pancreas)
insulin levels rise with glucose levels. Induces liver and muscle cells to take up glucose and store it as glycogen for later use. stimulates fat and protein synthesis |
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What 2 hormones do the ovaries produce?
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Estrogens
Progesterone |
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Estrogens
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Secreted in response to FSH & LH. Responsible for female secondary sexual characteristics.
Lead to thickening of endometrium each month in prep for implantation by zygote Secreted by ovarian follicles and teh corpus luteum |
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Progesterone
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Secreted in response to LH.
Released from corpus luteum Responsible for development and maintenance of the endometrium (but not the generation of the endometrium) Supplied by placenta after first trimester |
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4 phases of menstrual cycle
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1) follicular phase
2) ovulation 3) luteal phase 4) menstruation |
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Follicular Phase of menstrual cycle
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1st phase
begins when shedding of the previous cycles lining stops. low levels of est. and prog. at the end of the previous cycle stimulate FSH and LH which develop ovarian follicles These follicles produce est. so FSH and LH back off Est. regrows the endometrial lining |
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Ovulation Phase of menstrual cycle (2nd Phase)
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Estrogen levels get so high that they (paradoxically) cause a spike in LH and FSH
the spike in LH induces ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovary into the abdominal cavity) |
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Luteal Phase of menstrual cycle (3rd Phase)
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after ovulation LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum.
corpus luteum secretes prog. EST and PROG levels are high which prevents development of multiple ova in the same cycle |
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Menstruation Phase of menstrual cycle (4th phase)
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If implantation doesn't occur hCG (LH analog) isn't made. Without it prog. levels decline
prog maintains endometrium, and it begins to shed |
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In the menstrual cycel when does the following peak?
1) FSH 2) LH 3) PROGESTERONE 4) ESTROGEN |
1) ovulation (smaller peak than LH)
2) Triggers Ovulation (large peak) 3) Luteal phase 4) Follicular and Luteal phase |
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Pineal Gland
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secretes melatonin and found deep in the brain
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What are all steroid hormones derived from?
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Cholesterol
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What bases are Purines and what bases are pyrimidines?
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CUT the PIE (PY)
Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine are PYrimidines (single ring) PUR As Gold Adenine, Guanine - Purines (double ring) |
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What base does RNA not have?
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THYMINE.
RNA uses URACIL in place of thymine |
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What bases are Purines and what bases are pyrimidines?
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CUT the PIE (PY)
Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine are PYrimidines (single ring) PUR As Gold Adenine, Guanine - Purines (double ring) |
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What base does RNA not have?
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THYMINE.
RNA uses URACIL in place of thymine |
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How can we tell a new DNA strand from an old one?
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The older strand is methylated at various places.
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Describe the proteins that unwind and replicate DNA
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1) Helicase - unwinds the double helix
2) SSBP - (single stranded binding proteins) bind to each strand to keep them from re-forming 3) Gyrase - (a topoisomerase) relieves torsional strain (super coiling) by cutting, allowing to spin and reforming 4) DNA polymerase - adds new nucleotides in the 5' -> 3' direction. Requires RNA primer to start 5) Primase - generates RNA primer |
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What are the 4 types of RNA
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rRNA - ribosomal
tRNA - transfer mRNA - messenger hnRNA - heterogeneous nuclear (mRNA before it has been processed) |
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Which DNA strand does RNA polymerase use to transcribe mRNA?
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The ANTISENSE strand
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What 3 ways does hnRNA need to be processed in order to become mRNA and exported to the ribosomes
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1) 3' - poly A tail
2) 5' guanosyl cap 3) splicing the introns out and joining exons together exons are expressed introns are out |
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1) Start codon is:
2) Stop codons are: |
1) AUG - methionine
2) UAA, UAG. UGA |
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What does the tRNA use for energy to bind to an amino acid?
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GTP
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What 3 bonding sites are on the ribosome?
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A site - for the aminoacyl-tRNA complex
P site - binds the tRNA attached to the growing chain E site - for the mRNA |
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What do all polypeptides start with?
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AUG - Methionine
Although it is often removed in post processing |
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1) lytic cycle
2) lysogenic cycle |
Of bacteriophages
1) lytic cycle - lyses the cell. Bacteria in this phase are "virulent" 2) lysogenic - (gentler), DNA integrates into host genome and only lyses when damaged |
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What 3 methods do bacteria use to increase genetic diversity?
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1) Transformation - integration of a foreign chromosome fragment into the host genome
2) Conjugations - two bacteria form a bridge and transfer genetic material. 3) transduction - virus takes part of bacterial DNA with it and infects a new cell |
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1) Inducible Systems
2) Repressor Systems |
1) require an inducer in order to transcribe EX: lac operon
2) transcribe always unless a corepressor is bound EX: trp operon |