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154 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Where are the effects focused when re-exposure to allergen triggers an allergic reaction?

Site which mast cell degranulation occures

What is characteristic of the preformed mediators in the immediate response?

Effects are:


short-lived


confined to vicinity of activated cell

What is characteristic about the late phase response?

Sustained effect


Still confined to site of initial allergen-triggered activation


Particular anatomy of site may determine readily if the inflammation can be resolved

What does the clinical syndrome produced by an allergic reaction depend on?

Amount of allergen-specific IgE present




Route by which allergen is introduced




Dose of allergen

What determines the type of IgE-mediated allergic reaction?

Dose & route of allergen administration

What are the 2 main anatomical distributions of mast cells?

Connective tissue mast cell (vascularized CT)


Mucosal mast cells (submucosal layers of gut)

All mast cells at anatomical spaces are loaded with IgE directed against specific allergens. The overall response to an allergen then depends on which _____ _____ are activated

Mast cells

Which MC do allergens in the bloodstream activate

CTMC resulting in systemic release of histamine & other mediators.

Which MC does subcutaneous administration of allergen (skin) activate?

Local CTMC, leading to local inflammation. Manifest as wheal-and-flare

In atopic individuals airborne allergens penetrating the skin may lead to atopic eczema.

True

What does an inhaled allergen induce?

Penetrates mucosal epithelial


Activates MMC mainly


Increased mucus secretion


Irritation in nasal mucosa


Allergic rhinitis/additional bronchoconstriction

What does an ingested allergen do?

Penetrates gut epithelium


Vomit due to smooth muscle contraction


Diarrhoea due to outflow of fluid across epi

What else can happen to food allergens?

Disseminated in the bloodstream


Widespread urticaria when allergen reaches skin, or eczema

Allergen introduced directly into the bloodstream can cause ____________

Anaphylaxis

What is a mild & extreme symptom of release into bloodstream?

Urticaria (hives)




Anaphylactic shock- potentially fatal

When is acute urticaria caused?

Ingested allergens released into the bloodstream & reaches skin


Histamine causes large itchy, red swelling all over the body

What does anaphyliactic shock lead to?

Widespread increase in vascular permeability – resulting from massive histamine release


Catastrophic loss of BP-> shock


Airway constriction-> difficulty breathing


Epiglottis swelling-> suffocation

What are some major causes of anaphylactic shock?

Wasp & bee stings


Allergic responses to foods e.g. peanuts

Anaphylactic shock can be rapidly fatal. What can reverse the histamine reaction?

Immediate epinephrine injection

What is another pharmaceutical way that anaphylactic shock can occur?

Drug is administered to people who have IgE specific antibodies for that drug

What is nature's way of inducing an anaphylactic shock?

Individuals allergic to insect venom from a bite

The most frequent reactions to drugs occur with _________ and its relatives.

Penicillin




Administration by injection can cause anaphylaxis & even death

What are inhaled allergens associated with?

Development of rhinitis & asthma

Most common route of entry

Respiratory

What is allergic rhinitis?

Atopic people have mild allergies to inhaled antigens, manifesting as sneezing and a runny nose

How does allergic rhinitis result?

MMC activation beneath the nasal epithelium by allergens (e.g. pollens that release their protein contents) which then diffuse across the mucous membranes of the nasal passages.

How does allergic conjunctivitis occur?

Airborne allergens deposited on the conjunctiva of the eye

Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis are commonly caused by _______________ allergens that are present only during certain seasons of the year.

Environmental




e.g. hay fever (seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis)- diverse causes- grass & tree pollens.

What causes some summer & autumnal symptoms of hay fever?

Weed pollen such as ragweed

What are perennial Ag?

Cat dander and house dust mites can cause year-round misery.

How is allergic asthma triggered?

Allergen-induced activation of submucosal mast cells in the lower airways

The same allergens that cause allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis commonly cause asthma attacks.

True

Allergic asthma can be life-threatening, but doesn't need immediate treatment

False

What happens within seconds after an allergen is inhaled?

Bronchial constriction


Increased secretion of fluid & mucus


Breathing difficult


Inhaled air trapped in lungs

What is an important feature of asthma?

Chronic inflammation of the airways

What characterises chronic inflammation of the airways?

Continued presence of increased numbers of TH2 lymphocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, and other leukocytes

What do immune cells cause?

Airway remodelling

What happens in airway remodelling?

Thickening of the airway walls due to hyperplasia & hypertrophy of the smooth muscle layer & mucous glands




Eventual development of fibrosis & permanent airway narrowing.

What happens in chronic asthmatics?

General hyperreactivity of the airways to non-immunological stimuli also develops.

What are some of these non-immunological stimuli?

Cigarette smoke


SO2

What else might exacerbate acute response in allergic asthma?

Viral infections


Induces Th2-dominated local response


Cytokine secretion by Th2 cells & MC


Augment eosinophil activation & degranulation


Chronic inflammation

Allergy to foods causes systemic reactions as well as symptoms limited to the gut

True

What % of the American & European populations does genuine food allergy affect?

1-4%

Which ubiquitous factors are often misnamed as allergy by the sufferer?

Food intolerance


Dislikes

Which food item causes allergy in ~ 1/4 of US/European citizens?

Peanuts, increasing incidents

What are the 2 types of allergic responses seen when an allergen is ingested?

Activation of MMC associated with GIT


CTMC in the dermis & subcutaenous tissues

What does activation of MMC associated with GIT cause?

Diarrhoea & vomitting

What can CTMC result in?

Urticaria


Ingestion of food allergen-> development of asthma & anaphylaxis with circulatory collapse

How can IgE-mediated allergic disease be treated?

Inhibit effector pathways that lead to symptoms or by desensitization techniques that aim in restoring tolerance to the Ag

What do antihistamines treat?

Symptoms only

What are corticosteroids?

General inflammatory drugs

Current drug treatments are largely ____________, than curative, often need to be taken for life.

Palliative

What is used to treat anaphylactic reactions?

Epinephrine

How is epinephrine useful?

Stimulates reformation of endothelial tight junctions


Promotes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle constriction


Stimulates the heart

What are inhaled bronchodilators?

Acts on β-adrenergic receptors


Relax constricted muscle are used to relieve acute asthma attacks

How do antihistamines reduce urticaria?

Blocking H1 receptors

How does urticaria result?

Release of histamine from MC & basophils

It is important to treat and prevent chronic inflammatory injury to tissues

True

What are corticosteroids?

Used to suppress chronic inflammatory changes seen in asthma, rhinitis & eczema


Topical or systemic

A means of regulating the T-cell response to the allergenic peptide antigen in an ________________ manner is needed.

Antigen-specific

What are the 2 treatments commonly used in clinical practice?

Desensitisation or specific allergen immunotherapy


Blockade of effector pathways

What does desensitization aim to restore?

Tolerance to the allergen by reducing its tendency to induce IgE production

What is the key to the desensitization?

Induction of T-cells secreting IL-10 and/ or TGFβ, which turn the response away from IgE.




e.g. beekeepers- naturally protected- IL-10 secreting T cells




Injection with increasing doses of allergen that gradually decreases IgE-dominated response

Which Ig is produced with increased IL-10?

IgG4, subtype selectively promoted by IL-10

What does allergen injection immunotherapy downregulate?

TH1- and TH2-driven hypersensitivity disease, with its induction of Treg-cells.

What is desensitization also associated with?

Reduction in the numbers of late-phase inflammatory cells at the site of allergic reaction

What is a complication of the desensitization?

Risk of inducing IgE-mediated allergic responses


e.g. treating severe reactions against peanut allergy

What is an alternative approach to desensitization?

Vaccination with peptides derived from common allergens.


Induces Treg cells which produce IL-10

IgE-mediated responses are not induced by peptides. Why?

Recognizes only intact allergens

Patients with different MHC class II molecules respond to different allergen-derived peptides.

True

What is another approach?

Give cytokines that promote Th1 type responses.

Which cytokines can reduce IL-4-stimulated IgE synthesis?

IFNγ, IFNα, and IL-12

Administration of which cytokine can cause adverse side effects?

IL-12

What is another target for therapeutic intervention?

High affinity IgE receptor

What will an effective competitor for IgE result in?

Prevents binding of IgE to surfaces of MC, basophil & eosinophils

What is Omalizumab?

Humanised anti-IgE monoclonal antibody




Binds to portion of IgE that ligates the high affinity IgE receptor

What does omalizumab bring about?

Decrease in IgE levels

What else is an effect?

Downregulation of the no. of high affinity IgEr on MC & basophil

What was observed of Omalizumab in experimentally inhaled allergen?

Ab blocks both immediate & late-phase responses

What is a potential target when blocking recruitment of eosinophils to sites of allergic inflammation?

CCR3

What does a blockade of IL-5 cause?

Production of eosinophils in BM & their exit into circulation is reduced

Innocuous antigens can cause Type __ hypersensitivity reactions in susceptible individuals by binding to the surfaces of circulating blood cells

II

What do antibiotics like penicillin & cephalosporin do to some cells?

Cause antibody-mediated destruction of RBC (haemolytic anaemia) or platelets (thrombocytopenia)

What happens in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Drug binds to the cell surface & serves as a target for anti-drug Ab that destroy the cell


Cell-bound Ab triggers clearance of cell from circulation

What is the predominant means by which the cell-bound Ab are cleared from circulation?

Tissue macrophages in the spleen which bear Fcγ receptors.

What causes systemic disease?

Immune-complex formation following administration of large quantities of poorly catabolised Ag

Type III hypersensitivity reactions can arise with soluble antigens

True

What is an immune complex?

Ag:Ab

Pathology of type III hypersensitivity

Immune complex at the tissues and sites

What happens to larger IC?

Aggregates fix C'


Readily cleared from circulation by the mononuclear phagocyte system

What happens to smaller IC?

Forms when Ag is in excess


Deposited in BV walls


Ligates FcR on leukocytes-> leukocyte activation & tissue injury

What is a local type III hypersensitivity reaction called?

Arthus reaction

How is an Arthus reaction triggered?

In the skin of sensitized individuals who possess IgG Ab against the sensitizing Ag

What happens when Ag is injected into skin?

Circulating IgG Ab diffuses into skin forms IC locally

What do these IC do?

Bind FcR (FcγRIII) on MC & other leukocytes


Local inflammatory response


Increased vascular permeability


Fluid enters inflammatory site from local BV

What other component of the IS do IC activate?

C', generating C5a which attracts cells to inflammatory site

What components are required for the experimental induction of an Arthus reaction in the lung by macrophages in the alveoli walls?

C5a & FcγRIII




Probably also required for reaction induced by MC in the skin & linings of joints (synovia)

Activation of FcγRIII on MC induces their degranulation

True

What is type III hypersensitivity known as?

Serum sickness

What does serum sickness result from?

Injection of large qualities of a poorly catabolised foreign Ag

Antiserum made by immunising _______ in pre-Ab era and used to treat ____________ ____________

horses; pneumococcal penumonia

What is antivenin?

Serum from horses immunised with snake venom

What happens with serum sickness?

Occurs after 7-10 days after injection of horse serum

What does the time period after which serum sickness sets in allow?

IgG-switched primary IR against foreign Ag

Clinical features of serum sickness

Chills


Fever


Rash (urticaria is a prominent feature)


Arthritis


Sometimes glomerulonephritis

How is MC degranulation triggered in this case?

Ligation of cell-surface FcγRIII by IgG-containing IC

What does the onset of serum sickness coincide with?

Development of Ab against soluble proteins in the foreign serum

What is the course of serum sickness?

Ab development


IC formation


Fix C', bind to & activate leukocytes bearing Fcr/C'R


Widespread tissue damage

What do the ICs cause?

Clearance of the foreign Ag, so serum sickness is usually a self-limiting disease

When is pathological IC deposition seen?

Ag persists as when an adaptive Ab response fails to clear the infecting pathogen


e.g. subacute bacterial endocarditis, chronic viral hepatitis

What happens in these pathological situations?

Pathogen continuously generates new Ag in presence of persistent Ab response, with formation of ICs


IC deposition within small BV, with consequent injury in many tissues & organs

IC disease also occurs when _________ allergens provoke IgG rather than IgE Ab responses

inhaled

What happens to a farmer's lungs who are repeatedly exposed to hay dust or mould spores?

IC forms in alveoli walls


Accumulation of fluid, protein & cells in alveolar wall


Blood-gas interchange slowed


Compromised lung function


Lung lining can be permanently damaged



Hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by ____________ & _________

Th1 cells; CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

What is type IV hypersensitivity aka?

Delayed-type hypersensitivity

How are DTH reactions mediated?

Ag-specific effector T cells

What is the prototype DTH reaction?

Tuberculin test

What is this reaction used determine in patients?

Whether person has been previously infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What happens in the Mantoux test?

Small amounts of tuberculin


Complex mixture of peptides & carbs derived from M. tuberculosis are injected intradermally

How would people have been previously exposed to it?

BCG vaccine (attenuated form of M. tuberculosis)


Infection

What happens in people who have been exposed to it after they receive the vaccine?

Local T cell mediated inflammatory reaction evolves over 24-72hrs

List some Ag that induce DTH?

Insect venom, mycobacterial proteins

What are the consequences of DTH?

Local skin swelling:


erythema


induration


cellular infiltrate


dermatitis

What type of Ag mediate contact hypersensitivity?

Absorbed into skin




Haptens:


poison ivy


DNFB




Small metal ions:


nickel & chromate

What are the consequences of CH?

Local epidermal reaction:


erythema


cellular infiltrate


vesicles


intraepidermal abscesses

What type of Ag mediate gluten-sensitive enteropathy (Celiac disease)?

Absorbed by the gut




Gliadin

What is the consequence of gluten-sensitive enteropathy?

Villous atrophy in small bowel malabsorption

Stages in DTH

Ag injected into subcutaneous tissue


Processed by local APC


Th1 effector cell recognizes Ag, releases cytokines which act on vascular endothelium


Phagocytes recruited


Visible lesion

Cytokines released & their effects

IFN-γ and TNF-β.


Stimulates expression of adhesion molecules on endothelium


Increase local blood vessel permeability


Allowing plasma and accessory cells to enter the site


Swelling

How long do these phases take?

Several hours


Fully developed response appears 24-28hrs

Chemokines are also secreted. What effects are caused?

Recruit macrophages to site of Ag deposition

IL-3/GM-CSF is also secreted. What effects are caused?

Stimulate monocyte production by bone marrow stem cells

How do Th1 cells activate macrophages?

Release of IFN-γ and TNF-α


Kill macrophages & other sensitive cells through the cell-surface expression of the Fas ligand

What is allergic contact dermatitis?

Immune-mediated condition caused by direct Ag contact with skin




Caused by activation of CD4/8 T cells, depending on how Ag is processed

Describe the typical Ag that cause cutaneous hypersensitivity responses?

Highly reactive small molecules that can easily penetrate intact skin, especially if they cause itching that leads to scratching

These chemicals then react with self proteins, creating ________________ complexes that can be processed to form _______________ complexes capable of being presented by MHC molecules and recognised by T cells as foreign antigens.

hapten:protein;hapten:peptide

What are the 2 phases to a cutaneous allergic response?

Sensitization


Elicitation

What happens in the sensitization phase?

Cutaneous Langerhans cells take up & process Ag


Migration to regional lymph nodes


T cells activated


Production of memory T cells, which end up in the dermis.

What happens in the elicitation phase?

Subsequent exposure to the sensitising chemical leads to Ag presentation to memory T cells in dermis, with the release of T-cell cytokines such as IFNγ and IL-17.

What does the release of cytokines & Ag presentation lead to?

Stimulates the keratinocytes of the epidermis to release cytokines & chemokines which enhance the inflammatory response by inducing the migration of monocytes into the lesion and their maturation into macrophages & by attracting more T cells

What causes the rash produced by poison ivy?

CD8 T cell response to a mixture of pentadecacatechols in the plant.

Pentadecacatechols

Lipid-soluble chemicals that cross the cell membrane & modify intracellular proteins

What happens to the modified proteins?

Generates modified peptides within cytosol


Translocation to ER


Delivered to cell surface-bound to MHC Class I


CD8+ recognizes peptide


Damage caused either by killing it or secreting cytokines like IFNγ.

Coeliac disease has the features of both an __________ ___________ & ______________________

Allergic response; autoimmunity

Coeliac disease

Chronic condition of the upper small intestine caused by an IR directed at fluten

What is gluten?

Complex of proteins present in wheat, oats & barley

What does elimination of gluten from the diet do?

Restore normal gut function

What is coeliac disease characterised by?

Loss of villi formed by the intestinal epithelium (a condition termed villous atrophy)


Increase in the size of the sites in which epithelial cells are renewed (crypt hyperplasia).

What do these abnormal changes result in?

Mature epithelial cells that cover the villi which normally absorb & digest food


Severe inflammation of the intestinal wall


Increased no. of T cells, macrophages & plasma cells in the lamina propria


Increased no. of lymphocytes in the epithelial layer

Does coeliac disease show an extremely strong genetic predisposition?

Yes


More than 95% of patients expressing the HLA-DQ2 class II MHC allele

Most individuals expressing HLA-DQ2 do not develop coeliac disease despite the almost universal presence of gluten in the Western diet. What does this mean?

Other genetic factors must make important contributions to susceptibility.

Autoimmunity features are detected in coeliac disease

True

What are the autoantibodies directed against in all victims?

Tissue transglutaminase

Is there evidence that these autoantibodies contribute to tissue damage?

No