Life Span 3

Front 1

A form of cytomegalovirus acquired during adulthood.

Back 1

acute acquired CMV:

Front 2

Immunity achieved through previous exposure to infectious microorganisms.:

Back 2

active immunity

Front 3

The least severe form of poliomyelitis, in which short-lived symptoms include fever, uneasiness, sore throat, headache, anorexia, vomiting, and abdominal pain; also known as unapparent poliomyelitis.

Back 3

abortive poliomyelitis:

Front 4

The body’s defense mechanism; occurs when B lymphocytes transform into plasma cells and manufacture antibodies. Also known as the humoral immune response.

Back 4

antibody immune response:

Front 5

:Cells that are responsible for humoral immunity; they mature in the bone marrow and become memory cells or plasma cells that lead to antibodies.

Back 5

B cells

Front 6

arthralgias:

Back 6

Instances of joint pain.

Front 7

atelectasis:

Back 7

Lung collapse.

Front 8

Single-celled microorganisms that may produce disease.

Back 8

bacteria:

Front 9

The body’s defense mechanism that occurs when T lymphocytes turn into cytotoxic killer T cells to attack pathogens.

Back 9

cellular immune response:

Front 10

A gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium that allows microorganisms to spread through direct contact, resulting in fever, diarrhea, and nausea.

Back 10

Clostridium difficile:

DX: Stool testing or Imagery lookin for psuedomembranes

Front 11

Spreading from the trunk to the face and proximal extremities, as in the case of a rash.

Back 11

centripetal:

Front 12

An infection caused by several species of gram-negative bacteria transmitted via contaminated food or water; common symptoms include diarrhea, dehydration, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

Back 12

cholera:
tx=tetracycline- to reduce duration of diahrrea

Front 13

A highly contagious disease caused by the Varicella zoster virus; also known as varicella. Spread primarily through airborne respiratory secretions or person-to-person contact; symptoms include fever and a characteristic rash.

Back 13

chicken pox:

2-3 weeks incubation period
tx=cool baths
calamine lotions
benadryl
tylenol
Acycolvir

Front 14

chancre:

Back 14

A painless lesion at the site of an infection.

Front 15

A form of bacteria found in animal food sources and transmitted via fecal-oral means; one of the main causes of food-borne illness.

Back 15

Campylobacter:leads to Enterotoxin release

main cause of foos borne disease

dx: stool sample/culturing

tx: supportive measures toward symptoms

Front 16

A process by which circulating plasma proteins produced in the liver are activated when an antibody couples with an antigen, or when endotoxins are released; ultimately results in cell lysis and death.:

Back 16

complement system

Front 17

The most severe form of congenital cytomegalovirus; symptoms may include jaundice, enlarged liver and spleen, a purplish rash, and fever.:

Back 17

cytomegalic inclusion disease

Front 18

A herpes-family virus with many strains; transmitted through person-to-person contact. The leading cause of congenital viral infections in North America.

Back 18

cytomegalovirus (CMV):

handwashing is the best defense

Front 19

A form of cytomegalovirus in which infected women transmit the virus to their babies during birth.

Back 19

congenital CMV:

Front 20

coryza:

Back 20

Upper respiratory infection.

Front 21

An illness caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae; transmitted through direct contact with the respiratory secretions of an infected host. <BR><BR>Symptoms may include nasal discharge, sore throat, fever, cough, and swollen lymph nodes, bluish tint to skin due to inadequate oxygenation

Back 21

Diphtheria:

TX=penicillin or erythtomycin

and can cause myocarditis/neuritits

dx: sympotoms then confirmed with throat swab and cultures

Front 22

Particles one to five micrometers in diameter that, when suspended in the air, may be inhaled by susceptible individuals, resulting in illness.

Back 22

droplet nuclei:

Front 23

Indigestion is also known as ___________________ ?

Back 23

dyspepsia:

Front 24

desquamation:

Back 24

Peeling of the skin.

Front 25

A form of cytomegalovirus acquired by individuals who are immunosuppressed, especially those who have had a transplant.

Back 25

generalized systemic CMV:

leukopenia
pneumonitis

best preventive measure is good handwashing

Front 26

Tissue masses composed of living and dead bacilli.

Back 26

granuloma:

Front 27

A protozoan transmitted through contaminated food, drink, or water containing viable cysts of the organism.:

Back 27

Giardia lamblia

SX; Abd pain with watery stools, fatigue and weight loss

TX: Albenzazole, Flagyl, Furizolidone

Front 28

The center of the fibrous tissue mass that surrounds a granuloma.

Back 28

Ghon’s tubercle:

Front 29

An illness caused by the rubella virus that is transmitted primarily through nasopharyngeal secretions; also known as rubella. Symptoms can include fever, malaise, headache, upper respiratory infection, and rash.14-21 days incubation

Back 29

German measles:

bedrest
tylenol
isolation

Front 30

The hepatitis B core antigen; presence of an antibody to this antigen indicates the continuing presence of hepatitis B in the liver during the acute phase of illness.

Back 30

HBcAg:

Front 31

A viral infection of the liver usually passed through fecal-oral transmission; typically associated with contaminated food, but may also be sexually transmitted.

Back 31

hepatitis A:

Front 32

A surface antigen; detection of the antibody to this antigen indicates late convalescence, recovery, and the development of immunity to hepatitis B.

Back 32

HBsAg:

Front 33

A gene product of hepatitis B DNA; presence of antibodies to this antigen indicates ongoing replication of hepatitis B.

Back 33

HBxAg:

Front 34

A condition in which red blood cells are destroyed and the kidneys fail

Back 34

hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

usually in children under 5 who have suffered from E. Coli

Front 35

A form of viral hepatitis transmitted by blood through a percutaneous or mucosal route; replicates in the liver, but lingers in the blood serum.

Back 35

hepatitis B (HBV):

SX: Arthralgia, Dyspepsia

Front 36

An independent protein and hepatitis B antigen circulating in the blood; presence of antibodies to this antigen usually indicates reduced infectivity.

Back 36

HBeAg:

Front 37

An illness caused by the Sin nombre virus; transmitted to humans through direct or indirect contact with rodents.

Back 37

hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS):

if left untreaded can cause SOB, Resp. Problems
Low BP, Low Platelet count

Ribivirin may be given to slow the Virus

Front 38

A virus that causes various types of skin infections characterized by blister-like lesions;transmitted through direct contact.

Back 38

herpes simplex:

Front 39

A viral infection resulting in blister-type lesions in the genital area.

Back 39

herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2):

Front 40

A viral infection resulting in blister-type lesions around the mouth.

Back 40

herpes simplex 1 (HSV-1):

Front 41

The body’s defense mechanism; occurs when B lymphocytes transform into plasma cells and manufacture antibodies. Also known as the antibody immune response.

Back 41

humoral immune response:

Front 42

The state in which a person is protected from specific microorganisms.

Back 42

immunity:

Front 43

A pathological condition of the body that occurs when a host becomes ill due to infection and presents a group of clinical signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings.

Back 43

infectious disease:

Front 44

Localized hardening of the skin.

Back 44

induration:

Front 45

: A multisystem illness caused by Legionella pneumophila, a gram-negative bacteria transmitted to the respiratory tract through inhalation of aerosols produced by an environmental source. Commonly referred to as Legionnaires’ disease.

Back 45

legionellosis

2-10 days incubation

contracted thru aerosols produced by water towers, humidifiers, shower heads, water coolers

SX; Malaise, Dry cough

DX: Sputum, Blood or Urine



antibiotic therapy

zithromax
erythtomycin
levoflaxcin

Front 46

A condition in which there is a low number of circulating white blood cells.

Back 46

leukopenia:

Front 47

A disease caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi; transmitted to humans by ticks. Symptoms range from rash and lymphadenopathy to serious neurological manifestations such as Bell’s palsy and Guillain-Barré-like syndrome.

Back 47

Lyme disease:

lab diagnoses not specific
ABO treatment

Front 48

Swelling of the lymph nodes.

Back 48

lymphadenopathy:

Front 49

Small, irregular red spots with a tiny, bluish-white center; seen on the buccal mucosa opposite the molars two days before measles rash appears.

Back 49

Koplik’s spots:

Front 50

A severe bacterial infection that affects the blood and meninges; transmitted via the nose or throat discharge of infected individuals.

Back 50

meningococcal meningitis:

Front 51

The main diagnostic test for tuberculosis in which a purified protein derivative of the TB bacillus is given intradermally to evaluate cell-mediated immunity.

Back 51

Mantoux test:

Front 52

A virus that causes symptoms including fever, malaise, upper respiratory infection, Koplik’s spots, and rash; may be transmitted through the respiratory secretions, blood, and urine of an infected person. Also known as rubeola.

10-20 days incubation

Back 52

measles

tx=bedrest fever reducing drugs

Front 53

The means by which disease spreads from one host to another.

Back 53

mode of transmission:

Front 54

An illness caused by paramyxovirus and transmitted by direct contact with the saliva or respiratory secretions of an infected person. Common symptoms include fever, headache, earache, and parotitis.

Back 54

Mumps
14-21 days incubation
may cause epididymo-orchitis
tx=IBU,Tylenol and Bedrest

Front 55

Inflammation of the middle muscle layer of the heart.

Back 55

myocarditis:

a complication of diptheia

Front 56

A severe form of poliomyelitis; symptoms include pain and stiffness in the neck, back, and legs.

Back 56

nonparalytic poliomyelitis:

Front 57

A syphilitic infection of the central nervous system that can lead to dementia, psychosis, paresis, stroke, or meningitis.

Back 57

neurosyphilis:

Front 58

Nerve degeneration accompanied by pain.

Back 58

neuritis:

Front 59

Infections by organisms that wouldn’t normally cause disease, but are able to do so because of a patient’s already weakened state.

Back 59

opportunistic infections:

Front 60

An illness caused by Bordetella pertussis and transmitted through direct contact with or via droplets from the respiratory tract of an infected person;

primary symptom is forceful coughing. Also known as whooping cough. (paroxsym)

Back 60

pertussis
5-21 days incubation

zithromax
erythtomycin
bedrest

Front 61

Rapid cough followed by sudden inspiration.

Back 61

paroxysm:

Front 62

The most severe form of poliomyelitis; complications can include permanent central nervous system paralysis, respiratory arrest, hypertension, and kidney stones.

Back 62

paralytic poliomyelitis:

Front 63

Protection achieved through natural or innate immunity against microorganisms, or by vaccination.

Back 63

passive immunity:

Front 64

Microorganisms that infect the body by attaching to systems, infecting those systems, and causing symptoms.

Back 64

parasites:

Front 65

The body’s defense mechanism; occurs when white blood cells (granulocytes and macrophages) move to the site of infection where they engulf and destroy the foreign invaders.

Back 65

phagocytic immune response:

Front 66

Illness caused by enteroviruses (type 1, 2, or 3); transmitted by contact with the saliva or feces of an infected person. Symptoms can range from fever and malaise to central nervous system paralysis.

Back 66

poliomyelitis:

7-14 days incubation period
Eradicated in US
TX=Analgesics and in worse cases Ventilators

Front 67

A virus that carries genetic material in ribonucleic acid (RNA) instead of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Back 67

retrovirus:

Front 68

Supplements that contain beneficial bacteria to help restore the colon’s natural flora.

Back 68

probiotics:

Front 69

A virus that occurs after permanent infection is established.

Back 69

provirus:

Front 70

A condition that occurs when an infection in one part of the body serves as a source of blood contamination.

Back 70

secondary bloodstream infection:

Front 71

Gram-negative bacteria that invade the lumen of the intestine; spread through oral-fecal transmission. Severe diarrhea is the most common symptom.

Back 71

Shigella:

poor hygiene most contributing factor'pediatric population being the most affected

TX: fluids ABO therapy

Front 72

A gram-negative bacillus with many species, including the pathogenic S. typhi (typhoid fever). The organism lives in the intestines and is shed in the feces; commonly found in chicken, eggs, raw milk, and sometimes beef. Symptoms of infection can include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

Back 72

Salmonella:

Front 73

Cells that reside in lymphoid tissue and migrate to the thymus gland where they directly attack foreign invaders and produce cellular or cell-mediated immunity

T- for Thymus

Back 73

T cells:

Front 74

An organism that does not by itself cause disease, but harbors a microorganism that leads to infection.

Back 74

vector:

Front 75

List the three immune responses in which the body attacks foriegn invaders.

Back 75

The phagocytic immune response occurs when WBCs move to the site of invasion and engulf and thereby destroy the foreign invaders.

The humoral or antibody immune response occurs when B lymphocytes transform themselves into plasma cells and manufacture antibodies. These antibodies are then transported in the bloodstream to disable the invaders.


The cellular immune response occurs when T lymphocytes turn into cytotoxic killer T cells and attack pathogens.

Front 76

When does HIV go to full blown AIDS?

Back 76

T4 count drops to 200 cells per mm3 or less and/or he or she has an opportunistic infection.

Front 77

The main diagnostic test for tuberculosis is the tuberculin skin test, also called the?

Back 77

Mantoux test. .

Front 78

WHo is at risk for bacterial meningitis?

Back 78

Adolescents, especially college students living in dormitories, are at increased risk for bacterial meningitis. Other people at increased risk include those who have contact with the household of a person known to have had this disease, those who are immunocompromised, and those who are traveling to parts of the world where meningococcal meningitis is prevalent.

Front 79

Chlamydia is treated with antibiotics, such as?

Back 79

doxycycline taken twice a day for seven days or azithromycin (Zithromax) taken in a single dose. Persons being treated for chlamydia should not have sexual contact for seven days after single-dose therapy or until completion of all days of treatment in multidose therapy.

Front 80

Some reasons for the increase in emerging infections include the following:

Back 80

An increase in global travel
Globalization of the food supply
Population growth
Human migration and overcrowding
Risky human behavior
Increased antimicrobial resistance
Breakdown in public health measures that ensure safe food protection and handling

Front 81

A condition in which passive flexion of a lower extremity produces similar action on the opposite extremity.

Back 81

Brudzinski’s sign:

Front 82

An abnormal passage within the body.

Back 82

fistula:

Front 83

A condition in which the leg cannot be completely extended when the thigh is flexed.

Back 83

Kernig’s sign:

Front 84

Blood in the stool

Back 84

melena:.

Front 85

Skin lesions that are less than 0.5 centimeters in width and solid, such as warts.

Back 85

papules:

Front 86

Stiffness in the neck.

Back 86

nuchal rigidity:

Front 87

Pus-filled vesicles, as seen in acne, impetigo, furuncle, or carbuncles.

Back 87

pustules:

Front 88

Tumorlike skin lesions seen in cases of carcinoma.

Back 88

nodules:

Front 89

Pus in the urine.

Back 89

pyuria:

Front 90

The outer layer of the epidermis that serves to regulate water balance and provide a barrier to chemicals, microbes, insect bites, and trauma.

Back 90

stratum corneum:

Front 91

Skin lesions that are less than 0.5 centimeters in diameter and circumscribed with an elevated palpable mass containing serous fluid.

Back 91

vesicles:

Front 92

a dry, irritating cough is characteristic of

Back 92

an upper-airway viral infection;

Front 93

a high-pitched cough is characteristic of

Back 93

obstruction

Front 94

brassy cough

Back 94

tracheal infections

Front 95

Coughing at night may be more indicative of

Back 95

left-sided heart failure or bronchial asthma,

Front 96

In the morning, a productive cough may indicate

Back 96

bronchitis

Front 97

coughing in a supine may indicate

Back 97

Sinusitis

Front 98

Intermittent fever vs. remittent fever

Back 98

Intermittent fever may return to normal once or several times in a twenty-four hour period; on the other hand, remittent fever fluctuates but does not return to normal.

Front 99

To determine the effects of illness on a patient’s self-concept, the nurse can ask questions such as

Back 99

“How do you feel about your life in general?” and “Do you have any concerns about your body?”

Front 100

White blood cells that fight invasion by releasing cell mediators to engulf foreign or toxic substances

Back 100

granular leukocytes:

Front 101

Monocytes and macrophages that function as phagocytic cells to engulf, ingest, and destroy foreign invaders.

Back 101

nongranular leukocytes:

Front 102

Cells that work to engulf, ingest, and destroy foreign invaders.

Back 102

phagocytic cells:

Front 103

With natural immunity, certain natural and chemical barriers prevent pathogens from gaining access to the body; these include ?

Back 103

physical barriers, the cilia of the respiratory tract, natural responses, acidic gastric juices, enzymes in tears and saliva, substances in sebaceous and sweat secretions, and interferons.

Front 104

An allergic reaction characterized by toxic epidermal necrolysis in which the epidermis separates from the dermis.

Back 104

Stevens-Johnson syndrome:

Front 105

A technique developed by Dolores Kreiger and Dora Kunz in the early 1970s; involves a therapist moving his or her hands over the body of the patient to achieve relaxation and promote healing.

Back 105

therapeutic touch:

Front 106

The following problems with the cardiovascular system may be indicative of infection:

Back 106

Sepsis
Elevated temperature
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Dysrhythmia
Vasculitis
Anemia

Front 107

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder as a result of trauma, burns, major surgery, cystic duct obstruction, primary bacterial infection, or multiple blood transfusions.

Back 107

acalculous cholecystitis:

Front 108

Also known as sliding hernia; occurs when the upper stomach and the gastroesophageal junction are displaced upward and slide in and out of the thorax.

Back 108

axial hernia:

Front 109

The administration of agents that bind with metals in the blood and convert them to a chemically inert form that can be excreted without further interaction with the body.

Back 109

chelation therapy:

Front 110

A surgical procedure in which an incision is made into the common duct for removal of gallstones; usually requires insertion of a tube to drain bile and edema.

Back 110

choledochostomy:

Front 111

A condition in which a gallstone obstructs the gallbladder’s bile outflow.

Back 111

calculous cholecystitis:

Front 112

A condition in which the gallbladder is filled with purulent fluid.

Back 112

empyema:

Front 113

Also known as ulcerative colitis; a recurrent ulcerative and inflammatory disease of the mucosal layer of the colon and rectum.

Back 113

granulomatous colitis:

Front 114

An endoscopic medical procedure that uses extracorporeal shock waves to fragment gallstones so that they then can pass out of the body.

Back 114

intracorporeal lithotripsy:

Front 115

A medical procedure that uses extracorporeal shock waves to fragment gallstones so that they then can pass out of the body.

Back 115

lithotripsy:

Front 116

A type of physical trauma that occurs when all or part of the stomach pushes up through the diaphragm.

Back 116

paraesophageal hernia:

Front 117

An autoimmune disease brought about by a combination of genetic, hormonal, and environmental factors; can be acute or insidious and may involve multiple body systems.

Back 117

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE):

Front 118

The urge to defecate.

Back 118

tenesmus:

Front 119

A substance created by the conversion of bilirubin in the small intestine, partly excreted in feces and urine and partly absorbed into portal blood.

Back 119

urobilinogen:

Front 120

The two types of Hiatal Hernias?

Back 120

Hiatal hernia can be classified as either axial or paraesophageal.

Axial or sliding hernia occurs when the upper stomach and the gastroesophageal junction are displaced upward and slide in and out of the thorax.

Paraesophageal hernia occurs when all or part of the stomach pushes up through the diaphragm. This condition is less common than axial hernia.

Front 121

The best H2 receptor antagonist for critically ill patients with peptic ulcer disease is?

Back 121

famotidine (Pepcid), because it is known to have the lowest risk of interaction with drugs other than cimetidine and does not alter drug metabolism in the liver.

Front 122

The amount of tension the ventricles develop before contraction to eject blood to the arteries.

Back 122

afterload:

Front 123

The volume of blood that fills the ventricles at the end of diastole.

Back 123

preload:

Front 124

Also known as normal anion gap acidosis; metabolic acidosis that results from the direct loss of bicarbonate.

Back 124

hyperchloremic acidosis:

Front 125

A clinical disturbance characterized by a high blood pH and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration; can be caused by a gain of bicarbonate or a loss of H+.

Back 125

metabolic alkalosis:

Front 126

A clinical disturbance characterized by a low blood pH and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration; can be subcategorized as high anion gap acidosis or normal anion gap acidosis.

Back 126

metabolic acidosis:

Front 127

Metabolic acidosis vs. Metabolic alkalosis

Back 127

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low blood pH (increased H+ concentration) and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration. Conversely, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high blood pH (decreased H+ concentration) and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration.

Front 128

Clinical manifestations include tingling of the fingers and toes, dizziness, and hypertonic muscles, which are all related to decreased calcium ionization. The patient’s respiratory rate will also be decreased as a compensatory mechanism. As the patient’s blood pH rises above 7.6 and hypokalemia develops, ventricular disturbances may occur, decreased GI motility may occur, and paralytic ileus may develop.

Back 128

acute metabolic alkalosis

Front 129

Pediatric patients are at risk for more serious problems following tissue trauma because ?

Back 129

they have less surface area to dissipate the injury, more rapid metabolism, and a greater risk for accidents or ingestion of toxic products.

Front 130

Specific nursing responsibilities related to chelating agents include the following:

Back 130

Seeking information about possible penicillin allergies (these drugs are related to chelating agents)
Monitoring the patient’s symptoms (especially joint pain)
Reviewing liver function tests
Monitoring urinalysis, complete blood counts, and platelet levels

Front 131

Massive dilation of blood vessels attributable to a neurological cause.

Back 131

neurogenic shock:

Front 132

A position in which the patient is placed on his or her back with knees and hips flexed and feet in stirrups; allows surgery of the perineum, rectum, and vagina.

Back 132

lithotomy position:

Front 133

Excess carbon dioxide in the blood.

Back 133

hypercapnia:

Front 134

An inherited muscle disorder chemically induced by anesthetic gases that trigger a set of actions leading to hypermetabolism of the muscles and, ultimately, to hyperthermia.

Back 134

malignant hyperthermia:

Front 135

increased amounts of ________________are critical for tissue synthesis and immune function, and they increase a person’s resistance to infection. Thus, deficiency can lead to impaired healing related to decreased collagen synthesis; impaired immune function; and increased risk of infection.

Back 135

vitamin A

Front 136

Impaired coordination of movement.

Back 136

ataxia:

Front 137

Also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease; a chronic, fatal, rapidly progressive motor neuron disease that eventually causes paralysis of the respiratory system.

Back 137

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS):

Front 138

akathisia:

Back 138

Motor restlessness.

Front 139

The inability to perform a previously learned action.

Back 139

apraxia:

Front 140

Removal of the atherosclerotic plaque or thrombus from the carotid artery.

Back 140

carotid endarterectomy:

Front 141

Uncoordinated dancelike motions of the trunk and extremities; often characteristic of Huntington’s disease.

Back 141

chorea:

Front 142

A type of ischemic stroke that has no known cause.

Back 142

cryptogenic stroke:

Front 143

A partial seizure in which the patient remains motionless or moves automatically but inappropriately for the time and place; the patient may also experience exaggerated emotions.

Back 143

complex partial seizure:

Front 144

Muscle rigidity associated with Parkinson’s disease; characterized by resistance to passive limb movement.

Back 144

cogwheel rigidity:

Front 145

Difficulty speaking or demonstration of poor intelligible speech due to paralysis of the speech-related muscles following a stroke.

Back 145

dysarthria:

Front 146

Also known as small penetrating artery thrombosis; a type of ischemic stroke that affects one or more small vessels. The most common form of ischemic stroke.

Back 146

lacunar stroke:

Front 147

A type of ischemic stroke that occurs due to atherosclerosis of the large blood vessels within the brain and thrombosis formation.

Back 147

large artery thrombosis:

Front 148

A variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome that primarily affects the eyes; it also causes loss of reflexes and severe ataxia.

Back 148

Miller-Fischer syndrome:

Front 149

An autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular transmission at the myoneural junction in which an antibody destroys normal postsynaptic receptors located on voluntary skeletal muscle.

Back 149

myasthenia gravis (MG):

Front 150

An episode of neurological dysfunction that occurs when there is an impairment of blood flow to a particular area of the brain, It last longer than twenty-four hours, but resolve within twenty-one days and do not involve neurological deficit.

Back 150

reversible ischemic neurological deficits (RINDs):

Front 151

a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Onset is more common among young adults (twenty to forty years of age) living in northern climates, and more women are affected than men.

Back 151

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is

Front 152

a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movements and dementia. With this disease, choking is a problem because swallowing and chewing are difficult. Choreiform movements persist but diminish during sleep. Cognitive changes involve dementia as well as mental and emotional irregularities. Patients may be angry, depressed (often suicidal), nervous, irritable, and impatient. Judgment and memory are also affected. Paranoid thinking, delusions, and hallucinations may precede the appearance of disjointed thinking.

Back 152

Huntington’s disease (HD) is

Front 153

The three cardinal signs of Parkinson’s disease are

Back 153

tremor
rigidity
bradykinesia.

Front 154

extreme skeletal muscle weakness and fatigue, which worsens with activity and may be relieved by rest. The muscle groups most commonly affected are those involved with breathing, swallowing, head control, chewing, speech, and eye movement (leading to diplopia and ptosis). Patients have a sleepy and masklike appearance because of the effects of MG on these muscle groups. Laryngeal involvement leads to dysphonia, which gives a nasal sound to speech and makes articulation difficult. Weakness of the bulbar muscles presents swallowing difficulties and danger for choking. Progressive weakness of the diaphragm and intercostals makes breathing more difficult.

Back 154

myasthenia gravis (MG) are

Front 155

Nursing care for patients with ALS should focus on

Back 155

supporting self-care abilities and family resources. Care activities include supporting nutrition, sleep, general health, and comfort. Ethical end-of-life issues have to be considered before the use of a gastrostomy tube or a ventilator. These efforts will prolong but not preserve the patient’s life. The family and the patient need to understand the nature and progress of the disease and make decisions before the patient’s inevitable decline.

Front 156

The five emergency interventions necessary when dealing with a potential spinal cord injury at the scene of the accident are as follows:

Back 156

Rapid assessment
Immobilization of the head and spine (assume injury until ruled out)
Extrication
Stabilization of life-threatening injuries
Transportation to an appropriate care facility

Front 157

Slow, squirming, writhing movement.

Back 157

athetosis:

SX: of basal ganglia damage

Front 158

Occurs when Cushing’s reflex is no longer effective;

consists of:
bradycardia
hypertension
bradypnea.

Back 158

Cushing’s triad:

Front 159

Cushing’s reflex:

Back 159

In the event of autoregulation failure, the brain’s attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial blood pressure to overcome rising intracranial pressure.

Front 160

The ability of the brain to automatically change the diameter of its blood vessels to maintain constant cerebral perfusion pressure.

Back 160

autoregulation:

Front 161

Back 161

Decebrate
Decorticate

Front 162

A vertical band of cells within each cerebral hemisphere that governs the voluntary movements of the body.

Back 162

motor cortex:

Front 163

A relationship illustrating that if there is a change in one cranial compartment, there must be reciprocal changes in the other compartments to maintain equilibrium by displacing or shifting the contents. If a compensatory change does not occur, intracranial pressure will rise, thus precipitating a number of changes.

Back 163

Monro-Kellie hypothesis:

Front 164

What role does the Thalmus play in sensation?

Back 164

The thalamus is a major receiving and transmitting center for the afferent sensory nerves and serves to integrate sensory impulses (except olfaction). It thereby plays a prominent role in conscious awareness of pain; recognition of variations in temperature and touch; sensation of movement; sensation of position; and recognition of the size, shape, and quality of objects.

Front 165

Immediate treatment of increased intracranial pressure is aimed at decreasing cerebral edema, lowering the volume of cerebrospinal fluid, or decreasing blood volume while maintaining cerebral perfusion. This involves ?

Back 165

administering osmotic diuretics (sometimes corticosteroids), restricting fluids, draining CSF, hyperventilating (with caution), controlling fever, and/or reducing cellular metabolic demands.

Front 166

The five main steps in a comprehensive neurological examination are

CCMSR (CHECK and C if MY SENSORYS are RIGHT)

Back 166

assessment of cerebral function
assessment of cranial nerve function
assessment of the motor system
assessment of the sensory system
assessment of reflexes.

Front 167

An X-ray of cerebral circulation taken after a contrast agent has been injected into a selected artery.

Back 167

cerebral angiogram

Front 168

Grafting tissue harvested from a donor.

Back 168

allograft:

Front 169

Grafting tissue harvested from the patient.

Back 169

autograft:

Front 170

A complication that occurs when bone loses its blood supply and dies; treatment may entail bone grafts, prosthetic replacement, or joint fusion.

Back 170

avascular necrosis of bone:

Front 171

Inflammation of the iris and ciliary body.

Back 171

iridocyclitis:

Front 172

Serum concentration of uric acid greater than 7mg/dL.

Back 172

hyperuricemia:

Front 173

Increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine.

Back 173

kyphosis:

Front 174

Also known as osteochondritis deformans juvenilis; a self-limiting disorder in which there is aseptic necrosis of the femoral head. Affects children between the ages of three and twelve.

Back 174

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease:


4 stages

Avascular-Femoral head becomes more dense with possible fracture of supporting bone

Fragmentation or Revascularization-Fragmentation and reabsorption of bone

Reparative-Reossification when new bone has regrown

Regernerative-Healing, when new bone reshapes

Front 175

Accumulations of sodium urate crystals.

Back 175

tophi

Front 176

Muscle contraction in which the length of the muscles remains constant, but the force generated by the muscles increases with no joint movement.

Back 176

isometric contraction:

Front 177

Muscle contraction characterized by shortening of the muscles with no increase in muscle tension and with joint movement.

Back 177

isotonic contraction:

Front 178

Isolation procedures are generally discussed in terms of what two tiers?

Back 178

Standard precautions and transmission-based precautions

Front 179

Nursing care for a patient with a stage 1 pressure ulcer should take into account that the ulcer

Back 179

will heal once pressure is removed

Front 180

Frostbite is a form of thermal tissue trauma. The nurse should know which of the following about immediate treatment of frostbite?

Back 180

Rewarming should be done in a warm tub of water

Front 181

In preoperative teaching for the geriatric patient, the nurse should consider

Back 181

that older adults continue to function and understand.

Front 182

A client with multiple sclerosis experiences nocturnal urinary incontinence. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

Back 182

Encourage the client to wear incontinence pads.

Front 183

A patient with myasthenia gravis is experiencing a myasthenic crisis. The nurse will expect which of the following to happen after the patient receives a dose of Tensilon IV?

Back 183

Muscle weakness will get better.

Front 184

Which of the following contributes to a cholinergic crisis in a patient with myasthenia gravis?

Back 184

Too much anticholinesterase medicine

Front 185

Osteoporosis, a metabolic bone disorder, is characterized by

Back 185

bone loss and deformity

Front 186

Older adults have an increased incidence of infections and diseases such as cancer. What is the most significant factor related to this increased mortality and morbidity?

Back 186

Decreased production of white blood cells

Front 187

A patient with hepatitis B is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse knows that

Back 187

one portal of entry is by needlestick.

Front 188

A patient is admitted to the nursing unit with mononucleosis. The nurse knows that

Back 188

the virus is transmitted by airborne droplets.

Front 189

In the case of an accidental fall with profuse bleeding of the leg, the first action that should be taken is to

Back 189

apply direct pressure to the bleeding area.

Front 190

A five-year-old child has been diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and the parents are very concerned about whether the child will be able to play and progress in school. The nurse can assist the family by discussing exercise plans. Which of the following would benefit the child?

Back 190

Encourage normal play and range-of-motion exercises when joints are not inflamed.

Front 191

When a patient is confined to bed rest, problems of immobility may develop. One problem associated with immobility is

Back 191

contractures

Front 192

Mr. Adams has just had surgery for hip joint replacement. He is at risk for joint displacement due to his existing conditions, which include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and obesity. The nurse should be concerned if he complains of

Back 192

abnormal motion (external or internal rotation of the joint).

Front 193

Tissue trauma produces an inflammatory reaction in the body regardless of the cause. All but which of the following are associated with the inflammatory response?

A. A chemotactic gradient is formed.
B. Blood vessels remain constricted.
C. Protein-rich exudates enter the injured area.
D. White blood cells enter the injured area.

Back 193

B. Blood vessels remain constricted.

Front 194

Stage 1 pressure ulcers may be assessed by which of the following parameters?

Back 194

Warmth, edema, and hardness

Front 195

A temperature elevation in the first twenty-four hours after surgery probably indicates which of the following:

Back 195

Atelectasis

Front 196

A patient who had abdominal surgery three days ago and has been receiving opioids for pain control (fifty milligrams of Demerol every four hours) is complaining of a distended abdomen and cramping gas pains. Her bowel sounds are hypoactive. The most immediate nursing action would be to

Back 196

assist the patient to ambulate in the hall.

Front 197

When caring for a patient with deep vein thrombosis who suddenly complains of chest pain, the nurse should do which of the following?

Back 197

Elevate the head of the bed and call the physician.

Front 198

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by

Back 198

a low pH of less than 7.4 and a low plasma bicarbonate.

Front 199

Which of the following topics would be a priority in teaching a patient who takes immunosuppression drugs for the management of multiple sclerosis?

Back 199

Stress management techniques

Front 200

The nurse should recognize that an early clinical sign of multiple sclerosis is

Back 200

weakness of the legs

Front 201

The most important nursing responsibility associated with administration of myasthenia gravis medications is

Back 201

giving the drugs on time and before activities.

Front 202

A client with myasthenia gravis has a very weak cough and impaired swallowing. To prevent respiratory complications, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Back 202

Assist the patient to a sitting position with head upright while eating.

Front 203

A patient has been discharged from the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball. The patient has a headache and no memory of the accident. There are no other neurological deficits. The nurse should instruct the patient and family to

Back 203

come back immediately if the patient cannot be awakened.

Front 204

As part of the neurological exam for a patient who is unconscious, the nurse tests the patient’s gag and swallow reflex to assess

Back 204

cranial nerves IX and X (glossopharyngeal and vagus).

Front 205

After two weeks in a rehabilitation unit, a patient with a T10 spinal cord injury becomes verbally abusive to the staff and demands to be transferred to a place where the staff knows what it is doing. The nurse should respond by

Back 205

accepting the client’s anger and asking for input into his plan of care.

Front 206

A nurse can best assist a patient with a chronic neurological problem by

Back 206

assisting the patient toward independence.

Front 207

The family members of a patient with tuberculosis need

Back 207

treatment with Isoniazid as a precaution.

Front 208

Passive immunity can be achieved through

Back 208

immunizations.

Front 209

If a preteen girl or boy begins to limp and experience pain, the child should be referred to a physician for possible diagnosis of hip problems. The nurse should be aware of common complaints that warrant referral or treatment. Which of the following sets of problems require referral?

Back 209

A limp and pain upon rising in the morning

Front 210

Mr. Smith, an overweight seventy-five-year-old, complains of intense pain in his big toe. He is diagnosed with gout and placed on Colchine. The nurse knows that part of patient teaching includes

Back 210

taking prescribed medication until pain subsides or GI symptoms begin.

Front 211

__________________ is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by variable weakness of voluntary muscles, which often improves with rest and worsens with activity. The condition is caused by an abnormal immune response.

Back 211

Myasthenia gravis

Front 212

A Pt taking Gantrisin (sulfisoxazole) may need to do what?

Back 212

Increase water intake up to 3,000-4,000 cc a day to prevent crystalluria

Front 213

Initial signs of Shigella are?

Back 213

fever, cramping and abominal pain

Front 214

Initial signs of Norwalk virus? (no walking if im not hungry and tired)

Back 214

Anorexia and Malaise

Front 215

Initial signs of Salmonella?

Back 215

N/V

Front 216

Initial signs of Mono?

Back 216

HA and Fatigue

Front 217

Pneumocystis (carinii) a PT with AIDS would present with

Back 217

non-productive cough
dyspnea
fever

Front 218

How does HSV-type 2 survive in the body?

Back 218

it invades nerve ganglia when its replication diminishes.

Front 219

Which health problem precedes Rheumatic Fever?

Back 219

streptococcal pharyngitis

Front 220

Which clinical manifestation is most indicative Lymes disease in children?

Back 220

ring shaped rash at site of the bite

Front 221

Which observation indicates a UTI in school aged children?

Back 221

enuresis (bedwetting)

Front 222

Which food is most likely the cause of Salmonella in a child?

1)hotdogs
2)cookie dough
3)tuna fish
4)milk shake

Back 222

Cookie dough consit of raw eggs,

Front 223

A positive response wo that test is the best indicator that a patient with HIV has TB?

Back 223

sputum specimen;
it is common for immunosuprresed patients to test positive to TB skin test.

pleural needle bio is too invasive

Front 224

Which vaccine is contraindicated in a child who is HIV positive?

Back 224

Rubella; which contains live attentuated viruses

Front 225

A precense of a diseased bone would make a pt more prone to what type of fracture?

Back 225

pathological fx

Front 226

which lab test results indicate positive diagnosis of SLE.

Back 226

positive antinuclear antibodies

Front 227

spiral fx of the humerus in a child may be indicative of?

Back 227

abuse

Front 228

most common fx in children

Back 228

oblique fx

Front 229

pt on prophylactic probencid-cholchicine regimen should be advised to ________________,?

Back 229

drink 8-10 glasses of water a day, to flush out the uric acid that is excreted due to the medication.

Front 230

visual interpretation resides in what part of the brain?

Back 230

Occipital

Front 231

Position sense resides in what part of the brain?

Back 231

Cerebellum

Front 232

judegment, personality and inhibitions reside in what part of the brain?

Back 232

frontal lobe

Front 233

position of a pt in the acutr stage of a CVA?

Back 233

lateral with head elevated

Front 234

How is the dx of Myathenia Gravis confirmed?

Back 234

Tensolin test

Front 235

sensory information and spatial orientation resides in what part of the brain?

Back 235

parietal

Front 236

hearing resides in what part of the brain?

Back 236

temporal

Front 237

complication of inhaled disflurane?

Back 237

dysrhythmias

Front 238

Pain associated woth duodenal ulcer?

Back 238

epigastric pain 1-2 hours after food ingestion

Front 239

Black stool in a burn pt is indicitive of?

Back 239

the development of Curlings Ulcer;an acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum resulting as a complication from severe burns

Front 240

What is a clinical manifestation of rubella (German measels)in the prodromal stage?

Back 240

mild conjuncivitis

Front 241

What is a clinical manifestation of the mumps in the prodromal stage?

Back 241

ear ache

Front 242

What is a clinical manifestation of chicken pox in the prodromal stage?

Back 242

papules

Front 243

What is a clinical manifestation of scarlet fever in the prodromal stage?

Back 243

abdominal pain`

Front 244

Symptoms of RSV are?

Back 244

URI
Mild fever
Resp distress w/tachypnea
paroxysmal cough
wheezing
moments of apnea

Front 245

What clinical manifestation is most indicitive of UTI?

Back 245

Frequency

Front 246

Which health problem may manifest if step pharyngitis goes untreated?

Back 246

glomerulonephritis

Front 247

A child exhibits white tongue, red papillea, diffuse rash under folds of the joints, what illness would you expect?

Back 247

scarlet fever

Front 248

An elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is typical in patients with?

Back 248

inflammatory connective tissue disease and inlammation casued by an infection

Front 249

What should a nurse do to assess the prescence of pain in a patient with carpal tunnel syndrome?

Back 249

tap lightly over the medial nerve (Tinles Sign)

Front 250

What complication is associated with Pagets disease of the bone?

Back 250

pathological fracture

Front 251

is a medical term for a type of partial blindness resulting in a loss of vision in the same visual field of both eyes.

Back 251

Homonymous hemianopsia, or homonymous hemianopia,

Front 252

Clinets reciving dopamine need continuous __________ monitoring for?

Back 252

Heart; dysrhythmias

Front 253

What nursing intervention is priority in a post surgical pt who has not regained conciousness, who recived general anesthesia?

Back 253

keep bed flat will limit orthostatic hypotension, maintain integrity of the surgical site and any tubes