Large Animal Msk

Front 1

How much bone loss to detect lysis?

Back 1

--30-50%

Front 2

Horses do not make a lot of ______, so they have less ______ reaction and ______.

Back 2

--bone

--periosteal rxn, callus

Front 3

Markers are always _____ or _____.

Back 3

Lateral or dorsal

Front 4

The most superimpositon of structures is always?

Back 4

--in direction of x-ray beam

Front 5

Flexed lateromedial views are important for evaluating ____ ____.

Back 5

joint margins

Front 6

Where are four lesion locations?

Back 6

intracapsular

periarticular

periosteal

extracapsular

Front 7

What are the Roentgen signs?

Back 7

size

shape

location

margin

number

opacity

Front 8

Aggressive bone lesion features? (5)

Back 8

lysis

cortical destruction

periosteal proliferation

long zone of transition

soft tissue swelling

Front 9

Benign bone lesion features?

Back 9

well-defined margins

periarticular bony proliferation

enthesophytes

Front 10

Osteochondrosis/OCD is caused by?

Back 10

failure of endochondral ossification (less bone)

Front 11

Is osteochondrosis inflammatory?

Back 11

not inflammatory!

Front 12

OCD most commonly affects _____, _____, ______ in horse.

Back 12

tarsus

stifle

fetlock

Front 13

What is a DIRT lesion?

Back 13

OCD on distal intermediate ridge of tibia

Front 14

What are the two best views of DIRT?

Back 14

lateromedial

DMPLO

Front 15

If DIRT lesion is present, what should you do?

Back 15

radiograph the other tarsus (often bilateral)

Front 16

Which parts of the stifle are most often affected by OCD?

Back 16

lateral trochlear ridge

medial femoral condyle

Front 17

OCD in the stifle is often accompanied by what lesion?

Back 17

subchondral cyst

Front 18

OCD predisposes for what disease later in life?

Back 18

osteoarthritis

Front 19

Osteomyelitis is a _______, _______ bone lesion.

Back 19

polyostotic, aggressive

Front 20

Osteomyelitis occurs frequently in ______ animals, often via _____ ____ from another infection.

Back 20

young animals

hematogenous spread

Front 21

Osteomyelitis in mature animals is often secondary to _____, ______.

Back 21

trauma, wounds

Front 22

What is 'bone spavin'?

Back 22

distal tarsal osteoarthritis

Front 23

Osteoarthritis is an _______ process for many ______ diseases.

Back 23

endstage process, underlying diseases

Front 24

Osteoarthritis is a chronic, ______, ______ disease.

Back 24

chronic, progressive, degenerative

Front 25

OCD, septic arthritis, articular fractures, poor conformation, and ligamentous instability can all cause?

Back 25

--osteoarthritis

Front 26

Characteristics of OA? (4)

Back 26

periarticular bony proliferation (osteophytes)

well-defined margins

narrow joint space

subchondral bone sclerosis

Front 27

Laminitis disease process?

Back 27

--inflammation/ischemia to hoof wall

--loss of interdigitation of epidermal and dermal laminae

Front 28

Laminitis is most often secondary to ______ _____ or ______ _____.

Back 28

--systemic illness (sepsis, vasculitis)

--concussive injury (fracture in contra hoof)

Front 29

Which conditions predispose to laminitis?

Back 29

--obesity, endocrinopathy, corticosteroid admin.

Front 30

Developmental/acute laminitis is visible on rads. T/F?

Back 30

false--acute laminitis is NOT visible on rads

Front 31

Chronic laminitis is visible on rads. T/F?

Back 31

true--chronic laminitis is visible on rads

Front 32

What are the radiographic signs of laminitis?

Back 32

--displaced distal phalanx, rotation and sinking

Front 33

Define rotation. How is this detected on rads?

Back 33

palmar deviation of distal phalanx

dorsal hoof wall will be thicker distally than proximally

Front 34

Define sinking. How is this detected on rads?

Back 34

dorsal hoof wall >20mm thickness (uniform)

Front 35

What is founder distance?

Back 35

distance between extensor process and coronary band.

Front 36

Why might a secondary infection occur with laminitis?

Back 36

If line of epidural/dural laminae separation extends to the sole, could allow infection.

Front 37

Chronic remodeling due to laminitis. What does this look like?

Back 37

new bone formation along dorsal aspect of P3

mild, persistent rotation of P3

"ski-tip"

Front 38

What is reverse inclination?

Back 38

P3 palmar processes are closer to the sole than tip of P3. Long toe, low heel.

Front 39

Which disease is indicated if lameness substantially improves with palmar digital nerve block?

Back 39

navicular bone disease

Front 40

Navicular bone = ______ sesamoid bone

Back 40

distal sesamoid bone

Front 41

Which radiographic view is best for diagnosis of navicular disease? Which is second best?

Back 41

--skyline view

palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique

--dorso-65-proximal to palmarodistal oblique

Front 42

What are the radiographic signs of navicular bone disease?

Back 42

loss of corticomedullary definition due to medullary sclerosis, irregular margins, lucency of flexor cortex, enlarged synovial invaginations

Front 43

How do synovial invaginations change with navicular disease?

Back 43

increased size/number, abnormal shape (lollipops)

Front 44

Navicular disease prognosis is guarded if this occurs.

Back 44

Mineralization of DDF tendon due to damage/necrosis.

Front 45

Pedal osteitis is characterized by?

Back 45

inflammation of distal phalanx (septic or aseptic)

Front 46

What is the best view for pedal osteitis complex?

Back 46

dorso-65-proximal to palmarodistal oblique

Front 47

Radiographic signs of pedal osteitis complex?

Back 47

irregular solar margin, increased number of vascular channels, demineralization, +/- circular lucencies

Front 48

Septic pedal osteitis is often secondary to?

Back 48

penetrating wound, solar abscess

Front 49

Radiographic signs of septic pedal osteitis?

Back 49

focal, poorly defined demineralization of solar margin, gas within hoof wall, reduced bone opacity, wide vascular channels

Front 50

May have _____ secondary to sole abscess/septic pedal osteitis.

Back 50

laminitis

Front 51

Keratoma is the most _____ _____ of the distal phalanx. It is ____ _____.

Back 51

--most common tumor

--not aggressive

Front 52

What are the radiographic signs of keratoma?

Back 52

smooth, well-defined bone resorption

no new bone production

progressive (unlike septic pedal osteitis)

Front 53

Why are keratoma and septic pedal osteitis sometimes difficult to differentiate?

Back 53

keratoma can become secondarily infected

Front 54

Rank in order of frequency: septic osteitis, soft tissue sole infection, keratoma

Back 54

soft tissue sole infection > septic osteitis > keratoma

Front 55

Swelling within joint capsule is usually _____, while swelling outside joint capsule is usually ______.

Back 55

within joint capsule: circumferential

outside: asymmetric

Front 56

Differential diagnoses for swelling within joint capsule? (4)

Back 56

--increased fluid due to septic arthritis, hemarthrosis, synovitis

--synovial proliferation

--osteoarthrosis

--osteochondrosis

Front 57

Differential diagnoses for swelling outside of joint capsule?

Back 57

--diffuse: edema, cellulitis, hemorrhage

--localized: hematoma, abscess, contusion

Front 58

What is villonodular synovitis?

Back 58

chronic proliferative synovitis

proliferation of synovial pad due to repetitive injury

Front 59

Villonodular synovitis causes ______ swelling, _____ of canon bone. Most frequently affects which joint?

Back 59

intracapsular swelling, erosion of canon bone

fetlock (metacarpophalangeal)

Front 60

Both OCD and OA cause _______ swelling.

Back 60

intracapsular

Front 61

Septic arthritis should show what kind of radiographic signs?

Back 61

intracapsular swelling WITHOUT bone lesion

circumferential swelling

well-defined articular surfaces

may see gas-fluid interface

Front 62

Intracapsular swelling with bone lesion indicates?

Back 62

osteomyelitis

Front 63

Distal tarsal osteoarthrosis (bone spavin) affects which joints?

Back 63

distal intertarsal, tarsometatarsal

Front 64

Distal tarsal osteoarthrosis is often _____.

Back 64

bilateral

Front 65

What are the radiographic signs of distal tarsal osteoarthrosis?

Back 65

periarticular osteophytes

joint space narrowing

subchondral bone lysis (eburnation)

variable ankyloses (jt fusion)

loss of corticomedullary definition (sclerosis)

small amnt. ST swelling

Front 66

Aseptic physitis causes ______ swelling.

Back 66

--extracapsular swelling

Front 67

Aseptic physitis (epiphysitis) is non _____ and non ______ disease likey caused by _____ imbalances.

Back 67

non-infectious, non-inflammatory

nutritional imbalances

Front 68

Aseptic physitis (epiphysitis) causes ______ defects, and occurs in horses aged ___ - ___ __.

Back 68

osteochondral defects

4-8 mo (maybe older)

Front 69

Radiographic signs of aseptic physitis?

Back 69

wide physis, irregular margins, usually asymmetrical, sclerosis

Front 70

Aseptic physitis affects one physis or more than one? Treatment?

Back 70

--can affect one, or more than one physis

--self-limiting disease, correct nutritional imbalances, pain control

Front 71

What is septic physitis?

Back 71

osteomyelitis at a physis >> aggressive!

Front 72

Septic physitis is often secondary to _____, and thus is likely to affect ______ _____. It is predisposed to the metaphysis due to ____ ____ ____.

Back 72

sepsis, multiple physes

low blood flow

Front 73

What are fracture types? What do they look like?

Back 73

acute/traumatic--sharp margins

chronic/healing--rounded, well-defined margins

pathologic--poorly-defined margins

Front 74

What are the fracture descriptors? (6)

Back 74

location, sshape, complete/incomplete, displacement, open/closed, articular vs. non-articular

Front 75

Common facture locations in horses?

Back 75

digits

3rd metatarsal/metacarpal

tibia

proximal sesamoid bone

distal phalanx

Front 76

Distal phalanx fracture is usually _____, but can be secondary to _____ _____ _____, or _______.

Back 76

--traumatic

septic pedal osteitis, laminitis

Front 77

Types of distal phalanx fracture? (7)

Back 77

1. non-articular fracture of palmar process

2. articular fracture of palmar process

3. articular fracture, midsagittal (midline)

4. articular fracture, extensor process

5. articular fracture, comminuted

6. solar margin fracture (MOST COMMON)

7. foal, palmar process

Front 78

What is the most common type of distal phalanx fracture? It can happen secondary to?

Back 78

type 6, solar margin fracture

secondary to laminitis

Front 79

Why are distal phalanx fractures difficult to diagnose?

Back 79

minimal displacement, limited periosteum, often require multiple views/obliques

Front 80

Proximal sesamoid fracture prognosis depends on? Which fracture has the best prognosis?

Back 80

prognosis depends on suspensory ligament branches

apical fracture has best prognosis

Front 81

What are the most common types of proximal sesamoid fractures?

Back 81

apical (good prognosis)

mid-body, basilar (guarded prognosis)

Front 82

Fragments adj. to proximal sesamoid bone might be?

Back 82

osteochondral fragment

avulsion of palmar annular ligament

chip fractures

proximal sesamoid bone fracture

Front 83

____ fractures are common in the fetlock and carpus.

Back 83

chip fractures

Front 84

____ fractures are common in the carpus, especially _____ carpal bone.

Back 84

slab fractures

3rd carpal bone

Front 85

What are slab fractures caused by?

Back 85

hyperextension of joint, secondary remodeling, repetitive stress

Front 86

_____ views are especially useful for diagnosis of slab fracture.

Back 86

flexed views

Front 87

If fracture is visible on more than one view, what does this indicate?

Back 87

more than one fracture!

Front 88

What is nuclear scintigraphy used for?

Back 88

assess bone activity

Front 89

Lesions with high bone activity?

Back 89

high activity: osteomyelitis and other aggressive bone lesions, acute fractures

Front 90

Lesions with low/moderate bone activity?

Back 90

osteoarthrosis, osteochondrosis, chronic/healing fractures

Front 91

Condylar metacarpal fractures are common in ____, _____ thoroughbreds.

Back 91

young, racing thoroughbreds

Front 92

All condylar metacarpal/metatarsal fractures have an ______ component.

Back 92

articular

Front 93

What is periostitis? What does this cause?

Back 93

inflammation of periosteum

bone makes bone (but no aggressive lesion)

Front 94

What are bucked shins? What is this disease process?

Back 94

increased thickness of dorsal cortex of cannon bone, may see microfractures

caused by periostitis

Front 95

What are periostitis splints? Why is this problematic?

Back 95

trauma to interosseous ligament causes periostitis >> enthesopathy between bones

large amount of bone production can impinge on suspensory ligament.

Front 96

Two disease processes that can impinge suspensory ligament.

Back 96

proximal sesamoid bone fractures

periostitis splints

Front 97

Radiographic signs of periostitis splints?

Back 97

large amount of bone bridging interosseous space between 3rd and 4th metatarsal bones, well-defined margins

Front 98

Sequestration can occur secondarily to?

Back 98

bone trauma/fracture complication

osteomyelitis

ST wounds that extend to bone

Front 99

What is a sequestrum? What is it surrounded by?

Back 99

avascular portion of bone, reservoir for infection

surrounded by necrotic tissue/pus and periosteal new bone

Front 100

Cuboidal bone hypoplasia predisposes animals to?

Back 100

angular limb deformity, jt collapse/fractures

Front 101

What is cuboidal bone hypoplasia?

Back 101

failure in appropriate ossification

Front 102

What are the radiographic signs of cuboidal bone hypoplasia?

Back 102

small, rounded cuboidal bones

increased joint space

Front 103

Tarsal bone collapse occurs in? What are the radiographic signs? Unilateral or bilateral?

Back 103

--neonatal foals to young adult horses

--excessive flexion/tarsal valgus

--central/third tarsal bones wedge shaped/fragments

--narrow jt. spaces

--intracapsular swelling

--usually bilateral

Front 104

Tarsal bone collapse is usually secondary to? What occurs chronicially?

Back 104

cuboidal bone hypoplasia, osteomyelitis

osteoarthrosis, joint ankylosis

Front 105

Angular limb deformity can be ____ or _____. Which is more common?

Back 105

valgus or varus

valgus is more common

Front 106

Angular limb deformity can occur secondarily to?

Back 106

cuboidal bone hypoplasia

asymmetrical growth of epiphysis/metaphysis

laxity of ST structures

excessive fractures

Salter Harris fractures

poor conformation

nutritional imbalance

Front 107

soft tissue mineralization of hoof cartilages are often ______, but may ______ and cause _____.

Back 107

often incidental

may fracture and cause lameness

Front 108

Mineralization of hoof cartilages occurs commonly in?

Back 108

draft horses