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85 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
_____enables the body to respond to specific microbial pathogens
acquired immunity
What are the three main functions of acquired immunity?
- recognition of a specific pathogen
- discrimination of pathogens from body tissues
- implementation of functions to eliminate pathogens
What are the four types of acquired immunity?
- Naturally acquired passive immunity or congenital immunity
- artificially acquired passive immunity
- Naturally acquired active immunity
- artificially acquired active immunity
Passive immunity develops when antibodies from an _______ enter the body--intentionally or unintentionally.
outside source

Antibiotics would protect you for a short period of time. Won't necessarily gain memory cells to protect you next time.
Antibodies that enter the body unintentionally from mother give rise to _______
nautrally acquired passive immunity
______ can cross placenta and umbilical chord and provide temporary immunity.
IgG- gamma globulin
____ and subsequent breast milk (predominantly IgA, though some IgG and IgM) can also remain for 3-6 months after a child is born until child's immune system is working fully.
_______ is what happens when there is an intentional injection of pooled serum (blood fraction enriched in gamma globulin antibodies) from an immune individual
artificially acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired passive immunity is _____ but provides immediate protection against disease
Antiserum/hyperimmune serum
higher than normal levels of a specific antibody
prophylactic serum
serum used to prevent disease
therapeutic serum
serum used in therapy for established disease
serum sickness
patient receiving serum injuections recognizes serum as foreign- hives, labored breathing, swollen joints
Active immunity develops memory cells so that the next time you get the disease, you have the memory to combat pathogens. Active immunity develops when immune system responds to antigens with ______.
specific immune response

-exposure to antigens may be intentional or unintentional
Naturally acquired Active Immunity follows _____.

memory cells remain active after first exposure and mount a secondary/anamnestic response upon re-exposure to the same antigen
artificially acquired active immunity is an _____ exposure to antigens, otherwise known as ____
what are the four types of vaccines?
- living attenuated microbes
- 'dead' microbes
- virulence components of pathogens
- DNA vaccines
Living attenuated microbes are alive but have ______
lost the ability to cause disease
Give three examples of living attenuated microbes
sabin oral polio

chickenpox (varicella)

Dead microbes have ________ but are still able to stimulate immune response
lost ability to multiply
Give four examples of 'dead' microbes
salk polio


Hep A

virulence components of pathogens are ______, but are still able to stimulate immune response
single polysaccharide or protein
Give two examples virulence componenets of pathogens
capsular polysaccharide (pertussis)

formaldehyde-inactivated toxin=toxoid (tetanus)
DNA vaccines have ______ or ______ encoding antigens
DNA fragments
How are DNA vaccines delivered? (3 ways)
nasal spray

injection into muscle/vein

gene gun- gold beads coated with DNA fired at high velocity into cytoplasm of cells
DNA vaccines for____and ____ are in experimental stages
What vaccination is there that fights 3 different diseases?
What does DTaP stand for?
D= diptheria
T= tetanus
aP= acellular pertussis (cell doesn't exist anymore. just take polysaccharide)

tetanus & diptheria = toxoid
Vaccine nomenclature.
First-generation vaccine.
Contains whole microbe

-living attenuated microbes OR dead microbes
Second-generation vaccine
Subunit vaccine

Third-generation vaccine
Synthetic vaccine

- DNA vaccine
Booster immunizations stimulate memory cells/ ______ response
Give an example of a booster imunization
Most vaccines are very safe, but some have side effects. Who can't have the flu vaccine?
not for those allergic to eggs because the vaccine is cultured on albumin
Who is not reccomened to take the smallpox vaccine?
young children
MMR stands for what?
MMR (mumps, measles, rubella)has no evidence to support connection to ____
What preservative is removed from all vaccines?
thimerosal (contains mercury)
Why is the best defense vaccination?
the risk of disease is much worse
Serological Reactions are antigen-antibody reactions which can be used for _____ and ______ or ______
diagnosis detection of pathogens or products of pathogens
What are serological reactions usually done with?
antigen, serum sample and indicator system
What are the five characteristics of serological reactions?
inhibition, neutralization, precipitation, agglutination, flocculation
inhibition. antibodies react with _____ at the viral surface and prevent ______
the viral attachment to cells
_____ is a type of serological reaction where antigens (usually a toxin) and antibodies neutralize each other
What is used as an indicator for neutralization?
an animal can detect if there is a pathogen. is it alive or dead?
Give an example of a neutralizatioin reaction.
detection of botox in food
In the detection of botox in food example, if the sample contains botox, it will kill the animal when injected. If the sample is mixed with botox antitoxin, the antitoxin will ____ and the animal ____(lives or dies?)
neutralize the botox

In the detection of botox in food example, if the sample is mixed with botox antitoxin, and kills the animal, then what does this indicate?
the toxin in question was made by some other organism. not botox!
Precipitation is another serological reaction. What happens in this reaction?
Reactions of thousands of antigen and antibodies cross-linked into a lattice so big, precipitate can be seen.
Precipitation is performed in _____ or _____
fluid media or gels
In agglutination, antibodies react with antigen on ______
cell surface
When antibodies react with antigen on cell surface, _____ or ______ occurs.
______ for typhoid fever looks for agglutination of Salmonella typhi
Widal Test
Widal Test for typhoid fever looks for agglutination of _____
Salmonella typhi
If there is a positive reaction for _______, then clumping of red blood cells occurs
What does a glass microscope slide look like on a negative test for agglutination?
Uniformly smooth appearance of liquid indicates lack of antigen-antibody reaction
What does a glass microscope slide look like on a positvie test for agglutination?
Massive clumping indicates antigen-antibody reaction
Flocculations combines _____ and _____
precipitation and agglutination
Flocculations combines precipitation and agglutination. Antigen exists in _____ form, reacts with antibodies to make _____
particulate form
large aggregates
What does VDRL stand for?
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
VDRL is a test for ___
In the VDRL test for wyphilis, the antigen is _____, an alcoholic extract of beef heart that forms a milky white precipitate in buffer
Add serum to cardiolipin. If syphilis antibodies are present in the serum sample, then antibodies and precipitate make _____
large aggregates=flocculation
What does ELISA stand for?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
In the ELISA, beads or plate is coated with ______ and then incubated with _____

In the ELISA, beads or plate is coated with HIV Ag and then incubated with serum. If Antibody is present in serum, _____
binding occurs
The binding detected by the antiglobulin in the ELISA is linked to the enzyme______
horseradish peroxidase
What is the product of the ELISA test?
Colorimetric reaction product.

(substrate altered to yellow-orange color)
Monoclonal Antibodies are produced from _______
hybridomas (hybrid myeloma)
Hybridomas make ______
only one type of antibody
In the process of making monoclonal antibodies, inject a mice with antigens. Remove _____ from mouse spleen
plasma cell
In the process of making monoclonal antibodies, inject a mice with antigens. Remove plasma cell from mouse spleen. Fuse plasma cell with _____ (cancerous antibody-secreting cell) to form _______
myeloma cell

What is a myeloma cell?
a cancerous antibody-secreting cell
Hybridoma is immortal, produces ______ against original antigen
single antibody
Fluorescent Antibody Detection is the detection of _______ through the use of fluorescent dye
Antigen-Antibody interaction
Fluorescent antibody detection is the detection of antigen-antibody interaction through the use of fluorescent dye called ____
In the direct method of fluorescent antibody detection, the dye is linked directly to ____
specific antibody
In the indirect method of fluorescent antibody detection, fluorescein is linked to _____
antiglobulin (antibodies that react with human antibodies)
In the indirect method of fluorescent antibody detection, it detects the presence of ______
specific antibodies in serum

(Ex: syphilis antibody)
Describe the indirect method of fluorescent antibody detection
On a bacterium, patient's serum with antibodies is added. Fluorescein antibody then reacts with human immunoglobin and attaches to it. With UV light, a glow can be seen (fluorescence)
One new test for the identification of an organism and its antigens is PCR. What is a gene probe?
A gene probe is a relatively small, single-stranded DNA segment that can hunt for a complementary fragment of DNA within a morass of cellular material, much like a right hand searching for a left hand. When the probe locates its complementary fragment, it emits a signal such as a pulse of radioactivity. If the complementary fragment cannot be found, then no signal is sent.
PCR takes a segment of target DNA and reproduces it to a billion copies in a few short hours. What are the four steps to PCR?
- primers to ends of target sequence
- anneal
- extend
- Denature

do this over and over
One place where gene probes and PCR have been useful is in the detection of ____
In the detection of HIV using gene probes and PCR, ______ are obtained from the patient and distrupted to obtain the cellular DNA. The DNA then is amplified by PCR and the gene probe is added. The probe is a segment of DNA that complements the DNA in the provirus synthesized from the genome of HIV.
If the person is infected with HIV, the probe will locate the ____, bind to it, and emit radioactivity. An accumulation of radioactivity thus constitutes a positive test. Because the test identifies viral DNA rather than viral antibodies, the physician can be more confident of the patient's health status.
proviral DNA