• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/112

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

112 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the most common agent of bovine pyelonephritis?
Corynebacterium renale
What is the most common agent(s) of porcine pyelonephritis
Corynebacterium renale
Corynebacterium suis
What is the drug of choice for bovine pyelonephritis?
procaine penicillin
Risk factors for large animal urolithiasis?
high concentrates, phosphorous, silica or oxalate
vitamin A deficiency
excess estrogen
True/False. In the case of urolithiasis and blockage, cattle and pigs may vocalize.
False. Sheep and goats.
What drug can be given to cattle with partial urinary obstruction?
Aminopromazine
Which leptospira serovars are implicated in bovine renal disease (in U.S.)?
L. pomona
L. hardjo bovis
What are signs of leptospirosis?
fever
anemia and hemoglobinuria, jaundice
muscle weakness
yellow, clotted, stringy milk
abortion
How to deal with chronic leptospiral infection?
vaccination and strategic use of abx at dry-off can clear a herd by 14 months
True/False. Leptospirosis vaccination at dry-off can eliminate carrier state.
True. Can be used to treat as well.
True/False. Fibropapillomas are common in middle aged bulls.
False. Young bulls 1-2 years old.
True/False. In cases of preputial laceration complex, surgery should be undertaken immediately to avoid phimosis, paraphimosis and adhesions.
False. Should wait 8-10 days.
How long is sperm viable after vasectomy, epididyectomy?
30 days
When is castration of bulls typically done?
6-10 weeks
What do you vaccinate for if using emasculator for castration > 10 weeks?
blackleg
malignant edema
When is the easiest time to castrate pigs?
< 3 weeks
When are lamb rams castrated?
first 12 hours of life
When can rubber rings be used for ram lamb castration?
First week of life only
True/False. Tetanus prophylaxis is not necessary following bovine C-section.
True.
most common cause for absence of lung tones in the bovine?
penumothorax
When treating for BRD, what should look for if treatment is successful?
Drop in temp 1-2 degrees by 24-48 hours.
This agent is part of Enzootic Calf Pneumonia
Pasteurella Multocida
Which respiratory infectious agents produce abscesses?
Histophilus somni
Arcanobacter pyogenes
Calves are most likely to get mycoplasma infections from what?
mastitic cow
A cow with respiratory disease presents with white plaques on her nose.
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
True/False. Bovine viral diarrhea is often a primary cause of respiratory disease in cows.
False. Can cause profound immunosuppression.
2 weeks after being turned out on pasture this spring, several cows presen acutely with profound dyspnea.
Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema (fog fever)
What can be used to prevent fog fever in cows on lush pasture?
Ionophores
What can be underlying causes for calves and adults with inhalation pneumonia?
calves- white muscle diease
adults- milk fever
What are the type of signs in calves and adult cows of tuberculosis?
calves- GI
adults- coughing
True/False. Tuberculosis testing in cows is very sensitive, but not very specific.
False. Not 100% sensitive, but very specific.
A cow tests positive for tuberculosis. What do you do?
Call state vet- conduct cervical test
How to calculate millking pulsator and system needs?
(3*# of units + 24)*1.2
What type of vacuum regulator is considered most appropriate?
modern diaphragm
What is a typical pulsation rate and pulsation ratio?
60/min
60:40
name the 3 contagious agents of mastitis
strep agalactiae
staph aureus
mycoplasma
A cow with elevated SCC but no clinical signs is culture and comes back as coagulase-negative staph. What to check next?
Milking equipment. Staph is normal microflora, introduced by teat injury or irritation.
Which agent of mastitis is harbored in wood shavings?
Klebsiella
Which infectious mastitis agents cause serum-like milk?
Coliforms
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
For which form of mastitis is banamine an appropriate therapy?
Coliform mastitis- has anti-LPS activity
Arcanobacter pyogenes
Summer mastitis
Respiratory abscesses
valvular endocarditis
Which mastitis agent causes "toothpaste" milk?
Arcanobacter pyogenes
True/False. Iodine-based dips are appropriate for the control of Pseudomonas aeruginosa mastitis.
False.
Which forms of mastitis may be accompanied by fever?
Staph aureus
Coliform
Yeast
Arcanobacter pyogenes
Culture of the bulk tank reveals Corynebacterium bovis. What is your plan of action?
Review dipping technique. This is not a pathogen, but indicates poor dipping.
A cow has scabs on her udder elevated by granulation tissue. Worker's have similar lesions on their hands. What is going on?
Pseudocowpox
Which teat lesion causing agent is most common in recently fresh first calf heifers in fall and winter?
Herpes mammilitis
What are the differential diagnoses for mastitis?
udder edema
hemorrhage
breakdown of suspensory apparatus
stray voltage
What is the testing protocol if a:
a) contagious
b) environmental
agent is suspected?
contagious- whole herd culturing
environmental- sample cows that are clinically ill
Milk with increased conductivity is indicative of what?
higher sodium and cholride in the milk, result of mastitis
What are the benefits of forestripping the udder?
strong signal for milk letdown
removes poorest quality milk
identify mastitis
decrease new infection by 12%
more milk!
what are the minimum requirements for teat dipping?
75% coverage for at least 30 seconds
How much time between stripping and attachment of milk machine?
60 seconds
You're concerned about decreased efficiency and teat lesions due to overmilking. What can you check?
Should be able to strip 250 ml
What is the proper bore size for the milk liner?
3/4" (dime size)
What is the proper diameter for the milk hose?
5/8"
True/False. Antimicrobial resistance is not a big factor in treating mastitis.
True.
Signs of sepsis in the camelid?
hypothermia
tachypnea
tachycardia
What amount of IgG is consistent with successful colostrum administration in the camelid?
> 10mg/ml
When does maternal IgG decline in the camelid?
2-5 weeks
A neonatal camelid presents with depression of reflexes, dullness, difficulty maintaining breathing, seizures, azotemia but NO fever.
Perinatal Asphyxia Syndrome
What is the most common congenital disorder in the camelid?
VSD
True/False. The cytopathic strain of BVDV is what we are most concerned about in camelids.
False- noncytopathic strain
When can chronic infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus occur in a camelid?
Dam infected later in pregnancy or in neonate shortly after birth
Signs of persistent infection in camelid with bovine viral diarrhea virus.
unthrifty
longer primary fibers
will not have antibodies against BVD virus
You diagnose a sick camelid with BVD virus. What can you do to determine if this is a transient vs chronic infection?
Retest in 3 weeks, a transient infection should have cleared.
What concurrent features can be seen in calves with congenital heart defects?
wry tail
microphthalmia
What are three things that can cause bradycardia in the cow?
vagal indigestion
pituitary abscess
botulism
What is bradycardia in a sick cow?
60 bpm
True/False. There is normally no pulsation in the mammary vein.
True.
When is heart sound intensity increased in bovines?
endocarditis
displacement toward body wall
early shock
What type of arrhythmia in the cow?
A fib
Which agents typically cause infectious cardiomyositis in the cow?
histophilus somnus
arcanobacterium pyogenes
What are a couple signs of septic myocarditis?
tachycardia
paroxysmal arrhythmias
What is the most common isolate of bovine valvular endocarditis?
Arcanobacter pyogenes
What drug can be used to treat valvular endocarditis in the bovine?
penicillin, or most recently Rifampin
Rule outs for bovine pericardial effusion?
Lymphosarcoma
Hardware
Animals with what degree of fever are considered FSIS suspect?
> 105 cattle
>106 swine
Which species can be scored based on vocalization for meat processing?
pigs and cattle
Bile duct thickening on post slaughter inspection is almost pathognomonic for what?
Salmonella
Why do you palpate the diaphragm on postmortem exam?
Trichinella
Treatment for anaplasma infection?
oxytetracycline
Which hematologic abnormalit(ies) cause CNS signs?
Babesia
Anthrax
Water intoxication
Which drug is helpful for clearing Leptospirosis pomona?
Dihydrostreptomycin
Treatment for babesiosis?
diproprionate
diminazene aceturate
True/False. Babesiosis is predominantly a disease of calves.
False. Calves < 6 months are resistant
Extravascular hemolysis in bovines
Anaplasma
Leptospirosis?
Decreased TIBC and increased serum ferritin and BM reserves is indicative of what?
Anemia of chronic disease
Elevated transferrin, decreased ferritin is indicative of what?
Iron deficiency
What is the most common cause of Iron deficiency in the bovine?
blood loss
PT is elevated due to deficiency in what factors?
fibrinogen
prothrombin
V, VII, X
Calf presents with anorexia, depression, hemoglobinuria. If this is copper toxicosis, what would you expect on blood draw?
chocolate brown blood
treatment for copper toxicosis?
d-penicilliamine
molybdenum
anhydrous sodium sulfate
Treatment for a calf with severe water intoxication?
hypertonic saline
mannitol
corticosteroids
True/False. BSE can be spread by both vertical and horizontal transmission.
False. Neither. Causative agent from Scrapie-affected sheep or fed parts of cattle with previously unidentified prion.
When does rabies vaccination start in the calf?
3 months
Which neurologic disease of cattle is characterized by high fever?
TEME- histophilus somni. Also causes myocarditis, pleuropneumonia, arthritis
Which bovine neurologic disease is usually preceded by 2 weeks respiratory signs?
TEME- histophilus somni
A cow with neurologic signs (blindness, nystagmus, opisthotonus, etc) died at the feedlot. You open her up and find disseminated multifocal hemorrhages and suppurative pleuritis. What do you suspect?
TEME
Treatment for lead toxicity in cows?
rumenotomy
oral Mg3(SO4)2
thiamine
Which neurologic abnormalities cause the brain to appear yellow with flattened cerebral gyri?
Lead toxicity
Polioencephalomalacia
Which muscle relaxants are used to treat cows with tetanus?
promazines
A cow with signs of general illness and CNS signs with dorsomedial strabismus is almost pathognomonic for what?
Polioencephalomalacia
Which bovine neuro disease is associated with cranial nerve signs?
Listeriosis
Phimosis
Inability to extend the penis
Paraphimosis
Inability to retract the penis
True/False. Inguinal hernias usually occur in mature bulls.
True.
True/False. An indirect inguinal hernia presents as a non-emergency in the bull, and is more common (than direct).
True.
What considerations should be made for a cow undergoing standing C-section?
Chance that she'll lay down- recumbent- bloat
more difficult to maintain asepsis
Which bovine respiratory disease(s) can cause lameness?
Histophilus somni (TEME)
(Arcanobacter pyogenes)
Mycoplasma
Which vaccines for BRD are considered standard?
IBR
BVD
BRSV
PI3
Which vaccines associated with BRD can be given as needed?
Pasteurella
H. somnus (not consistently effective)