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255 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The plasma membrane contains (3)
1) embedded proteins

2) cholesterol

3) phospholipid bilayer
glycolysis is the ____1_____ catabolism of ____2____ to ____3_____
1) anaerobic

2) glucose

3) pyruvic acid (pyruvate)
how many molecules of pyruvate per glucose?
2
How many ATP per molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration
36
Pyruvate decarboxylation reaction
What 4 things does the Krebs (TCA, citric acid) cycle produce and in what amounts?
1) 6x NADH (3 per turn)

2) 2x FADH2 (1 per turn)

3) 2x GTP (1 per turn)

4) 4x CO2 (2 per turn)
Pathway of sperm (7up)
Seminiferous Tubules
Epididymus
Vas Deferens
Ejaculatory Duct
N -N/A

Urethra
Penis
Ectoderm examples
nervous system (brain & spinal cord), epidermis, eye, ear
Mesoderm
muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, gonads, kidneys

(think means of moving)
Endoderm
epithelial lining of digestive tract, lungs, liver, pancreas
How many ATP per NADH?
3
How many ATP per FADH2?
2
Diffusion
Moves permeable things, does NOT require a concentration gradient
Facilitated Diffusion
Moves impermeable things, requires a canal (embedded protein) but does NOT require ATP.
Active Transport
Moves permeable OR non-permeable things. Requires ATP and embedded proteins.
What molecules are permeable to cell membranes?
small and non-polar
What molecules are non-permeable to the cell membrane?
Large, polar and charged
Cofactors
Non-protein chemical compound that is bound to a protein and is required for the protein's biological activity.

When loosely bound - coenzyme

When tightly bound - prosthetic group
Glycolysis is the _____________ catabolism of glucose to pyruvic acid
anaerobic
pyruvate decarboxylation is the conversion of pyruvate to what?
acetyl-CoA
Where do the following take place:

1) Glycolysis
2) Fermentation
3) Pyruvate to acetyl-Coa
4) TCA cycle
5) electron transport chain
1) Cytoplasm
2) Cytoplasm
3) Mitochondrial matrix
4) Mitochondrial matrix
5) Inner Mitochondrial membrane
Morula
A solid ball of embryonic cells. Forms before the blastula
When it comes to alleles...does Prevalence equal dominance
No, just because there are many affected progeny doesn't make it a dominant trait!
How can you distinguish an autosomal recessive pedigree?
Generation skipping (only has to skip one child and show up in their progeny)
Average number of days in a human pregnancy
266
Where must the embryo implant in order to grow properly?
The endometrium
When does the nervous system develop?
during gastrulation
Where is fetal respiration carried out?
At the placenta and NOT in the developing lungs
Gastrulation
development of 3 cell layers
Basic Amino Acid structure
What are the BASIC Amino Acids
Lysine
Arginine
Histidine
What are the ACIDIC Amino Acids
Aspartic Acid
Glutamic Acid
Simplest Amino Acid
Glycine - has a H for its side chain

It's also the only achiral amino acid
Cyclical Amino Acids
Phenylalanine - has toluene side chain

Tryptophan - has a benzene and 5 membered ring

Proline - has 5 membered ring

Tyrosine - has phenol side chain
Protein Structures

1) primary
2) secondary
3) tertiary
4) quaternary
1) determined by amino acid order and length

2) a-helix or b-pleated sheets (conformation of protein)

3) 3D shape from curls and folds. Due to: covalent sulfide bonds, van der waals, hydrophobic side chains pushed away from water.

4) Binding of 2 or more polypeptide chains (same forces as #3)
Cartilage
one of 2 components making up the skeleton (bones and cartilage).

Made of chondrin secreted by chondrocytes
Bone types
Spongy - where marrow is. Red = makes blood cells; yellow = made of fat)

Compact
Word Roots:

1) MYO-
2) CHONDRO -
3) OSTEO -
1) Muscle
2) Cartilage
3) Bone
Ligaments
fibrous tissue connecting bones together at joints
3 types of muscle
1) smooth - responsible for involuntary action, found in digestive tract, uterus, bladder...

2) skeletal - used for movement

3) cardiac - involuntary, used to pump blood etc
Red Muscle Fibers

White Muscle Fibers
Red - slow twitch, mitochondria rich, utilize aerobic respiration.

White - fast twitch, mitochondria poor, anaerobic respiration
Sarcomere
Basic unit of muscle fiber. Organized in to thick filaments (myosin) and thin filaments (actin)
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
modified endoplasmic reticulum in muscles that contains lots of Ca2+
Skeletal Muscle
Striated, multiple nuclei per cell, voluntary / somatic nervous system, strong forceful contractions
Smooth Muscle
non-striated, 1 nucleus per cell, involuntary / autonomic nervous system, smooth continuous contractions.
Cardiac Muscle
striated, 1-2 nuclei per cell, involuntary / autonomic nervous system, strong forceful contractions
tendons
attach muscle to bone
types of connective tissue
cartilage, bone, ligaments and tendons
Reactants and products of Glycolysis
Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm under anaerobic conditions and requires 2X ATP to activate

reactants - 1X Glucose, 2X NAD+,

products - 2X pyruvic acid, 2X NADH, 2X ATP
How many FADH2 are produced in TWO turns of TCA cycle
2X FADH2 (1 per each turn)
What is the only amino acid whose side chain can form covalent bonds
CYSTEINE - forms a disulfide bond with another cysteine
How many NADH are produced by 2 turns of TCA cycle
6 NADH total (3X per turn)
Order of digestive tract
1) oral cavity
2) phharynx
3) esophagus
4) stomach
5) small intestine
6) large intestine
Is the stomach primarily a site of absorption or digestion?
Digestion
What 6 products does the stomach secrete?
1) H+ kills microbes, denatures protein, converts pepsinogen to pepsin
2) pepsingogen - turns into pepsin and partially digests proteins
3) mucus (protect mucosa)
4) bicarbonate (protect mucosa)
5) water
6) intrinsic factor - required for normal absorption of B12
Gastrin
hormone secreted by pyloric glands which induces stomach to produce HCl
Where does most absorption and digestion occur?
Small Intestine
3 sections of small intestine
1) Duodenum - connects stomach to small intestine

2) Jejunum

3) ileum
Where does most digesttion occur within the small intestine?
duodenum
Pancreas releases 3 enzymes in a bicarbonate juice (somewhat basic)
1) pancreatic amylase - breaks polysaccharides into disaccharides

2) peptidase - break down proteins (they are zymogens that need activating first...trypsinogen is the primary)

3) lipase - breaks down fats to free fatty acids
Absorption occurs mainly in what part of the small intestine?
jejunum and ileum
What are the 4 fat soluble vitamins?
K D A E

(Kids Don't Always Exercise)
What is the large intestine primarily for?
Water absorption. But it doesn't regulate body water levels (kidneys do that)
3 sections of the large intestine
1) cecum - connects small intestine to large and contains the appendix

2) colon - absorbs water & salts

3) rectum
5 enzymes digest carbohydrates (and where they come from)
1) salivary amylase - hydrolyzes starch to maltose (salivary glands --> mouth)

2) pancreatic amylase - hydrolyzes starch to maltose (pancreas --> small intestine)

3) maltase - hydrolyzes maltose to 2x glucose (intestinal gland --> S.I.)

4) Sucrase - hydrolyzes sucrose to glucose & fructose (intestinal gland --> S.I.)

5) Lactase - hydrolyzes lactose to glucose and galactose (Intestinal Gland --> S.I.)
7 Enzymes that digest Proteins
1) Pepsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (gastric gland --> stomach)

2) Trypsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (pancreas --> S.I.)

3) Chymotrypsin - hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds (pancreas --> S.I.)

4) Carboxypeptidase - hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at COO end (pancreas --> S.I.)

5) Aminopeptidase - hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at NH2 end (intestinal gland --> S.I.)

6) Dipeptidase - hydrolyzes pairs of amino acids (intestinal gland --> S.I.)

7) Enterokinase - converts trypsinogen to trypsin (Intestinal gland --> S.I.)
2 things that digest Lipids
1) Bile - NOT AN ENZYME - emulsifies fat (Liver --> S.I.)

2) Lipase - hydrolyzes lipids (Pancreas --> S.I.)
What are the only two arteries that do not carry oxygenated blood?
Pulmonary and Umbilical
Where does freshly oxygenated blood get forced into the body at?
The aorta (which is the largest artery in the body)
The heart is made of 2 (right and left) pumps. Which pump accepts deoxygenated blood and which pump pushes out oxygenated blood?
The left pump - receives oxygenated blood form the lungs through pulmonary vein

The right pump - accepts deoxygenated blood from the body and moves it to the lungs through the pulmonary artery
Each heart side (pump) is made of what two chambers?
Atrium - where blood waits to move to ventricle

Ventricle - more muscular because they actually pump the blood
Pathway blood takes as it travels through the body (start in Left Atrium
Left Atrium > left ventricle > aorta > arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > veins > IVC and SVC (inferior and superior Vena Cava > right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium
portal system
when blood passes through two capillary beds before returning to the heart.
2 portal systems
hepatic - connects vascularities of intestines and liver

hypophyseal - in the brain connects the vasculatures of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland
Right heart

Left heart
Right heart - sends blood to lungs

Left heart - sends blood to body
What type of muscle is the heart
Cardiac - the only place cardiac muscle is found
How many valves are in the heart? what is their function?
4 valves - to prevent blood from flowing in 2 directions

1) 2x atrioventricular (AV) valves - between atrium and ventricle
2) semilunar valve - prevents backflow into the ventricles.
What are the colloquial names for the right and left atrioventricular (AV) valves?
Right - tricuspid

Left - Bicuspid / mitral

LAB RAT
Left - Atrium bicuspid
Right - Atrium tricuspid
What are the colloquial names for the righ and left Semilunar valves?
Right - pulmonary valve

Left - aortic valve
Semilunar valves prevent backflow during which portion of the heart beat
Diastole - ventricular relaxation - prevents backflow from aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles
AV valves prevent backflow during which portion of the heart beat
Systole - contraction, prevents backflow from ventricle into atria
What are the 4 electrically excitable heart structures in order?
1) Sinoatrial (SA) node
2) atrioventricular (AV) node
3) bundle of His (AV bundle)
4) Purkinje fibers

they generate and pass the electrical impulse that keeps the heart beating
what part of the nervous system can influence cardiac contractions
the autonomic division - consists of the parasympathetic (rest/digest) and the sympathetic (flight/flight)
What are the only two veins that carry oxygenated blood?
The pulmonary vein and the fetal umbilical vein
Do veins or arteries have more smooth muscle
arteries have more smooth muscle
Blood is _______ percent plasma and _______ percent cells
55% plasma

45% cells
What 3 categories of things are in the cell part of blood
1) erythrocytes - red blood cells

2) leukocytes - white blood cells

3) platelets - blood clotters
erythrocytes
specialized cell (red blood cell) designed for oxygen transport. contains many hemoglobin.

HAVE NO ORGANELLES so they must use fermentation (lactic acid) for ATP.

Since no nuclei they cannot divide and die after about 120 days. Spleen and liver break down the dead ones

new ones form in bone marrow
leukocytes
form in the bone marrow

less than 1% of blood volume but increases during infection

5 basic types of leukocytes broken down into two classes: GRANULOCYTES and AGRANULOCYTES
granulocytes
these granular leukocytes are called so because they have granular packets of destructive material that is released during infection.

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

Involved in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria and parasites
agranulocytes
these non-granular leukocytes consist of:

lymphocytes - used in specific immune response. maintain a memory bank of infections

monocytes - macrophages. Can move into tissues outside the vascular system.
lymphocytes are divided into classes based on where they mature:
B-Cells mature in the spleen or lymph nodes. They generate antibodies

T-cells mature in the thymus. They kill virally infected cells and activate other immune cells
platelets
fragments of cells from teh breakup of cells called MEGAKARYOCYTES in the marrow. They clot blood
antigens
proteins on a cell surface that can initiate an immune response

they are the stimulus for B-Cells to make antibodies
What nerve does the parasympathetic (rest/digest) nervous system use to slow down the heart rate
Vagus Nerve

whereas sympathetic neruotransmitters can speed it up
What creates the sigmoidal binding curve for oxygen in hemoglobin?
Since hemoglobin can carry 4 oxygen, and the binding of one oxygen increases affinity for more oxygen, it is said to be cooperative and results in the S-shaped curve
myoglobin
the globular protein responsible for transferring oxygen from hemoglobin to muscle cells

only has 1 subunit
how is CO2 taken out of the body (from cellular respiration)
1) dissolved in plasma (not much at all!)

2) bound to hemoglobin (lower affinity than O2)

3) as bicarbonate (HCO3-) MAJORITY
When does a right shift (lower % saturation of O2 on hemoglobin) occur
High energy demands

Increase in CO2 or lactic acid which decrease the pH and signals that tissue needs more O2
With regards to blood pressure during the systole: where does the greatest drop in BP occur?
across the arterioles

necessary because capillaries cannot handle the high pressure
How do carbohydrates and amino acids enter the blood?
absorbed in the small intestine capillaries and enter systemic cirulation via the HEPATIC PORTAL SYSTEM
How do fats enter the blood
absorbed in the small intestine. BYPASS the hepatic portal system and enter systemic circulation via the THORACIS DUCT.
how do wastes enter the blood
travel down concentration gradients
4 major organs of the immune system
Lymph Nodes - filter lymph and help attack bacteria and viruses

Bone Marrow - immune cell production

Thymus - secretes thymosin - a hormone that stimulates pre-T cells to mature

Spleen - storage area for blood; filters blood and lymph
2 divisions of the immune system
Innate (non-specific)- acts as a near entry point (skin etc) monocytes (macrophages)

Adaptive (specific) - B Cells and T Cells which attack and kill antigens...can learn
3 types of T-Cells
helper T-Cells - aka T4 cells coordinate the immune respone by secreting chemicals called lymphokines. These recruit other immune cells

suppressor T-Cells - tone down the immune response once the infection is contained

Killer (cytotoxic) - aka T8 can directly kill virally infected cells by secreting toxic chemicals
what is the cell body of a neuron called
soma

it contains the nucleus, ER and ribosomes
what structures receive information in a neuron
dendrites - they are attached to the soma (nerve cell body)
axon hillock
the enlargement at the beginning of the axon

where to axon connects to the cell body (soma)
axon
a nerve fiber that is specialized to carry an electrical message
myelin
an insulator on mammalian neurons. It helps prevent signal loss
where is myelin produced?
oligodendrocytes in the CNS

Schwann cells in the periphery
what are the spaces between the myelin sheaths called on the axon of a nerve
nodes of Ranvier
In nerves, does hyperpolarization or depolarization lead to an action potential?
depolarization - these are caused by excitatory input
depolarization makes the cell ______ negative
LESS negative. A nerve cell is more negative than its environment. As it gets less negative once the threshold is reached an action potential will initiate
How does an action potential begin?
Once the threshold value is reached, VOLTAGE-GATED ION CHANNELS (Na and K) open.

[Na] is higher outside of the cell b/c Na/K pumps out 3 Na for every 2 K it brings in

Thus Na pours into the cell (due to electric and chemical gradients). The cell become rapidly positive at the areas where Na enters which closes the ion channels

The pos. potential inside the cell opens voltage gated K channels. K pours out of the cell (chem and electrical forces) and can overshoot the resting potential.
Refractory periods (2 kinds)
Period of time after an action potential

absolute - no amount of stimulation will cause another action potential to occur

relative - needs a greater than normal stimulation to cause an action potential
saltatory conduction
the jumping of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to another
effector cell
a neuron that signals to a gland or muscle
What causes excitatory and inhibitory influences on neurons?
neurotransmitters
What is the difference between AFFERENT and EFFERENT neurons?
AFFERENT - sensory neurons. They carry info from the periphery to the brain or spinal cord

EFFERENT - motor neurons.
What is a nerve?
Many axons bundled together.

Nerves can be: sensory, motor, or a mix
In a nerve axons bundle together...the somas will also bundle...what are these called?
Bundled somas are called:

In the peripheral nervous system - ganglia

In the central nervous system - nuclei
What constitutes the central nervous system?
The brain and spinal cord
What constitutes the peripheral nervous system?
Somatic

Autonomic - further divided into the sympathetic (fight/flight) and parasympathetic (rest/digest)
What constitutes the entire bodies nervous system (2 broadest groups)
1) Central Nervous System - broken down into brain and spinal cord

2) Peripheral Nervous System - broken down into somatic and autonomic *(autonomic is then broken down into sympathetic and parasympathetic)
The telencephalon is broken down into 2 hemispheres each of which has what 4 lobes?
Frontal

Parietal

Occipital

Temporal
cerebral cortex
A large part of the forebrain responsible for the highest-level functioning in the nervous system (creative though, planning etc)
corpus collosum
connects the two forebrain lobes
What two sections compose the forebrain
Telencephalon - grey matter, 2 hemispheres, contains cerebral cortex

Diencephalon - contains thalamus and hypothalamus
What 3 things make up the hindbrain?

Together they are called the "Brain Stem" and connect to the spinal cord
Cerebellum - quality control, adjusts to new situations (falling instead of walking)

Pons

Medulla - modulates ventilation, heart rate, gastrointestinal tone
Somatic nervous system
part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for voluntary movement
2 eye receptors?

Which sees color?
Rods - black and white (only one pigment - Rhodopsin)

Cones - color (3 types of cones - Red, Green, Blue)
DIGESTION

What two things does the stomach secrete
Pepsin

HCl
DIGESTION

What is the livers function?
Makes bile
detoxify
stores glycogen
makes urea
DIGESTION

Gall bladder?
Stores bile from the liver
DIGESTION

What does the Pancreas make?
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
amylase
Lipase
HCO3- (bicarbonate)

Pancreas feeds into the duodenum
DIGESTION

What does the duodenum do?
Makes CCK (signal molecuel)

Main site of digestion

CCK = CholeCystoKinin
DIGESTION

Parts of Small Intestine (in order)
Duodenum

Jejunum

ileum
DIGESTION

In the mouth...
Salivary amylase (ptyalin) breaks down polysaccharides into maltose (disaccharide).

Tongue forms food into BOLUS
DIGESTION

How does food move down the esophagus and what valve does it pass through?
Moves via peristalsis (smooth muscle contraction)

Passes through Cardiac Sphincter
DIGESTION

After the food mixes in the stomach its called __________ and passes through the ____________ to the duodenum
The mix is called CHIME

Passes through the PYLORIC Sphincter into duodenum

pH ~2 in stomach
DIGESTION

What happens when food enters the duodenum?
Duodenum releases CCK to tell the pancrease and gall bladder to release their juices.

CCK also signals the brain to tell you that you are full

CCK = CholeCystoKinin
What are the folds in the Small Intestine called (to increase surface area)
Villi and micro villi
What is the main function of the large intestine
water absorption
What are the 3 sections of the large intestine in order
Cecum - connects LI to SI

Colon - absorbs water and ions

Rectum - stores feces
What bacteria reside in our colon?
E Coli - give us vitamin K and Biotin.

Help us digest things we cant
What are the ENDOCRINE and EXOCRINE juices the pancreas secretes?
ENDOCRINE - insulin and glucagon

EXOCRINE - trypsinogens, chymotrypsinogen, amylase, lipase, bicarbonate
Amylase
Produced in: Salivary gland & Pancreas (acinar cells)

Active in: mouth & duodenum

Function: Breaks polysaccharides into disaccharides (maltose)
Pepsin
Stored as: pepsinogen - activated by HCl

Produced in: Stomach (chief cells)

Active in: Stomach

Function: Digest proteins
Trypsin
Stored as: Trypsinogen - activated by enterokinase

Produced in: pancreas (acinar cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: digest protein
Maltase
Produced in: Duodenum (mucosa cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: cleave maltose to glucose
Lipase
Produced in: Pancreas (acinar cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: breaks down fats into fatty acids and mono glycerides
Carboxypeptidase
Stored as: procarboxypeptidase - activated by enterokinase

Produced in: pancreas (acinar cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: digest proteins
Aminopeptidase
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: digest proteins
Enterokinase
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)

Active in: duodenum

Function: activate zymogens (trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase)
Bile Salts
Produced in: Liver (stored in gall bladder)

Active in: duodenum

Function: emulsifies fats
CCK (CholeCystoKinin)
Produced in: Intestine (mucosa cells)

Active in: SYSTEMIC - brain, gall bladder, pancreas

Function: activate accessory organ enzyme release and signal a STOP hunger signal
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

Ductus Venosus
Connects Umbilical Vein to Inferior Veina Cava (IVC)

Used to bring in oxygenated blood to the heart from the placenta. It bypasses the liver
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

Foramen ovale
Connects the Right and Left Atrium

Bypass the developing lungs
FETAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

Ductus arteriosus
Connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta

Bypass the developing lungs...Gets most blood that the Foramen ovale missed.
What is the order of electrical discharge in the heart?
SA node
AV node
Bundle of his (AV bundle)
purkinje Fibers

Sally And Bob Pace the heart
Sally (SA) And (AV) Bob (bundle...) Pace (perkinje Fibers)
Bohr effect
The shifting of the sigmoidal hemoglobin/oxygen saturation curve.

Increasing concentration of protons and/or carbon dioxide will reduce the O2 affinity of hemoglobin. Increasing blood CO2 levels can lead to a decrease in pH because of the chemical equilibrium between protons and CO2
When A muscle contracts what happens to:

1) H Zone
2) A Band
3) I Band
4) Z Lines
1) H Zone shrinks
2) A band remains the same
3) I Band Shrinks
4) Z lines Get closer
H Zone
Part of sarcomere that contains ONLY MYOSIN (thick filaments)
A Band
Part of sarcomere that encompases the entire Myosin (thick filament), even the part that overlaps with the actin (think filament)
I Band
Part of sarcomere that contains only the thin filament (actin)
Z Line
the boundary of a sarcomere
Describe smooth muscle
Non striated
Involuntary contraction (peristalsis)
uni-nucleated

arteries, respiratory system, intestines, uterus
Describe cardiac muscle
striated
involuntary
sometimes 2 nuclei, usually 1
Describe skeletal muscle
Striated
multi-nucleated
voluntary contractions
What makes myelin sheaths in the CNS
oligodendrocytes
What makes myelin sheaths in the PNS
Schwann cells
An influx of _______ releases neurotransmitters
Ca 2+
What is the average resting potential of a nerve?

What is the average threshold value for an action potential?
1) -70mV

2) -50mV
What is AFFERENT

What is EFFERENT
AFFERENT - travels towards CNS (sensory)

EFFERENT - travels away from CNS
Nervous System flowchart
Hepatic Portal System
Directs blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver
What covers the larynx to keep food out of the respiratory tract?
The epiglottis. The glottis is the opening of the larynx.
The pathway air takes when it enters the body
External nares > pharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi (1 per side) > bronchioles > alveoli (where gas exchange occurs)
What cavity is the heart and lungs in?
Thoracic cavity
What membranes surround the lungs
visceral pleura (closest to the lung)

parietal pleura (further from lung)
Total Lung Capacity
TLC = RV + VC

RV = residual volume (whats left after a forceful exhale, what we couldn't forcefully exhale)

VC = Vital Capacity (amount of air forced out of our lungs)
Vital Capcity

(What we forcefully can exhale from out lungs)
VC = TV + ERV + IRV

TV = Tidal volume (the smaller amount of air that naturally comes in and out from lungs)

ERV - Expiratory reserve volume

IRV - inspiratory reserve volume

RV's are extra air taken in or pushed out after a tidal breath
glomerulus
Afferent arterioles bring blood in
Efferent arteriols take blood away

glomerulus is like a filter for fluids/solvents into the nephron
vasa recta
second set of capillaries in the renal portal system. First set is the glomerular capillaries
What are the two sets of arterioles in the kidneys?

What comes between them?
Afferent leads to Capillaries Leads to Efferent.

Afferent before Efferent, with C in between
Afferent carries things _________
TOWARDS!!

Afferent nerves carry signals to the brain

Afferent arterioles carry blood towards the glomerulus
What is the order of structures in the nephron?
Nephron = functional unit of the kidney!

Glomerulus in Bowman's capsule -> proximal convoluted tube -> descending () -> ascending loop of Henle -> distal convoluted tube -> collecting duct -> ureter -> bladder -> urethra
Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Passive Reabsorption (what your body takes back)
Cl, Water
Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Active Reabsorption (what your body takes back)
Na, amino acids, glucose, vitamins
Proximal Convoluted Tuvbule

Active Absorption (what gets put into your pee)
H, K, NH3, Urea

most nitrogenous waste
Descending loop of Henle
Water is passively reabsorbed (taken out of the pee) but salts are not permeable
Ascending loop of Henle

1) thin bottom part
2) thick upper part
1) Passive Reabsorption - Na, Cl

2) Active Reabsorption - Na, Cl
Distal Convoluted Tubule

1) Active Reabsorption
2) Passive Reabsorption
1) NaCl is actively taken out of pee

2) Water goes with it
Distal Convoluted Tubule

1) Active absorption (goes into pee)
1) H, K, NH3
Collecting Duct
Water can be taken out and put back into body in the presence of ADH if the body is conserving water.

This increases the osmolarity of the filtrate (pee)
What is the only thing permeable to the descending loop of Henle in the kidney?
Water

The Osmolarity of the filtrate is less than the interstitium. So water moves out to try and balance it
What is the only thing permeable to the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney?
Salt

As filtrate moves up the osmolarity becomes balanced and the salt has to be actively pumped out
What determines the concentration of urine?
The permeability of the collecting duct (via ADH and aldosterone)
Aldosterone
A steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to decreased blood volume.

Diretly increases Na reabsorption and water follows.

It is released in response to an increase in angiotensin which is positively regulated by renin
ADH - Antidiuretic hormone (AKA VASOPRESSIN)
A peptide hormone that directly alters the permeability of the collecting duct.

Made in the hypothalamus, stored in the posterior pituitary and SECRETED WHEN blood osmolarity is high.

Alcohol and caffeine inhibit ADH
3 compounds that should ALWAYS be absent in healthy urine?
1) Blood - erythrocytes are too large to filter through glomerulus
2) Proteins
3) Glucose

2 and 3 are filtered but should be reabsorbed
HEPATO-
Refers to liver

(think hepatitis)
What functions does the liver perform?
DIGESTION
-produces bile

REGULATION
-eliminates nitrogen waste (combines amino acid's amino group with CO2 to make urea)
-regulates blood glucose (gluconeogenesis)
-stores glucose as glycogen

DETOX
STORAGE
-vitamins and cofactos
DESTROYS OLD ERYTHROCYTES
DEFENSE AGAINST ANTIGENS
1) Autocrine

2) Paracrine

3) Endocrine
1) same cell is stimulated

2) signaling between cells close to each other

3) action over a long distance
List some endocrine organs
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Testes
Ovaries
Pineal Gland
Kidneys
G.I. Glands
Heart
Thymus
Hypothalamus
The master control gland in the brain

Located in forebrain, regulates the pituitary (lies directly above the pituitary and directly below the thalamus
How does the hypothalamus communicate with the pituitary?
Paracrine signaling through a portal (hypophyseal portal system) which connects the two.
What are the 7 hormones of the anterior pituitary?
FLAT PEG

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH

Prolactin
Endorphins
GH
All the 7 hormones of the anterior pituitary (FLAT PEG) require a stimulating hormone from the hypothalamus to be released except for which one?
Prolactin. In fact, the hypothalamus will release Prolactin inhibitory factor (PIF) which will STOP the flow of prolactin. (Default is on)
How does the hypothalamus communicate with the posterior pituitary?
Neurons in the hypothalamus send neurons to the posterior pituitary.

NOTE: The anterior pituitary communication is through the hypophyseal portal system
What 2 hormones does the posterior pituitary release?
Oxytocin - for stronger uterine contractions

ADH (Vasopressin) - increase water uptake in kidney collecting ducts

NOTE: They are made in the hypothalamus, but stored in the posterior pituitary
Where does bone growth occur in puberty?
The epiphyseal plates (which seal at the end of puberty)
What are the DIRECT hormones of the anterior pituitary?
Direct Hormones bind to receptors on target organs and effect immediate changes

PEG

Prolactin
Endorphins
GH
What are the INDIRECT (tropic) hormones of the anterior pituitary?
Indirect hormones act through intermediates

FLAT

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Thyroid Gland
Controlled by the Anterior Pituitary (which is controlled by the hypothalamus)

Sets Basal Metabolic Rate - Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3)

Maintains Calcium homeostasis - Calcitonin
What are some important functions of Calcium?
Principle component of bone
Regulator of muscle contraction
Cofactor for blood clotting

Also plays a role in:
cell movement
exocytosis
neurotransmitter release
Calcitonin
Acts to decrease plasma Ca levels by:

1) increase excretion from kidneys
2) increase storage in bones
3) decrease absorption from the gut

think -tonin (tones down)
What hormone counteracts calcitonin?
PTH - parathyroid hormone

Comes from parathyroids (4 small pea-shaped structures that sit on the surface of the thyroid)
Adrenal Glands
Located on top of the kidneys

consists of 2 areas: ADRENAL CORTEX and the ADRENAL MEDULLA
Adrenal Cortex
Releases corticosteroids in response to ACTH stimulation from anterior pituitary

3 types released: glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, cortical sex hormones

sugar, salt, sex
Glucocorticoids
Come from Adrenal Cortex

1) cortisol
2) cortisone

both increase gluconeogenesis and decrease protein synthesis. Both decreasee inflammation and immunological responses
Mineralcorticoids
Come from Adrenal Cortex

Help maintain a healthy mineral balance.

Aldosterone - increased reabsorption of Na and therefore water as well

released when blood volume is low
Adrenal Medulla
Sits inside the Adrenal Cortex

Produces the fight-or-flight sympathetic hormones:

1) Epinephrine
2) Norepinephrine

secreted directly into the circulatory system, both are peptide
Endocrine Pancreas
hormones come from islets of Langerhans (alpha, beta, delta)
Glucagon
Comes from alpha cells of islets of Langerhans (endocrine pancreas)

Increases plasma glucose. antagonist of insulin, secreted when glucose is gone

(high glucose -> insulin released)
(low glucose -> glucagon released)
Insulin
Comes from beta cells of islets of Langerhans (endocrine pancreas)

insulin levels rise with glucose levels.

Induces liver and muscle cells to take up glucose and store it as glycogen for later use.

stimulates fat and protein synthesis
What 2 hormones do the ovaries produce?
Estrogens

Progesterone
Estrogens
Secreted in response to FSH & LH. Responsible for female secondary sexual characteristics.

Lead to thickening of endometrium each month in prep for implantation by zygote

Secreted by ovarian follicles and teh corpus luteum
Progesterone
Secreted in response to LH.

Released from corpus luteum

Responsible for development and maintenance of the endometrium (but not the generation of the endometrium)

Supplied by placenta after first trimester
4 phases of menstrual cycle
1) follicular phase
2) ovulation
3) luteal phase
4) menstruation
Follicular Phase of menstrual cycle
1st phase

begins when shedding of the previous cycles lining stops.

low levels of est. and prog. at the end of the previous cycle stimulate FSH and LH which develop ovarian follicles

These follicles produce est. so FSH and LH back off

Est. regrows the endometrial lining
Ovulation Phase of menstrual cycle (2nd Phase)
Estrogen levels get so high that they (paradoxically) cause a spike in LH and FSH

the spike in LH induces ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovary into the abdominal cavity)
Luteal Phase of menstrual cycle (3rd Phase)
after ovulation LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum.

corpus luteum secretes prog.

EST and PROG levels are high which prevents development of multiple ova in the same cycle
Menstruation Phase of menstrual cycle (4th phase)
If implantation doesn't occur hCG (LH analog) isn't made. Without it prog. levels decline

prog maintains endometrium, and it begins to shed
In the menstrual cycel when does the following peak?
1) FSH
2) LH
3) PROGESTERONE
4) ESTROGEN
1) ovulation (smaller peak than LH)
2) Triggers Ovulation (large peak)
3) Luteal phase
4) Follicular and Luteal phase
Pineal Gland
secretes melatonin and found deep in the brain
What are all steroid hormones derived from?
Cholesterol
What bases are Purines and what bases are pyrimidines?
CUT the PIE (PY)
Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine are PYrimidines (single ring)

PUR As Gold
Adenine, Guanine - Purines (double ring)
What base does RNA not have?
THYMINE.

RNA uses URACIL in place of thymine
What bases are Purines and what bases are pyrimidines?
CUT the PIE (PY)
Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine are PYrimidines (single ring)

PUR As Gold
Adenine, Guanine - Purines (double ring)
What base does RNA not have?
THYMINE.

RNA uses URACIL in place of thymine
How can we tell a new DNA strand from an old one?
The older strand is methylated at various places.
Describe the proteins that unwind and replicate DNA
1) Helicase - unwinds the double helix
2) SSBP - (single stranded binding proteins) bind to each strand to keep them from re-forming
3) Gyrase - (a topoisomerase) relieves torsional strain (super coiling) by cutting, allowing to spin and reforming
4) DNA polymerase - adds new nucleotides in the 5' -> 3' direction. Requires RNA primer to start
5) Primase - generates RNA primer
What are the 4 types of RNA
rRNA - ribosomal
tRNA - transfer
mRNA - messenger
hnRNA - heterogeneous nuclear (mRNA before it has been processed)
Which DNA strand does RNA polymerase use to transcribe mRNA?
The ANTISENSE strand
What 3 ways does hnRNA need to be processed in order to become mRNA and exported to the ribosomes
1) 3' - poly A tail
2) 5' guanosyl cap
3) splicing the introns out and joining exons together

exons are expressed
introns are out
1) Start codon is:

2) Stop codons are:
1) AUG - methionine

2) UAA, UAG. UGA
What does the tRNA use for energy to bind to an amino acid?
GTP
What 3 bonding sites are on the ribosome?
A site - for the aminoacyl-tRNA complex

P site - binds the tRNA attached to the growing chain

E site - for the mRNA
What do all polypeptides start with?
AUG - Methionine

Although it is often removed in post processing
1) lytic cycle

2) lysogenic cycle
Of bacteriophages

1) lytic cycle - lyses the cell. Bacteria in this phase are "virulent"

2) lysogenic - (gentler), DNA integrates into host genome and only lyses when damaged
What 3 methods do bacteria use to increase genetic diversity?
1) Transformation - integration of a foreign chromosome fragment into the host genome

2) Conjugations - two bacteria form a bridge and transfer genetic material.

3) transduction - virus takes part of bacterial DNA with it and infects a new cell
1) Inducible Systems

2) Repressor Systems
1) require an inducer in order to transcribe EX: lac operon

2) transcribe always unless a corepressor is bound EX: trp operon