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490 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What does the pelvic girdle support and protect?
-Lower viscera, including reproductive organs
-Developing fetus in females
Why are pelvic bones more massive than those of the pectoral girdle?
Because of stresses involved in weight bearing and locomotion.
What are the bones of the pelvic girdle or pelvis?
-Hip bones (coxal or innominate bones)
-Sacrum
-Coccyx

Note: The pelvis is a composite structure that includes the hip bones of the appendicular skeleton and the sacrum and coccyx of the axial skeleton
What are the bones of the lower limb?
1. Femur (thigh)
2. Patella (kneecap)
3. Tibia and Fibula (leg)
4. Tarsal bones (bones of the ankle)
5. Metatarsal bones and phalanges (bones of the foot)
In anatomical terms what do the leg and thigh refer to?
Leg: Distal portion of the lower limb rather than the whole lower limb

Thigh: Proximal portion of lower limb
What three bones fuse to form the hip bone of the adult pelvic girdle?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
What separates the three hip bones (ilium, ischium, pubis) at birth and when is their growth and fusion complete?
At birth the three bones are separated by hyaline cartilage.
Growth and fusion of the three bones is complete by age 25.
What three joints form the pelvic girdle?
- Two sacro-iliac joints between the posterior and medial portion of the ilium and the auricular surfaces of the coccyx.
-Pubic symphysis fibrous cartilage joint between the anterior and medial portions of the hip bones.
What surface of the hip bone articulates at the hip joint?
The acetabulum.

Note: The acetabulum lies anterior and inferior to the center of the pelvic bones.
What are the three parts of the acetabulum?
1. Acetabular fossa: space enclosed by walls of the acetabulum
2. Lunate surface: smooth curved surface that forms the shape of a letter C
3. Acetabular notch: anterior and inferior margins of the acetabulum without a ridge.

Note: A ridge of bone forms the lateral and superior margins of the acetabulum. No ridge present at the acetabular notch.
What bones make up the acetabular fossa?
1. Ilium (superior two-fifths)
2. Ischium (posterior two-fifths)
3. Superior pubic ramus (anterior one-fifth)
What bone markings on the hip bones provide sites for gluteal muscles attachment?
Anterior, posterior and inferior gluteal lines
What bones marking does the sciatic nerve pass through into the lower limb?
The greater sciatic notch
Which of the coxal (hip) bones is the strongest?
Ischium
What bone marking projects superior to the lesser sciatic notch?
Ischial spine
What hip bone feature bears the body weight when a person is seated?
Ischial tuberosities
What hip bone features encircle the obturator foramen?
Pubic and ischial rami
What is the obturator foramen enclosed by in life and what is the function?
The obturator foramen is closed by a sheet of collagen fibers whose inner and outer surfaces provide a firm base for attachment of muscles of the hip.
Function of the iliac fossa
-helps support the abdominal organs
-provides additional surface area for muscle attachment
What marks the inferior border of the iliac fossa?
The arcuate line
What is the articulation between the two pubic bones of the pelvic girdle?
Pubic symphysis

Note: The two pubic bones are attached to a median pad of fibrous cartilage
What bone feature on the ilium forms the articular surface of the sacro-iliac joint?
Auricular surface
Where do ligaments that stabilize the sacro-iliac joint arise on the hip bone?
Iliac tuberosity
What are the four bones that make up the pelvis?
-Two hip bones (anterior and lateral part of pelvis)
-Sacrum (posterior part of pelvis)
-Coccyx (posterior part of pelvis)
Where do the ligaments that connect the lateral border of the sacrum to the hip bones connect on the hip bone?
-Iliac crest
-Ischial tuberosity
-Ischial spine
-Iliopectineal line

Note: Other ligaments bind the ilia to the posterior lumbar vertebrae. These interconnections increase the stability of the pelvis.
What are the two divisions of the pelvis?
1. Greater (false) pelvis: blade like portions of each ilium superior to the iliopectineal line
2. Lesser (true) pelvis: pelvic structures inferior to iliopectineal line.
What structures form the boundaries of the pelvic cavity
The lesser pelvis i.e pelvic structures below the iliopectineal line.
-inferior portion of ilium
-both pubic bones
-the ischia
-sacrum
-coccyx
Function of the greater pelvis
Encloses organs within the inferior portion of the abdominal cavity.
What is the iliopectineal line?
A compound structure of the arcuate line (from the ilium) and pectineal line (from the pubis)
1. What is the bony edge of the lesser pelvis called?

2. What is the space enclosed by it called?
1. Pelvic brim

2. Pelvic inlet
What makes up the superior limit of the lesser pelvis?
A line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the iliopectineal lines to the superior margin of the pubic symphysis.
What makes up the inferior margins of the pelvis?
-The coccyx
-The ischial tuberosities
-The inferior border of the pubic symphysis

Note: The opening bound by the inferior margins of the pelvis is called the pelvic outlet
What is another name for the pelvic outlet?
Perineum
What muscles form the floor of the pelvic cavity? What is their function?
The pelvic muscles. They support organs enclosed in the pelvic cavity.
How do the bone markings of an adult female pelvis differ from an adult male pelvis.
Because women are typically less muscular than men, the pelvis of the adult female is usually smoother and lighter and has less prominent markings where muscles or ligaments attach.
How is the female pelvis different from the male pelvis?
-An enlarged pelvic outlet, due in part to greater separation of the ischial spines
-Less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx which in the male arc into the pelvic outlet
-a wider, more circular pelvic inlet
-a relatively broad, low pelvis
-ilia that project laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum
-a broader pubic angle, with the inferior angle between the pubic bones greater than 100 degrees

Note: These adaptations are for childbearing
What is the significance of adaptations of the female pelvis?
They are related to supporting the weight of the developing fetus and uterus and easing the passage of the newborn through the pelvic outlet at the time of delivery.
What happens to the pubic symphysis during pregnancy?
A hormone produces during pregnancy loosens the pubic symphysis, allowing relative movement between the hip bones that can further increase the size of the pelvic inlet and outlet and thus facilitate delivery.
What is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?
Femur
What attaches at the fovea of the head of the femur?
A stabilizing ligament (the ligament of the head)
What bones does the femur articulate with proximally and distally?
Proximally: acetabulum of pelvis
Distally: Tibia of leg
1. What is the significance of the lateral bow (curve) of the femur?

2. When does it become exaggerated?
1. Facilitates weight bearing and balance

2. Becomes exaggerated if the skeleton weakens e.g. in rickets.
What bone marking on the anterior proximal surface of the femur marks the distal edge of the hip joint articular capsule?
The intertrochantaric line
What bone markings on the femur mark the attachment of the pectineus muscle and gluteus maximus.
Pectineal line (pectineus muscle)

Gluteal tuberosity (gluteus maximus)
Where do the adductor hip muscles attach on the femur?
Linea aspera
What part of the femur does the patella glide over?
The patellar surface
What bone feature separates the two condyles of the femur?
Intercondylar fossa
What kind of bone is the patella?
Sesamoid bone
The patella forms with the tendon of which muscle?
Quadriceps femoris
What is the function of the patella?
-strengthens the quadriceps tendon
-protects anterior surface of knee joint
-increases contraction force of the quadriceps femoris
What shape is the patella? Where are the base and apex of the patella located?
Triangular
Base: superior border of patella
Apex: inferior border of patella
What structures attach to the anterior surface of the patella?
1. Quadriceps tendon (anterior and superior surfaces)

2. Patellar ligament (anterior and inferior surfaces)
What features are present on the posterior surface of the patella? What do they articulate with?
Two concave facets
1. Medial Facet: articulates with medial condyle of femur
2. Lateral facet: articulates with lateral condyle of femur
What is the medial bone of the leg?
Tibia
What two features of the tibia articulate with the medial and lateral condyles of the femur?
The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia
Which tibial condyle is more prominent? What does it articulate with besides the femur?
The lateral condyle is more prominent and possesses a facet for the articulation with the fibula at the superior tibiofibular joint.
What bone feature separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia?
The intercondylar eminence which has two tubercles (medial and lateral)
What feature on the tibia can be easily felt beneath the skin?
1. The tibial tuberosity. The patellar ligament attaches to it.

2. The anterior margin
Does the tibia narrow or widen distally?
Narrows
What is the large process on the medial border on the distal end of the tibia?
The medial malleolus
What is the function of the medial malleolus?
Provides medial support for talocrural joint, preventing lateral sliding of tibia across the talus.
Where do the popliteus and soleus muscles attach on the tibia?
Soleal line (also called popliteal line) on the posterior surface of tibia.
What two bone markings does the interosseous membrane of the leg (crural interosseous membrane) run between?
The interosseous border of tibia and interosseous border of fibula.
What feature of the fibula articulates with the inferior and posterior surface of the lateral tibial condyle?
The head of the fibula
What is the function of the crural interosseous membrane?
-Stabilize position of Tibia and Fibula
-Provide additional surface area for muscle attachment
Is the fibula a part of the knee joint?
No it is not and it does not transfer weight to the ankle and foot.
What is the function of the fibula?
-Important site for muscle attachment
-Distal tip of fibula provides lateral support to the ankle
What is the fibular process at the distal end of the fibula?
Lateral malleolus

Note: It provides stability to the ankle joint by preventing medial sliding of the tibia across the surface of the talus.
What is the number of tarsal bones? What are they?
Seven
-Talus
-Calcaneus
-Cuboid
-Navicular
-three cuneiform bones (medial, intermediate and lateral)
What is the second largest bone in the foot? What is it's function?
Talus

Function: transmits weight of the body from the tibia anteriorly, towards the toes
1. Which tarsal bones articulate with the tibia?

2. What feature of the bone forms the articular surface?
1. Talus

2. Trochlea of talus (smooth superior surface)
What do the lateral and medial extensions of the trochlea of the talus articulate with?
The lateral malleolus of the fibula and the medial malleolus the tibia.
What is the general difference between the surfaces of a bone

1. which form the articular surfaces
2. where ligaments connect
1. smooth
2. roughened
What is the largest tarsal bone?
Calcaneus

Note: can be easily palpated
When standing normal which bones transmit the weight from the leg to the ground?
The tibia to the talus to the calcaneus and then to the ground.
What tendon attaches to the rough knob shaped projection on the posterior of the calcaneus?
The calcaneal tendon (also called calcanean or Achilles tendon)
Which muscles does the calcaneal tendon arise from? What is the function of this muscle?
Calf muscles

Function: raise the heel and lift the sole of the food from the ground, as when standing on tiptoe.
What bone does the cuboid tarsal bone articulate with proximallt?
The calcaneus
What tarsal bone articulates with the anterior surface of the talus?
Navicular
What tarsal bones do the three cuneiform bones articulate with?
Navicular (proximally)

Cuboid (lateral cuneiform bone articulate with cuboid on its medial surface)
What bones to the cuneiform bones and the cuboid articulate with distally?
Metatarsal bones of the foot.
What is the number of metatarsal bones? How are they identified?
Five. Identified by Roman numeral I-V from medial to lateral.

Note: The metacarpal bones are numbered I-V lateral to medial, however a good way to avoid confusion is that the thumb (pollex) articulates with metacarpal I and the great toe (hallux) articulates with metatarsal I.
What bones do the metatarsal bones articulate with proximally?
First three - the three cuneiform bones
Last two - cuboid
What is the function of the metatarsal bones?
Help support the weight of the body during standing, walking and running.
How many phalanges in the foot?
Fourteen.

Two in great toe (proximal and distal)
Three each in the other four toes (proximal, middle and distal)
What are the two functions of the arches of the foot?
1. Dampen forces while still adapting to the contours of the surface of the ground. This calls for flexibility in the arch.
2. Provide a stable platform that is able to support the weight of the body while walking or standing. The arches must function as a rigid lever while distributing the weight of the body throughout the foot.
What are the two arches of the foot?
The longitudinal arch and the transverse arch
What maintains the longitudinal arch?
Ligaments and tendons maintain this arch by tying the calcaneus to the distal portions of the metatarsal bones.
What side of the foots carries most of the weight when standing normally?
The lateral side
What are the two portions of the longitudinal arch and how are they different?
-The lateral (calcneal) portion.
-The medial (talar) portion

The calcaneal portion has less curvature than the medial, talar portion.
The talar portion has more elasticuty than the calcaneal portion.
What is the advantage of the elevated medial portion of the sole?
The muscles, nerves and blood vessels the supply the inferior of the foot do not get squeezed between the metatarsal bones and the ground.
Is the calcaneus more lateral or medial to the talus?
Lateral
What is the function of the elasticity of the medial portion of the longitudinal arch?
Helps absorb shock that accompany sudden changes in weight loading e.g. when running or dancing.
When standing normally how is the weight distributed in the foot?
Distributed evenly between the calcaneus and the distal ends of the metatarsal bones.
What determines s the amount of weight transferred forward in the foot?
The position of the foot and the placement of body weight

Note: During dorsiflexion of the foot the body weight rests on the calcaneus.
During plantar flexion the talus and calcaneus transfer the weight to the metatarsal bones and phalanges through more anterior tarsal bones.
The fibula does not participate in the knee joint, nor does it bend; but when it is fractured, walking is difficult. Why?
Although the fibula is not part of the knee joint and does not bear weight, it is an important point of attachment for many leg muscles. When the fibula is fractured, these muscles cannot function properly to move the leg, and walking is difficult and painful. The fibula also helps stabilize the ankle joint.
While jumping off the back steps of his house, 10 year-old Mark lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. What foot bone is most like broken?
Mark has most likely fractured his calcaneus (heel bone)
What important information can a human skeleton reveal about an individual?
-Race (differences in portions of the skeleton, especially the skull)
-Muscular development (development of ridges and general bone mass)
-Medical history (condition of teeth and presence of healed fractures)
-Sex
-Age
When does fusion of epiphyseal cartilages begin?
Age 3
When do degenerative changes in normal skeletal system begin e.g reduction in mineral content of bone matrix?
Age 30 - 45
What is congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)?
-Abnormal muscle development distorts growing bones and joint.
-in most cases tibia, ankle and foot are affected.
-one or both feet may be involved
-longitudinal arch is exagerrated
-the feet turn medially and inverted
-if both feet are involved soles turn towards each other
Is congenital talipes equinovarus more common in boys or girls? How is it treated?
Twice as common in boys as girls.
Prompt treatment with casts or other supports in infancy helps alleviate the problem and fewer than half the cases require surgery.
What is flatfeet (foot conditon)?
Loses or never develops the longitudinal arch.

Note: "Fallen" arches" develop as tendons and ligaments stretch and become less elastic.
What abnormal foot condition do up to 40% of adults have?
Flatfeet
How are arches in feet of children different from those in adults?
Children have very mobile articulations and elastic ligaments, so they commonly have flexible, flat feet. Their feet look flat only when standing, and the arch appears when they stand on their toes or sit down. In most cases, the condition disappears as growth continues.
What is claw feet (foot condition)?
The median longitudinal arch becomes exaggerated because of muscular abnormalities (plantar flexors overpower the dorsiflexors)

Note: causes include muscle degeneration and nerve paralysis. Worsens with age.
What is a sprain?
A ligament is stretched to the point at which some of the collagen fibers are torn. The ligament remains functions and the structure of the joint is not affected.
What is the most common cause of a sprained ankle? How is it treated?
Forceful inversion of the foot.

Treated with ice pack, support and rest. Heals in about three weeks.
What is a dancer's fracture?
The proximal portion of the fifth metatarsal is broken.

Caused by sudden shift in weight from the medial portion of longitudinal arch to lateral, less elastic portion of arch.
Sexual differences in adult skeleton
1. General appearance (skull)
2. Forehead
3. Sinuses (skull)
1. M: Heavier; rougher surface
F: Lighter; smoother surface
2. M: More sloping
F: More vertical
3. M: Larger
F: Smaller
Sexual differences in adult skeleton
1. Cranium
2. Mandible
3. Teeth
1. M: About 10% larger (average)
F: About 10% smaller
2. M: Larger, more robust
F: Lighter, smaller
3. M: Larger
F: Smaller
Sexual differences in adult skeleton
1. General appearance (pelvis)
2. Pelvic inlet
3. Iliac fossa
1. M: Narrow; robust; heavier; rougher surface
F: Broad; light; smoother surface
2. M: Heart shaped
F: Oval to round
3. M: Deeper
F: Shallower
Sexual differences in adult skeleton
1. Ilium
2. Angle inferior to pubic symphysis
3. Acetabulum
1. M: More vertical; extends farther superior
F: Less vertical; less extension superior to the sacro-iliac joint
2. M: Less than 90 degrees
F: 100 degrees or more
3. M: Directed laterally
F: Faces slightly anteriorly as well as laterally
Sexual differences in adult skeleton
1. Obturator foramen
2. Ischial spine
3. Sacrum
1. M: Oval
F: Triangular
2. M: Points medially
F: Points posteriorly
3. M: Long, narrow triangle with pronounced sacral curvature
F: Broad, short triangle with less curvature
Sexual differences in adult human skeleton
1. Coccyx
2. Bone weight
3. Bone markings
1. M: Points anteriorly
F: Points inferiorly
2. M: Heavier
F: Lighter
3. M: More prominent
F: Less prominent
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Bony matrix
2. Markings
1. Event: Reduction in mineral content
Age: Begins age 30-45; values differ between males versus females between ages 45 and 65; similar reductions occur in both sexes after age 65.
2. Event: Reduction in size, roughness
Age: gradual reduction with increasing age and decreasing muscle strength and mass
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Fontanels
2. Frontal suture
3. Occipital bone
1. Event: Closure
Age: Completed by age 2
2. Event: Fusion
Age: 2 - 8
3. Event: Fusion of ossification centers
Age: 1 - 6
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Styloid process
2. Hyoid bone
1. Event: Fusion with temporal bone
Age: 12-16
2. Event: Complete ossification and fusion
Age: 25-30 or later
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Teeth
2. Mandible
1. Event: Loss of "baby teeth"; appearance of permanent teeth; eruption of permanent molars
Age: Detailed in Chapter 25 (Digestive system)
2. Event: Loss of teeth; reduction in bone mass; change in angle at mandibular notch
Age: accelerates in later years (age 60)
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Curvature
2. Intervertebral discs
1. Event: Appearance of major curves
Age: 3 months - 10 years
2. Event: Reduction in size, percentage contribution to height
Age: accelerates in later years (age 60)
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Epiphyseal cartilages (long bones)
1. Event: Fusion
Age: Ranges vary according to specific bone under discussion, but general analysis permits determination of approximate age (3-7, 15-22, etc)
Age related changes in skeleton (Event and Age)
1. Epiphyseal cartilages (pectoral and pelvic girdles)
1. Event: Fusion
Age: Overlapping ranges are somewhat narrower than for epiphyseal cartilages of long bones, including 14-16, 16-18, 22-25 years.
What covers the acetabulum in the hip joint?
-A pad of fibrous cartilage covers the articular surface of the acetabulum and extends like a horseshoe along the sides of the acetabular notch
-A fat pad covered by a synovial membrane covers the central portion of the acetabulum.
What is the function of the fat pad in the acetabulum?
-Acts as shock absorber
-The adipose tissue stretches and distorts without damage.
What kind of joint is the hip joint?
Ball-and-socket joint
Does the articular capsule of the hip joint contribute to joint stability?
Yes. This is unlike the capsule of the shoulder joint.

Note: The articular capsule of the hip joint is extremely dense, strong and deep.
What bones and their features does the articular capsule of the hip joint extend between?
Pelvic girdle: The lateral and inferior surfaces
Femur: Intertrochanteric line and intertrochanteric crest
Does the articular capsule enclose both the femoral head and neck? What purpose does this serve?
Yes. This arrangement helps keep the head from moving away from the acetabulum.
What increases the depth of the acetabulum?
Acetabular labrum (a circular rim of fibrous cartilage)
How many ligaments reinforce the hip joint articular capsule? What are they?
Four
Three are intrinsic ligaments (regional thicknenings of capsule): iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral

The fourth is the transverse acetabular ligament.
What ligaments crosses the acetabular notch and completes the inferior border of the acetabular fossa?
Transverse acetabular ligament
What ligament tenses when the thigh is flexed and undergoing external rotation? Where does it attach?
The ligament of the femoral head (ligamentum capitatis femoris)

Origin: transverse acetabular ligament
Attaches: center of the femoral head (fovea)
Besides the ligaments, what stabilizes the hip joint?
The surrounding muscles
What is the most important normal movement of the hip?
Flexion
What movements are permitted at the hip joint
Adduction/abduction
Flexion/extension
Rotation
Circumduction
What structures restrict the movement at the hip joint and provide it with stability?
1. Ligaments
2. Capsular fibers
3. Depth of the bony socket
4. Surrounding muscles
Are hip dislocations or fractures of femoral neck or between the trochanters more common?
Fractures of the femoral neck or between the trochanters are more common
What joints support the weight of the body during activities like standing, walking and running?
Hip, ankle and knee joints
How is the knee joint different from the hip or ankle joints when supporting weight?
The knee must provide support while:
1. having the largest range of motion (up to 160 degrees) of any joint of lower limb.
2. lacking the large muscle mass that supports and strengthens the hip
3. lacking the strong ligaments that support the ankle joint.
What type of joint is the knee joint?
Hinge joint
Is the knee joint more or less stable than other hinge joints in the body?
Less stable than other hinge joints and some degree of rotation is permitted.

Note: The rounded femoral condyles roll across the superior surface of the tibia, so the points of contact are constantly changing.
What are the two joints of the knee joint?
1. Tibiofemoral joint: a joint between the tibia and femur
2. Patellofemoral joint: joint between the patella and the patellar surface of the femur.
What is unique about the articular capsule of the knee?
There is no single unified capsule, nor is there a common synovial cavity.
How many menisci does the knee joint have? What is their function?
Two: medial and lateral mensici

1. act as cushions
2. conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces as the femur changes position
3. increase the surface area of the tibiofemoral joint
4. provide some lateral stability to the joint
What is the function of the fat pads of the knee joint?
1. Provide padding around the margins of the joint
2. assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues.
How many ligaments stabilize the knee? What are they?
Seven (2-6 below are intra or extracapsular extrinsic ligaments)
1. Patellar ligament
2. Tibial collateral ligament
3. Fibular collateral ligament
4. Popliteal ligaments (two)
5. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
6. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
Patellar ligament (attachments and function)
Attachments: patella to anterior surface of tibia

Function: provides support to the anterior surface of the knee joint, where there is no continuous capsule
Tibial and fibular collateral ligaments (function)
Tibial (medial) collateral ligament: reinforces the medial surface of knee joint

Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament: reinforces the lateral surface of knee joint
Popliteal ligaments (attachments and function)
Attachments: Femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula

FunctIon: reinforce the back of the knee
Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments (attachments and function)
Attachments: intercondylar area of the tibia to the condyles of the femur
Function: limit the anterior and posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles.


Note: These are intracapsular ligaments. Anterior and posterior refer to their sits of origin on the tibia. They cross one another as they process to their destinations on the femur.
Describe locking of knee
-normally extends in extended position
-at full extension slight lateral rotation of the tibia tightens the anterior cruciate ligament and jams the meniscus between the tibia and femur
-unlocking the joint requires muscular contractions that produce medial rotation of the tibia or lateral rotation of the femur.
What is the function of locking of the knee?
This mechanism allows you to stand for prolonged periods without using (and tiring) the extensor muscles.
What symptoms would you expect to see in an individual who has damaged the menisci of the knee joint?
-decrease in joint stability
-harder time locking the knee in place while standing and would have to use muscular contractions to stabilize the joint leading to muscle fatigue when standing for long periods of time and the knee "giving out".
- experience pain
How is the knee affected by damage to the patellar ligament?
The patellar ligament provides support to the anterior surface of the knee joint. Damage to the patellar ligament would affect this support.
What is a "trick knee"?
A knee that feels unstable
Placing a lot of weight on the knee while it is partially flexed can lead to what?
Trapping of the meniscus between the tibia and the femur, resulting in a break or tear in the cartilage.
What most commonly causes damage to cartilage (menisci) in the knee?
driving the lateral surface of the leg medially which leads to tearing of medial meniscus.
Besides injury to mensicus what other knee joint structures can get damaged during a knee injury?
Ligaments and patella

Note: Torn ligaments can be difficult to correct surgically and healing is slow.
What is a common sports knee injury that affects women two to eight times as often as men? What is the frequent cause?
Rupture of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The frequent cause is twisting on an extended weight bearing knee.
How are knee injuries often evaluated by physician?
Arthroscopic examination. An arthroscope uses fiber optics to permit the exploration of a joint without major surgery.
What form of surgery is commonly used for joint injuries?
Arthroscopic surgery
What is a total meniscectomy?
A total removal of the injured cartilage.

Note: It is avoided because it leaves the joint prone to develop degenerative joint disease.
What is a safe noninvasive and cost effective method of viewing soft tissues around a joint?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
1. What is another name for the ankle joint?

2. What type of a joint is it?
1. Talocrural joint

2. Hinge joint
What bones articulate in the talocrural joint?
The tibia, fibula and talus.
What movement does the ankle joint permit?
Limited dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.
1. What are the two joints of the talocrural (ankle) joint?

2. Which is the primary weight bearing articulation of the ankle?
1. Tibiotalar joint and Fibulotalar joint

2. Tibiotalar joint
What joints provide medial and lateral stability at the tibiotalar joint?
1. The proximal tibiofibular joint
2. The distal tibiofibular joint
3. The fibulotalar joint

Note: Normal function i.e range of motion and weight bearing at the tibiotalar joint is dependent on the stability provided by these joints.
What bones form the proximal tibiofibular joint? What type of a joint is it?
Posterior surface of tibia and the head of the fibula.

It is a plane joint.
What bones form the distal tibiofibular joint? What type of a joint is it?
Distal facets of the tibia and fibula.

It is a fibrous syndesmosis.
What forms the fibulotalar joint?
Lateral malleolus of the fibula and the lateral articular surface of the talus.
What holds the tibia and fibula together?
A series of ligaments along the length of the tibia and fibula.

Note: Maintaining the proper amount of movement at the two tibiofibular joints and the fibulotalar joint provides the medial and lateral stability of the ankle.
The articular capsule of the ankle joint extends between what structures?
1. The distal surfaces of the tibia
2. The medial malleolus of the tibia
3. The lateral malleolus of the fibula
4. The talus
Which part of the ankle articular capsule are strong and reinforced by stout ligaments?
Lateral and medial surfaces.
What are the major ligaments of the ankle joint?
1. medial deltoid ligament (one)
2. lateral ligaments (three)
What are the four groups of synovial joints in the foot?
1. Intertarsal joints: tarsal bone to tarsal bone
2. Tarsometatarsal joints: tarsal bone to metatarsal bone
3. Metatarsophalangeal joints: Metatarsal bone to phalanx
4. Interphalangeal joints: Phalanx to phalanx
What types of joints are:
1. Intertarsal joints
2. Tarsometatarsal joints
3. Metatarsophalangeal joints
4. Interphalangeal joints
What movements are allowed at them?
1. Intertarsal joints: plane joints permitting limited sliding and twisting movements
2. Tarsometatarsal joints: plane joints permitting limited sliding and twisting movements
3. Metatarsophalangeal joints: condylar joints permitting flexion/extension and abduction/adduction.
4. Interphalangeal joints: hinge joints permitting flexion/extension
What tarsal bones do the first three metatarsal bones articulate with?
Medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform bones.
What tarsal bones do the fourth and fifth metatarsal bones articulate with?
The cuboid.
What is the difference between the first metatarsophalangeal and first metacarpophalangeal joints?
The metatarsophalangeal joint is condylar versus the metacarpophalangeal joints that is saddle type. That is why the great toe lacks the mobility of the thumb.
What often forms in the tendons that cross the inferior surface of the first metatarsophalangeal joint? What results due to this formation?
A pair of sesamoid bones often form and further restrict movement at the joint.
Sacro-iliac joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Sacrum/hip bones
Type of articulation: planar diarthrosis
Movements: gliding
Pubic symphysis (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Pubic bone/pubic bone
Type of articulation: amphiarthrosis
Movements: None
Hip joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Hip bones/femur
Type of articulation: Ball and socket diarthrosis
Movements: flexion/extension, adduction/abduction, rotation, circumduction
Knee joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Femur/tibia
Type of articulation: complex, functions as hinge
Movements: flexion/extension, limited rotation
Proximal and distal tibiofibular joints (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Tibia/fibula
Type of articulation: Planar diarthrosis (proximal); planar diarthrosis and amphiathrotic syndesmosis (distal)
Movements: Slight gliding movements (distal and proximal)
Ankle or talocrural joint(element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Tibia and fibula with talus
Type of articulation: hinge diarthrosis
Movements: dorsiflexion/plantar flexion
Intertarsal joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: tarsal bone to tarsal bone
Type of articulation: planar diarthrosis
Movements: slight gliding movements
Tarsometatarsal joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Tarsal bones to metatarsal bones
Type of articulation: planar diarthrosis
Movements: slight gliding movements
Metatarsophalangeal joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: metatarsal bones to phalanges
Type of articulation: condylar diarthrosis
Movements: flexion/extension, adduction/abduction
Interphalangeal joint (element, type of articulation, movements)
Element: Phalanx/phalanx
Type of articulation: hinge diarthrosis
Movements: flexion/extension
Ramus
An extension of a bone making an angle with the rest of the structure
Trochanter
A large, rough projection
Crest
A prominent ridge
Line
A low ridge
Condyle
A smooth rounder articular surface
Trochlea
A smooth, grooved articular process shaped like a pulley
Facet
A small, flat articular surface
Foramen
A rounded passageway for blood vessels and/or nerves
What three groups are the muscles of the upper limb divided into?
1. muscles that move the thigh.
2. muscles that move the leg
3. muscles that move the foot and toes
Where do muscles that move the thigh originate?
On the plevis
What are the groups for the muscles that move the thigh?
1. The gluteal group
2. The lateral rotator group
3. The adductor group
4. The iliopsoas group
What bone and its surface do the gluteal muscles cover?
The lateral surface of the ilium
Which is the largest and most superficial gluteal muscle?
Gluteus maximus
What muscle does the gluteus maximus share an insertion with?
Tensor fasciae latae muscle
What do the gluteus maximus and tensor fasciae latae muscles pull on together?
Iliotibial tract
What is the iliotibial tract? What is its function?
A band of collagen fibers that extends along the lateral surface of the thigh and inserts upon the tibia.

function: Provides a lateral brace for the knee that becomes particularly important when a person balances on one foot.
1. Do gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles originate posterior or anterior to the gluteus maximus?

2. What action to these two muscles produce?
1. Anterior

2. Abduction and medial rotation at hip joint.
What bone marking marks the boundary between the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles?
The anterior gluteal line.
1. Where do the six lateral rotator muscles originate and insert?

2. What is their function?
1. All originate at, or are inferior to, the horizontal axis of the acetabulum and insert on the femur.

2. All cause lateral rotation of the thigh.
What lateral rotator muscles performs both lateral rotation and abduction at the hip?
Piriformis muscle
Which are the dominant lateral rotators?
1. Piriformis
2. Obturator muscles (externus and internus)
Are the hip joint adductor muscles located inferior or superior to the acetabular surface?
Inferior
Where do all adductor muscles originate and where do they insert?
Origin: Pubis

Insertion: Linea aspera on femur (except gracilis muscle)
Which hip joint adductor muscles does not insert on the linea aspera of the femur?
Gracilis muscle
1. What thigh adductor muscles originate inferior and anterior to the hip joint?

2. What actions can they produce at the hip joint?
All thigh adductor muscles except adductor magnus.

2. Adduction, flexion and medial rotation
What actions can the adductor magnus produce at the hip joint?
-Adduction and flexion
-Adduction and extension
-Medial rotation
-Lateral rotation
Note: Depends on the region stimulated.
When an athlete suffers a pulled groin what muscles are affected?
A strain - a muscle tear or break - in one of the thigh adductor muscles.
What muscles dominate the medial surface of the pelvis? What is their function?
-The psoas major muscle
-The iliacus muscle

Function: powerful flexors of the hip
What ligament do the psoas major and iliacus muscles pass deep to?
Inguinal ligament
What are the psoas major and iliacus muscles referred to together as a pair?
Iliopsoas muscle
How many action lines does the adductor magnus have?
Three action lines
The following muscle groups generally dominate which part of the pelvis?
1. Gluteal muscles
2. Iliopsoas muscle
3. Adductor muscles
4. Lateral rotator muscles
1. Lateral surface of the ilium
2. Medial surface of the pelvis
3. Pubis (inferior to acetabular surface)
4. Inferior to the horizontal axis of the acetabulum
Which muscle originates in the iliac fossa?
Iliacus muscle
What are the three things to remember when considering action lines of the muscles that act at the hip?
1. The neck of the femur angles inferiorly and laterally away from the acetabulum of the hip
2. The femur is bent and twisted as you move inferiorly from the hip to the knee
3. Many of the muscles acting on the hip are very large, and they have insertions that extend over a broad area. As a result, the muscles have more than one action line producing more than one action at the hip.
Muscles that have action lines that pass posterior to the axis of the hip joint produce what action at the hip?
Extension
Muscles that have action lines that pass anterior to the axis of the hip joint produce what action at the hip?
Flexion
Muscles that have action lines that pass medial to the axis of the hip joint produce what action at the hip?
Adduction.

May also produce medial rotation.
Muscles that have action lines that pass lateral to the axis of the hip joint produce what action at the hip?
Abduction.

May also produce lateral rotation.
Muscles that have action lines that pass anterior to the axis of the knee joint produce what action at the knee?
Extension
Muscles that have action lines that pass posterior to the axis of the knee joint produce what action at the knee?
Flexion
1. Where do most knee extensor muscles originate?

2. What surfaces of the thigh do they extend on?
1. Femur (mostly the body)

2. Anterior and lateral surface of thigh
1. Where do most knee flexor muscles originate?

2. What surfaces of the thigh do they extend on?
1. Pelvic girdle (edges of the pelvis)

2. Posterior and medial surfaces of the thigh
What are the knee extensor muscles collectively called?
Quadriceps muscles or quadriceps femoris
How are the three vastus muscles located in relation to the rectus femoris muscle?
They cradle the rectus femoris muscle the way a bun surround a hot dog
Where do all four knee extensor muscles insert?
On the tibial tuberosity via the quadriceps tendon, patella and patellar ligament.
Where do the knee flexor muscles insert?
Tibia and fibula
What action besides knee flexion do the biceps femoris, semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles produce?
Extension at the hip.

Note: This is because the originate on the pelvis inferior and posterior to the acetabulum
Which muscles are collectively called the hamstring muscles?
The biceps femoris, semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles
What two bone markings does the inguinal ligament attach to?
-Anterior superior iliac spine
-Pubic tubercle
1. What knee flexor originates superior to the acetabulum?

2. Where does it insert?

3. What actions does it produce besides flexion of knee?
1. Sartorius muscle

2. medial aspect of tibia

3. Flexion, abduction and lateral rotation at hip.
What muscle helps unlock the knee when the knee is flexed?
The popliteus muscle contracts to produce a slight medial rotation of the tibia that unlocks the knee joint.
1. What are the two important plantar flexor muscles?
2. Which muscle is superficial?
3. Which is more powerful?
1. Gastrocnemius and soleus muscle.
2. The soleus muscle underlies the gastrocnemius muscle.
3. The soleus muscle is more powerful
How many tendons does the gastrocnemius muscle have at its origin?
Two
What bone is often found within the gastrocnemius muscle?
The fabella, a sesamoid bone.
What is the common tendon of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscle called?
Calcaneal tendon (also known as the calcanean tendon and the Achilles tendon)
What is another name for the two fibularis muscles?
Peroneus muscles
What muscle produces the eversion of the foot?
The two fibularis muscles

Note: Also produce plantar flexion of ankle
What muscle produces inversion of the foot?
Tibialis anterior muscle

Note: Also produce dorsiflexion of ankle
Do tendon sheaths surround the tendons of the tibialis anterior , extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus muscles as they cross the ankle joint?
Yes
What stabilizes the position of the large tendon sheaths that surround the tendons of the tibialis anterior , extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus muscles as they cross the ankle joint?
Superior and inferior extensor retinacula
Where do the intrinsic muscles that move the toes originate?
Tarsus and foot
What intrinsic foot muscles contribute to the maintenance of the longitudinal arch of the foot?
Flexor muscles that originate at the anterior border of the calcaneus.
What muscles abduct the metatarsophalangeal joints of toes 3 and 4?
Dorsal interossei muscles
What muscles adduct the metatarsophalangeal joints of toes 3 - 5?
Plantar interossei muscles
Do most intrinsic foot muscles cause flexion or extension at toes?
Flexion
What is the only intrinsic foot muscle found on the dorsum of the foot?
Extensor digitorum brevis muscle
What are the anatomical terms and adjectives for the following common names?
1. Groin
2. Pubic area
3. Pelvis
1. Inguen (inguinal)
2. Pubis (pubic)
3. Pelvis (pelvic)
What are the anatomical terms and adjectives for the following common names?
1. Thigh
2. Knee cap
3. Leg
1. Femur (femoral)
2. Patella (patellar)
3. Crus (crural)
What are the anatomical terms and adjectives for the following common names?
1. Ankle
2. Toes
3. Great toe
1. Tarsus (tarsal)
2. Digits or phalanges (digital or phalangeal)
3. Hallux
What are the anatomical terms and adjectives for the following common names?
1. Buttock
2. Back of knee
3. Calf
1. Gluteus (gluteal)
2. Popliteus (popliteal)
3. Sura (sural)
What are the anatomical terms and adjectives for the following common names?
1. Heel of foot
2. Sole of foot
1. Calcaneus (calcaneal)
2. Planta (plantar)
1. What type of fascia support and interconnect adjacent skeletal muscles?

2. Do they permit independent movement of the skeletal muscles?
1. Deep Fascia

2. Yes
What muscles are more extensively interconnected by the deep fascia and difficult to separate on dissection?
Two adjacent muscles that are similar in orientation, action and range of movement.

Note: If their orientations and actions differ, they will be less tightly interconnected and easier to separate on dissection.
What do the deep fascia of the limbs extend between?
The bones and the superficial fascia.

Note: In the limbs the muscles are packed close together around the bones and the interconnections between the superficial fascia, the deep fascia and the periostea are quite substantial.
What separates the soft tissues of the limb into separate compartments?
Deep fascia extending between the bones and the superficial fascia.
What septa create the compartments in the thigh?
Medial and lateral septa
What structures creates the compartments in the leg?
The tibia and fibula, crural interosseous membrane and septa.
How many compartments does the thigh have? What are they?
Three
-Anterior compartment
-Posterior compartment
-Medial compartment
How many compartments does the leg have? What are they?
Four
-Anterior
-Lateral
-Superficial posterior
-Deep posterior
What is the function of the muscles in the anterior leg compartment?
-Dorsiflex the ankle
-Extend the toes
-Invert/evert the ankles
What is the function of the muscles in the lateral leg compartment?
-Eversion
-Plantar flexion
What is the function of the muscles in the superficial posterior leg compartment?
Plantar flexion
What is the function of the muscles in the deep posterior leg compartment?
-Plantar flex the ankle as well as their specific action on the joints of the foot and the toes.
What is compartment syndrome?
Compartment pressure caused by accumulated fluids in compartments that compresses the regional blood vessels and eliminates the circulatory supply to the muscles and nerves of the compartment. This compression produces a condition of ischemia or "blood starvation", known as compartment syndrome.
What can cause compartment syndrome?
A crushing injury, severe contusion (injury in which skin is not broken), or strain that damages blood vessels within one or more compartments. When damaged, these compartments become swollen with tissue, fluid, and blood that has leaked from damaged blood vessels.
What is an emergency measure to relieve compartment syndrome?
Slicing into the compartment along its longitudinal axis or implanting a drain.
What happens if compartment syndrome is left untreated?
The contents of the compartment will suffer damage. Nerves in the affected compartment will be destroyed after 2 - 4 hrs of ischemia, although they can regenerate to some degree if the circulation is restored. The muscle tissue will be destroyed after 6 hour with no regeneration possible. The muscle will be replaced by scar tissue and connective tissue fibers shorten (contracture), permanently reducing the muscle length.
What muscles make up the gluteal group of the muscles that move the thigh?
1. Gluteus maximus
2. Gluteus medius
3. Gluteus minimus
4. Tensor fasciae latae
What muscles make up the lateral rotator group of the muscles that move the thigh?
1. Obturators (externus and internus)
2. Piriformis
3. Gemelli (superior and inferior)
4. Quadratus femoris
What muscles make up the adductor group of the muscles that move the thigh?
1. Adductor brevis
2. Adductor longus
3. Adductor magnus
4. Pectineus
5. Gracilis
What muscles make up the iliopsoas group of the muscles that move the thigh?
1. Iliacus
2. Psoas major
Gluteus maximus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Iliac crest, posterior gluteal line, and lateral surface of ilium; sacrum, coccyx, and thoracolumbar fascia
Insertion: Iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of femur
Action: Extension and lateral rotation at hip; helps stabilize the extended knee; abduction at the hip (superior fibers only)
Innervation: Inferior gluteal nerve
Gluteus medius (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior iliac crest, lateral surface of ilium between posterior and anterior gluteal lines
Insertion: Greater trochanter of femur
Action: Abduction and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Superior gluteal nerve
Gluteus minimus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral surface of ilium between inferior and anterior gluteal lines.
Insertion: Greater trochanter of femur
Action: Abduction and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Superior gluteal nerve
Tensor fascia latae (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Iliac crest and lateral surface of anterior superior iliac spine
Insertion: Iliotibial tract
Action: Abduction and medial rotation at hip; extension and lateral rotation at knee; tense fasciae latae, which laterally supports the knee
Innervation: Superior gluteal nerve
Externus and Internus Obturators (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral and medial margins of obturator foramen
Insertion: Trochanteric fossa of femur (externus); medial surface of greater trochanter (internus)
Action: Lateral rotation and abduction of hip; help to maintain stability and integrity of the hip
Innervation: Obturator nerve (externus: L3 - L4) and special nerve from sacral plexus (internus: L5-S2)
Piriformis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterolateral surface of sacrum
Insertion: Greater trochanter of femur
Action: Lateral rotation and abduction of hip; help to maintain stability and integrity of the hip
Innervation: Branches of sacral nerves (S1-S2)
Superior and Inferior Gemilli (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Ischial spine (superior gemellus) and ischial tuberosity (inferior gemellus)
Insertion: Medial surface of greater trochanter via tendon of obturator internus
Action: Lateral rotation and abduction of hip; help to maintain stability and integrity of the hip
Innervation: Nerves to obturator internus and quadratus femoris
Quadratus femoris (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral border of ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Intertrochanteric crest of femur
Action: Lateral rotation of hip
Innervation: Special nerves from sacral plexus (L4-S1)
Adductor brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Inferior ramus of pubis
Insertion: Linea aspera of femur
Action: Adduction and flexion at hip
Innervation: Obturator nerve (L3-L4)
Adductor longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Inferior ramus of pubis, anterior to adductor brevis
Insertion: Linea aspera of femur
Action: Adduction, flexion, and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Obturator nerve (L3-L4)
Adductor magnus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Inferior ramus of pubis, posterior to adductor brevis and ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Linea aspera and adductor tubercle of femur
Action: Whole muscle produces adduction at the hip; anterior part produces flexion and medial rotation; posterior part produces extension
Innervation: Obturator and sciatic nerves
Pectineus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Superior ramus of pubis
Insertion: Pectineal line inferior to lesser trochanter of femur
Action: Flexion and adduction at hip
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
Gracilis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Inferior ramus of pubis
Insertion: Medial surface of tibia inferior to medial condyle
Action: Flexion and medial rotation at knee; adduction and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Obturator nerve (L3-L4)
Iliacus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Iliac fossa
Insertion: Femur distal to lesser trochanter; tendon fused with that of psoas major
Action: Flexion at hip and/or lumbar intervertebral joints
Innervation: Femoral nerve
Psoas major (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior surfaces and transverse processes of vertebrae (T12-L5)
Insertion: Lesser trochanter in company with iliacus
Action: Flexion at hip and/or lumbar intervertebral joints
Innervation: Branches of lumbar plexus (L2-L3)
How are the Muscles that move the leg grouped? (How many muscles in each group)
1. Flexors of the knee (5)
2. Extensors of the knee (4)
What are the flexor muscles of the knee?
1. Biceps femoris
2. Semimembranosus
3. Semitendinosus
4. Sartorius
5. Popliteus
What are the extensor muscles of the knee?
1. Rectus femoris
2. Vastus intermedius
3. Vastus lateralis
4. Vastus medialis
Biceps femoris (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Ischial tuberosity and linea aspera of femur
Insertion: Head of fibula, lateral condyle of tibia
Action: Flexion at knee; extension and lateral rotation at hip
Innervation: Sciatic nerve; tibial portion (S1-S3 to long head) and common fibular branch (L5-S2 to short head)
Semimembranosus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Posterior surface of medial condyle of tibia
Action: Flexion at knee; extension and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Sciatic nerve (Tibial portion L5-S2)
Semitendinosus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Ischial tuberosity
Insertion: Proximal, medial surface of tibia near insertion of gracilis
Action: flexion at knee; extension and medial rotation at hip
Innervation: Sciatic nerve (Tibial portion L5-S2)
Sartorius (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior superior iliac spine
Insertion: Medial surface of tibia near tibial tuberosity
Action: Flexion at knee; abduction, flexion, and lateral rotation at hip
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L3)
Popliteus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral condyle of femur
Insertion: Posterior surface of proximal tibial shaft
Action: Medial rotation of tibia (or lateral rotation of femur) at knee; flexion at knee
Innervation: Tibial nerve (L4-S1)
Rectus femoris (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior inferior iliac spine and superior acetabular rim of ilium
Insertion: Tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, and patellar ligament
Action: Extension at knee; flexion at hip
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
Vastus intermedius (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterolateral surface of femur and linea aspera (distal half)
Insertion: Tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, and patellar ligament
Action: Extension at knee
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
Vastus lateralis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior and inferior to greater trochanter of femur and along linea aspera (proximal half)
Insertion: Tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, and patellar ligament
Action: Extension at knee
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
Vastus medialis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Entire length of linea aspera of femur
Insertion: Tibial tuberosity via quadriceps tendon, patella, and patellar ligament
Action: Extension at knee
Innervation: Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
How are the extrinsic muscles that move the foot and toes grouped? (How many muscles in each group)
1. Dorsiflexors (1)
2. Plantar flexors (6)
3. Digital flexors (2)
4. Digital extensors (2)
What are the dorsiflexor extrinsic muscles of the foot and toes?
1. Tibialis anterior
What are the plantar flexor extrinsic muscles of the foot and toes?
1. Gastrocnemius
2. Fibularis brevis
3. Fibularis longus
4. Plantaris
5. Soleus
6. Tibialis posterior
What are the digital flexor extrinsic muscles of the foot and toes?
1. Flexor digitorum longus
2. Flexor hallucis longus
What are the digital extensor extrinsic muscles of the foot and toes?
1. Extensor digitorum longus
2. Extensor hallucis longus
Tibialis anterior (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral condyle and proximal shaft of tibia
Insertion: Base of first metatarsal bone and medial cuneiform
Action: Dorsiflexion at ankle; inversion of foot
Innervation: Deep fibular nerve (L4-S1)
Gastrocnemius (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Femoral condyles
Insertion: Calcaneus via calcaneal tendon
Action: Plantar flexion at ankle; flexion at knee
Innervation: Tibial nerve (S1-S2)
Fibularis brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Midlateral margin of fibula
Insertion: Base of fifth metatarsal bone
Action: Eversion of foot and plantar flexion at ankle
Innervation: Superficial fibular nerve (L4-S1)
Fibularis longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Head and proximal shaft of fibula
Insertion: Base of first metatarsal bone and medial cuneiform
Action: Eversion of foot and plantar flexion at ankle; supports ankle; supports longitudinal and transverse arches
Innervation: Superficial fibular nerve (L4-S1)
Plantaris (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral supracondylar ridge
Insertion: Posterior portion of calcaneus
Action: Plantar flexion at ankle; flexion at knee
Innervation: Tibial nerve (L4-S1)
Soleus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Head and proximal shaft of the fibula, and adjacent posteromedial shaft of tibia
Insertion: Calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (with gastrocnemius)
Action: Plantar flexion at ankle; postural muscle when standing
Innervation: Sciatic nerve, tibial branch (S1-S2)
Tibialis posterior (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Interosseous membrane and adjacent shafts of tibia and fibula
Insertion: Navicular, all three suneirforms, cuboid, second, third, and fourth metatarsal bones
Action: Inversion of foot; plantar flexion at ankle
Innervation: Sciatic nerve, tibial branch (S1-S2)
Flexor digitorum longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Posteromedial surface of tibia
Insertion: Inferior surface of distal phalanges, toes 2-5
Action: Flexion joints of toes 2-5; plantar flexes ankle
Innervation: Tibial branch (L5-S1)
Flexor hallucis longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Posterior surface of fibula
Insertion: Inferior surface, distal phalanx of great toe
Action: Flexion at joints of great toe; plantar flexes ankle
Innervation: Tibial branch (L5-S1)
Extensor digitorum longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Lateral condyle of tibia, anterior surface of fibula
Insertion: Superior surfaces of phalanges, toes 2-5
Action: Extension of toes 2-5; dorsiflexes ankle
Innervation: Deep fibular nerve (L5-S1)
Extensor hallucis longus (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Anterior surface of fibula
Insertion: Superior surface, distal phalanx of great toe
Action: Extension at joints of great toe; dorsiflexes ankle
Innervation: Deep fibular nerve (L5-S1)
What are the intrinsic muscles of the foot?
1. Extensor digitorum brevis
2. Flexor digitorum brevis
3. Abductor hallucis
4. Adductor hallucis
5. Flexor hallucis brevis
6. Abductor digiti minimi
7. Flexor digiti minimi brevis
8. Quadratus plantae
9. Lumbiricals (4)
10. Dorsal interossei (4)
11. Plantar interossei (3)
Extensor digitorum brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Calcaneus (superior and lateral surfaces)
Insertion: Dorsal surface of toes 1-4
Action: Extension at metatarsophalangeal joints of toes 1-4
Innervation: Deep fibular nerve (S1, S2)
Abductor hallucis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Calcaneus (tuberosity on inferior surface)
Insertion: Medial side of proximal phalanx of great toe
Action: Abduction at metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe
Innervation: Medial plantar nerve (S2, S3)
Flexor digitorum brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Calcaneus (tuberosity on inferior surface)
Insertion: Sides of middle phalanges, toes 2-5
Action: Flexion of proximal interphalangeal joints of toes 2-5
Innervation: Medial plantar nerve (S2, S3)
Abductor digiti minimi (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Calcaneus (tuberosity on inferior surface)
Insertion: Lateral side of proximal phalanx, toe 5
Action: Abduction and flexion at metatarsophalangeal joint of toe 5
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S2, S3)
Quadratus plantae (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Calcaneus (medial, inferior surfaces)
Insertion: Tendon of flexor digitorum longus
Action: Flexion at joints of toes 2-5
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S2, S3)
Lumbricals (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Tendons of flexor digitorum longus
Insertion: Insertions of extensor digitorum longus
Action: Flexion metatarsophalangeal joints; extension at interphalangeal joints of toes 2-5
Innervation: Medial plantar nerve (1), lateral plantar nerve (2-4)
Flexor hallucis brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Cuboid and lateral cuneiform
Insertion: Proximal phalanx of great toe
Action: Flexion at metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe
Innervation: Medial plantar nerve (L4-S5)
Adductor hallucis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Bases of matatarsal bones II-IV and plantar ligaments
Insertion: Proximal phalanx of great toe
Action: Adduction and flexion at metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S1-S2)
Flexor digiti minimi brevis (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Base of metatarsal bone V
Insertion: Lateral side of proximal phalanx of toe 5
Action: Flexion at metatarsophalangeal joint of toe 5
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S1-S2)
Dorsal interossei (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Sides of metatarsal bones
Insertion: Medial and lateral sides of toe 2; lateral sides of toes 3 and 4
Action: Abduction at metatarsophalangeal joints of toes 3 and 4; flexion of metatarsophalangeal joints and extension at interphalangeal joints of toes 2 through 4
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S1-S2)
Plantar interossei (origin, insertion, action and innervation)
Origin: Bases and medial sides of metatarsal bones
Insertion: Medial sides of toes 3-5
Action: Adduction of metatarsophalangeal joints of toes 3-5; flexion of metatarsophalangeal joints and extension at interphalangeal joints
Innervation: Lateral plantar nerve (S1-S2)
Anterior Compartment of Thigh (muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Iliopsoas, quadriceps femoris, sartorius
Blood vessels: Femoral artery, femoral vein, deep femoral artery, lateral circumflex femoral artery
Nerves: Femoral nerve, saphenous nerve
Medial compartment of Thigh (muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, adductor magnus, gracilis, obturator externus
Blood vessels: Obturator artery, obturator vein, deep femoral artery, deep femoral vein
Nerves: Obturator nerve
Posterior compartment of Thigh (Muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Biceps femoris, semimebranosus, semitendinosus
Blood vessels: Deep femoral artery, deep femoral vein
Nerves: Sciatic nerve
Anterior Compartment of Leg (muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Extensor digitorum longus, Extensor hallucis longus, fibularis tertius, tibialis anterior
Blood vessels: Anterior tibial artery, anterior tibial vein
Nerves: Superficial fibular nerve
Lateral compartment of Leg (muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Fibularis brevis, fibularis longus
Blood vessels: None listed
Nerves: Superficial fibular nerve
Posterior Superifical compartment of Leg (muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Gastrocnemius, plantaris, soleus
Blood vessels: None listed
Nerves: None listed
Posterior Deep compartment of Leg (Muscles, blood vessels, nerves)
Muscles: Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, politeus, tibialis posterior
Blood vessels: posterior tibial artery, fibular artery, fibular vein, posterior tibial vein
Nerves: Tibial nerve
What is a nerve plexus?
A complex interwoven network of nerves formed by ventral rami of adjacent spinal nerves that blend their fibers to produce a series of compound nerve trunks.
What two nerve plexus supply the pelvis and lower limb?
1. Lumbar plexus
2. Sacral plexus
What are the lumbar and sacral plexuses collectively referred to as?
Lumbosacral plexus
1. What ventral rami form the lumbar plexus?

2. What ventral rami form the sacral plexus?
1. Ventral rami of spinal nerves T12-L4

2. Ventral rami from spinal nerves L4-S4
What are the major nerves of the lumbar plexus?
1. Genitofemoral nerve
2. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
3. Femoral nerve
What are the major nerves of the sacral plexus?
1. Sciatic nerve
2. Pudendal nerve
1. The ventral rami of L4 and L5 form what nerve trunk?

2. What nerve plexus does the nerve trunk contribute to?
1. Lumbosacral trunk

2. Sacral plexus
What two branches does the sciatic nerve divide into as it approaches the popliteal fossa?
1. The common fibular nerve
2. Tibial nerve
Does the sciatic nerve pass anterior or posterior to the femur?
Posterior
Which of the following provides more conclusive information about location of injuries along the spinal cord?
1. Loss of sensation in dermatomes
2. Loss of motor control
Loss of motor control (on the basis pf the origin and distribution of peripheral nerves originating at nerve plexuses.

Note: Dermatomes do not provide exact information because the boundaries of dermatomes are not precise, clearly defined lines.
Femoral nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Lumbar plexus
Spinal Segments: L2-L4
Distribution: Anterior muscles thigh (sartorius and quadriceps group); adductors of hip (pectineus and ilipsoas); skin over anterio medial surface of thigh, medial surface of leg and foot
Obturator nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Lumbar plexus
Spinal Segments: L2-L4
Distribution: Adductors of hip (adductors magnus, brevis and longus); gracilis; skin over medial surface of thigh
Saphenous nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Lumbar plexus
Spinal Segments: L2-L4
Distribution: Skin over medial surface of leg
Superior Gluteal nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4-S2
Distribution: Abductors of hip (gluteus minimus and medius, and tensor fasciae latae)
Inferior Gluteal nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4 - S2
Distribution: Extensor of hip (gluteus maximus)
Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4-S3
Distribution: Skin of perineum and posterior surface of thigh and leg
Sciatic nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4-S3
Distribution: Two hamstrings (semimebranosus and semitedinosus); adductor magnus (with obturator nerve)
Tibial Sciatic nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4-S3
Distribution: Flexors of knee and plantar flexors of ankle (popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior muscles and long head of the biceps femoris muscles); flexors of toes; skin over posterior surface of leg; plantar surface of foot
Sciatic Fibular nerve (nerve plexus, spinal segments, distribution)
Nerve plexus: Sacral plexus
Spinal Segments: L4-S3
Distribution: Short head of biceps femoris muscle; fibularis (brevis and longus) and tibialis anterior muscles; extensors of toes; skin over anterior surface of leg and dorsal surface of foot; skin over lateral portion of foot (through the sural nerve)
What nerves from the lumbar plexus innervate muscles of the lower limb?
1. Femoral Nerve
2. Obturator nerve
What nerves from the sacral plexus innervate muscles of the lower limb?
1. Superior and inferior gluteal nerves
2. Sciatic nerve
3. Tibial and fibular sciatic nerve
What are peripherial neuropathies (peripheral nerve palsies)?
Regional losses of sensory and motor function as a result of nerve trauma or compression.
Which nerve plexus do crural palsies involve?
Lumbusacral plexus
List three crural palsies.
1. Sciatic compression
2. Sciatica
3. Fibular palsy
What can cause sciatic compression and what are the symptoms?
Cause: Sitting in one position for long periods of time with a large wallet in hip pocket
Symptoms: Lumbar and gluteal pain, numbness along back of leg and weakness in leg muscles
What can cause sciatica and what are the symptoms?
Cause: Compression of nerve roots that form the sciatic nerve by a distorted lumbar intervertebral disc.
Symptoms: Lumbar and gluteal pain, numbness along back of leg and weakness in leg muscles (in one or both legs depending on site of compression)
What can cause fibular palsy and what are the symptoms?
Cause: Sitting with legs crossed
Symptoms: Sensory loss from the top of the foot and side of the leg are accompanied by a decreased ability to dorsiflex ("foot drop) or evert the foot.
In assessment of motor performance what distinction is made?
A distinction is made between:
-the conscious ability to control motor activities and
-the performance of automatic, involuntary motor responses (reflexes)
What are reflexes?
Autonomic, involuntary motor responses (programmed motor patterns)
What arteries does the abdominal aorta divide into at vertebra L4? What do these arteries supply?
-Right and left common iliac arteries
-Small sacral artery

These arteries carry blood to the pelvis and lower limbs.
What arteries do the right and left common iliac arteries divide into at the lumbosacral joint?
1. Internal iliac artery
2. External iliac artery
What are the major tributaries of the internal iliac artery?
1. Superior gluteal artery
2. Internal pudendal artery
3. Obturator artery
4. Lateral sacral artery
What organs or structures does the internal iliac artery supply?
Urinary bladder, internal and external walls of pelvis, external genitilia and medial side of thigh.

In females, also supply the uterus and vagina
What doe the external iliac arteries supply blood to?
The lower limbs
Which is larger in diameter: Internal or external iliac artery?
External iliac artery
What does the external iliac artery turn into when it emerges on the anteromedial surface of the thigh?
The femoral artery
1. Which artery does the deep femoral artery branch form?
2. What two arteries does the deep femoral artery branch into?
3. What does it supply?
1. The femoral artery.
2. Medial and lateral circumflex arteries
3. Supplies blood to ventral and lateral regions of the skin and deep muscles of the thigh in the posterior compartment.
1. What part does the descending genicular artery supply?

2. What artery does it branch from?
1. Supplies medial aspect of knee

2. Branches from femoral artery before it as it reaches popliteal fossa
As the femoral artery passes through the adductor magnus, what does it become?
The popliteal artery
What arteries does the popliteal artery branch into after crossing popliteal fossa?
1. Posterior tibial artery
2. Anterior tibial artery
What artery rises from the posterior tibial artery?
Fibular artery
What is another name for the fibular artery?
Peroneal artery
What two bones does the anterior tibial artery pass through?
Passes between the tibia and fibula, emerging on the anterior lateral surface of the tibia.
When the anterior tibial artery reaches the ankle what artery does it turn into?
Dorsalis pedis artery
What does the dorsalis pedis arteyr supply?
Branches repeatedluy to supply
-ankle
-dorsal portion of foot
As it reaches the ankel, what arteries does the posterior tibial artery divide into?

What does these arteries supply?
-Medial plantar artery
-Lateral plantar artery

The above arteries supply the plantar surface of the foot.
What arch in the foot is formed by dorsalis pedis artery?
The dorsal arch
What arch in the foot is formed by medial and lateral plantar arteries?
The plantar arch
How are the dorsal and plantar arches of the foot connected?
By a pair of anastomoses
Trace the arteries from the abdominal aorta to the foot
Abdominal aorta --> Right or Left common iliac artery --> External iliac artery --> Femoral artery --> Popliteal artery --> Anterior and posterior tibial artery -->dorsalis pedis artery (from anterior tibial artery) and medial and lateral plantar arteries (from posterior tibial artery) --> dorsal arch (from dorsalis pedis artery) and plantar arch (from plantar arteries)
What is another name for the dorsal arch in the foot?
Arcuate arch
What is another name for the fibular artery?
Peroneal artery
1. What vein drains blood from the lower limbs, pelvis and lower abdomen?

2. What vein drains blood from the pelvic organs?
1. External iliac vein

2. Internal iliac vein
What veins fuse to form the internal iliac vein?
1. Gluteal vein
2. Internal pudendal vein
3. Obturator vein
4. Lateral sacral vein
What two veins merge to form the common iliac vein?
The external and internal iliac veins
Does the medial sacral usually empty into the right or left common iliac vein?
Left common iliac vein
What vein do the left and right common iliac vein merge into?
Inferior vena cava
What veins collect blood from the capillaries in the sole of each foot?
Plantar veins
1. What are the deep veins of the leg?

2. What venous arch drains into them?
1. Anterior tibial vein, posterior tibial vein and fibular vein

2. Plantar venous arch
What does the dorsal venous arch collect blood from?
1. Capillaries on the dorsal surface of the foot.
2. Digital veins of the toe.
1. Are the dorsal and plantar venous arches connected?

2. What is the purpose?
1. There are extensive interconnections between the plantar arch and the dorsal arch.

2. The path of blood flow can easily shift from superficial to deep veins.
1. What are the superficial veins of the leg?

2. What venous arch drains into them?
1. Great saphenous vein and small saphenous vein

2. Dorsal venous arch
What vein is used in coronary bypass operations?
Great sephanous vein
Which vein is the longest vein in the body?
Great sephanous vein
Which aspect of the leg do the small and great sephanous veins ascend along?
Great sephanous vein: medial aspect of the leg and thigh

Small sephanous vein: posterior and lateral aspect of arch
Where and what veins do the small and great sephanous veins drain into?
Great sephanous vein: femoral vein near the hip joint

Small sephanous vein: popliteal vein in the popliteal fossa
What veins merge to form the popliteal vein?
Tibial (anterior and posterior) and femoral veins
When it reaches the femur, the popliteal vein becomes what vein?
Femoral vein
Where can the popliteal vein be palpated?
In the popliteal fossa adjacent to the adductor magnus muscle.
Which artery does the femoral vein ascend along in the thigh?
The femoral artery
Immediately before penetrating the abdominal wall, the femoral vein receives blood from what veins?
1. The great sephanous vein
2. Deep femoral vein
3. The femoral circumflex vein
What parts does the deep femoral vein drain?
Collects blood from deeper structures of the thigh
What parts does the femoral circumflex vein drain?
The area around the neck and head of the femur
What is the femoral vein called after it penetrates the body to emerge in the pelvic cavity?
The external iliac vein
Trace the path from the dorsal venous arch to the inferior vena cava
Dorsal venous arch --> great saphenous vein --> femoral vein --> external iliac vein --> common iliac vein (left or right) --> inferior vena cava

Dorsal venous arch --> small saphenous vein --> popliteal vein --> femoral vein --> external iliac vein --> common iliac vein (left or right) --> inferior vena cavae
Trace the path from the plantar venous arch to the inferior vena cava
Plantar venous arch --> tibial (anterior or posterior) or fibular veins --> popliteal vein --> femoral vein --> external iliac vein --> common iliac vein (left or right) --> inferior vena cava
What is another name for the fibular vein?
Peroneal vein
What vein does the fibular vein drain into?
Posterior tibial vein
What muscle inserts at adductor tubercles of femur?
Adductor magnus
Nerves and blood vessels enter the lower extremity via what three distinct routes?
1. Entering the anterior compartment of the thigh posterior to the inguinal ligament
2. Entering the medial compartment of the thigh through the obturator canal
3. Entering the gluteal region through the greater sciatic foramen
What are the three major nerves of the lower extremity arising from lumbar and sacral plexus?
1. The femoral nerve
2. The obturator nerve
3. The sciatic nerve
What nerves supply the skin of the lower extremity?
Cutaneous branches of the lumbar and sacral plexus
Is there an overlap of dermatomes in the lowers extremity?
Yes
Which artery do the inferior and superior gluteal arteries arise from?
The internal iliac artery
Does the lower extremity have deep or superficial lymphatics?
Both

Note: The superficial lymphatics accompany the superficial veins while the deep lymphatics accompany arteries.
The superficial lymphatics run parallel to the great saphenous and the short saphenous vein and rain into what lymphatic nodes?
1. Parallel to great saphenous: deep inguinal nodes through the superficial inguinal nodes

2. Parallel to short saphenous: lymphatic nodes in the popliteal fossa
Trace lymphatics from popliteal fossa to the external iliac group of lymphatic nodes.
From the popliteal fossa, the lymphatics ascend through the thigh, alongside the femoral artery, to the deep inguinal nodes and on to the external iliac group.
Where do blood vessels enter the hip joint?
Through the acetabular notch.
What is a Trendelenburg test?
The Trendelenburg Test or Brodie-Trendelenburg test is a test which can be carried out as part of a physical examination to determine the competency of the valves in the superficial and deep veins of the legs in patients with varicose veins.
The head of the femur is quite wide and the neck is quite narrow. What is the advantage of this?
This maximizes the range of motion of the hip joint by allowing the femur to move quite a distance before it's course is limited by the innominate (hip) bone.
What is another name for the ligament of the femoral head?
The round ligament
What is the function of the round ligament?
Limits adduction
What part of the hip joint capsule is the thinnest?
The inferior aspect
What is the function of the three internal ligaments (iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral) of the hip joint capsule?
Limit extension and medial rotation
Which ligament of the hip joint capsule is the thickest? What is its function?
Iliofemoral ligament.

Prevents hyperextension.
What hip joint capsule ligament attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine and the intertrochanteric line?
Iliofemoral ligament
What hip joint capsule ligament extends from the iliopubic eminence to the neck of the femur?
Pubofemoral ligament
What separates the hip joint capsule from the iliopsoas tendon and the obturator externus?
Two bursae
What muscles produce flexion at the hip joint?
Iliopsoas assisted by sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus
What muscles produce extension at the hip joint?
Gluteus maximus, semimembranosus, semitendinosus and biceps femoris.
What muscles produce abduction at the hip joint?
Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
What muscles produce adduction at the hip joint?
Adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, pectineus, and gracilis.
What muscles produce medial rotation at the hip joint?
Iliopsoas, tensor fascia latae, and portions of the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus.
What muscles produce lateral rotation at the hip joint?
Piriformis, quadratus femoris, obturator externus, obturator internus, superior gemellus and inferior gemellus
What blood vessels supply blood to the hip joint?
Branches from the obturator arter, the superior gluteal arter, the inferior gluteal artery, the medial circumflex femoral artery, the lateral circumflex femoral artery, and the trochanteric anstamosis.
What is the clinical significance of nutrient arteries running within the reticular fibers of the fibrous capsule that pass into foramina on the femoral neck, terminating at the head of the femur.
A fracture that results in tearing of the retinacular fibers may result in diminished blood flow to the head of the femur. If substantial this will result in avascular necrosis of the head of the femur which leads, quite rapidly to joint destruction and femoral head collapse.
Besides the nutrient arteries of the hip joint capsule, what other arteries supply the femoral head?
A branch of the obturator artery conveyed in the ligament of the femoral head (ligament teres femoris), and from the perforating branch of the profunda femoris artery.
What nerves supply the hip joint?
Branches of femoral nerve, obturator nerve and nerve from sacral plexus (that innervates the quadratus femoris)
Where does the gluteal fold lie?
The junction of the buttock and the posterior thigh.
What muscles are in the gluteal compartment?
Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus.
What shape is the gluteus maximus?
Trapezoidal shape
What lies between the gluteus maximus and the ischial tuberosity?
A synovial bursa
What gluteal muscle helps stabilize the knee joint, extend the trunk when the lower extremities are stabilized and is most active in hip extension during stair climbing, walking up a steep grade or riding a bicylce?
Gluteus maximus
Lack of development of what muscles produces the exaggerated "torso-swing"?
Gluteus medius and minimus
Is the sciatic nerve a single nerve?
No. It is composed of the tibial and common peroneal (fibular) nerve that run the entire length of the sciatic nerve enclosed by a common sheath. This division may occur at the sacral plexus.
Why is the location of the sciatic nerve in the pelvis clinically significant?
When seeking to avoid piercing the the nerve when administering an injection in the region of the buttock.
What muscle exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and lesser sciatic foramen?
Greater sciatic foramen: Piriformis

Lesser sciatic foramen: obturator internus
What are two large ligaments that attach the sacrum to the ischium?
-Sacrospinous (connects to ischial spine)
-Sacrotuberous (connects to ischial tuberosity)
Is the femoral artery anterior or posterior to the femur?
Anteromedial as it branches from the external iliac artery and then posterior as it reaches reaches the popliteal fossa
Which is the only quadriceps femoris muscle crosses the hip joint?
The rectus femoris
What is a clinically significant region of the anterior compartment?
The femoral triangle, occupying the upper-medial portion of the thigh.
What structures delineate the femoral triangle?
Superiorly: Inguinal canal
Laterally: Sartorius
Medially: Adductor longus
Roof: Fascia lata and iliopsoas
Floor: Pectineus and adductor longus
What canal does the saphenous vein, the femoral vein, the femoral artery and the femoral nerve pass through to get from the femoral triangle to the popliteal fossa i.e. from the anterior to posterior aspect of thigh?
The adductor canal
What vessel is easily palpable and accessible for catheterization to perform anteriograms near the inguinal ligament?
Femoral artery
What forms the femoral ring (upper limit of the femoral canal)?
Anterior: inguinal ligament
Posterior: pubis
What thick fascial sheet surrounds the femoral artery and vein?
Femoral sheath.
What are the three compartments of the fascial sheath and which one is called the femoral canal?
1. Lateral (femoral artery)
2. Intermediate (femoral vein)
3. Medial (fat and lymph nodes)

The medial compartment is called the femoral canal.
What is a hernia?
A hernia is the protrusion of an organ or the fascia of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it
What hernia descends through the femoral ring to enter the femoral canal?
Femoral hernia
Which muscle in the thigh medial compartment crosses both the hip joint and knee joint?
Gracilis
Does the long or short head of the biceps femoris cross the hip joint?
The long head.
The tibial collateral ligament blends with the capsule of the knee joint which attaches to the medial meniscus of the knee joint vs. the fibular collateral ligament which does not blend into the capsule and is separated from the lateral meniscus. What is the significance of this?
Increase in probability of medial meniscus tears.
What is the function of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments of the knee?
Prevent anterior and posterior shearing of the femur on the tibia.
What nerves supply the knee joint?
The femoral, obturator and sciatic nerves
What shape is the popliteal fossa and where does it lie? What does it contain?
It is a diamond-shaped space on the posterior aspect of the knee containing the principal blood vessels and nerves passing between the thigh and the leg.
What forms the roof, floor and walls of the popliteal fossa?
Roof: Deep fascia
Floor: femur, capsule and popliteus.
Superior (medial): Semimembranosus and semitendinosus
Superior (lateral): Biceps femoris
Inferior: medial and lateral heads of gastrocnemius.
What are the contents of the popliteal fossa?
-Popliteal artery and vein
-Common fibular nerve
-Tibial nerve
Does the leg have extensor and flexor retinacula at its distal end?
Yes.

Note: They form a fibro-osseous tunnel like the carpal tunnel in the wrist
What nerve may be compressed in the tunnel formed by the extensor and flexor retinacula of leg causing pain in the heel and foot?
The tibial nerve
What are vena comitentes?
Vena comitans is Latin for accompanying vein. It refers to a vein that is usually paired, with both veins lying on the sides of an artery.
What compartment is the fibularis tertius in? What is its function?
Anterior compartment of leg.

Function: Evert the foot and dorsiflex the ankle.
What arteries contribute to the genicular anastomosis?
Femoral (superior and inferior genicular)
Anterior and posterior tibialis (recurrent genicular)
Popliteal (descending genicular)
What vessels supply blood to the ankle joint?

What nerves supply the ankle joint?
The anterior and posterior tibial arteries which anastomose at the level of the melleoli.

Nerve supply is via the deep fibular nerve and tibial nerve.
What are aponeuroses?
Aponeuroses are layers of flat broad tendons.
What does the tibial nerve branch into as it crosses into the foot deep to the the flexor retinaculum?
Medial and lateral plantar nerves?
Which is larger: lateral or medial plantar nerve?
Medial