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65 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When providing care for neonatal care of calves within the first 12 hours of after birth, colostrum ingestion should be calculated at the rate of:
A) 1% of body weight B) 5% of body weight C) 10% of body weight D) 15% of body weight |
10% of body weight
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The organism that causes Actinobacillosis or "Woody Tongue" gains access to animal through:
A) aerosol transmission B) contamination of feeds C) worming medications D) being a normal inhabitant of the oral cavity |
being a normal inhabitant of the oral cavity
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A protozoal disease that can affect neonatal calves is:
A) salmonellosis B) cryptosporidia C) clostridia D) E. coli |
cryptosporidia
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A part of the treatment for Actinobacillosis is:
A) colostrum B) sodium bicarbonate C) sodium iodide D) dexamethasone |
sodium iodide
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Increased ingestion of grain in cattle may lead to:
A) metabolic alkalosis B) metabolic acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis |
metabolic acidosis
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In the syndrome of grain overload, the bacteria in the rumen that will multiply to abnormally high levels is:
A) Eserechia coli B) Fusobacterium necrophorum C) Clostridium perfrigens D) Streptococcus bovis |
Streptococcus bovis
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The type of stomach tube that may be used in the treatment of grain overload is a:
A) Jamshidi B) Kingman C) Foley D) Steinman |
Kingman
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Cattle that are most prone to hardware disease are: A) recently weaned calves
B) mature bulls in feed lots C) beef cattle being readied for the feed lot D) mature dairy cattle |
mature dairy cattle
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A treatment for hardware disease is the administration of:
A) thiamine B) sodium iodide C) antacids D) a magnet |
a magnet
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Peritonitis is most likely to be a complication in cases of:
A) grain overload B) hardware disease C) bloat D) displaced abomasum |
hardware disease
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Dioctyl sodium succinate is likely to be part of the treatment for:
A) frothy bloat B) woddy tongue C) hardware disease D) abomasal displacement |
A) frothy bloat
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The Liptak Test is useful in the diagnosis of:
A) hardware disease B) lumpy jaw C) grain overload D) abomasal displacement |
D) abomasal displacement
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A volvulus of a portion of the ruminant stomach of cattle is most likely to be seen with:
A) bloat B) hardware disease C) abomasal displacement D) hardware disesae |
D) abomasal displacement
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10.
Flunixin meglumine is best classified as a/an A) antibiotic B) NSAID C) glucocorticoid D) nutriceutical |
B) NSAID
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The most frequent cause of chronic diarrhea in cattle is related to:
A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C) parasites D) feeds and feeding practices |
C) parasites
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The portion of the cattle gastrointestinal system that is the most significantly affected by Ostertagia is the:
A) rumen B) reticulum C) small intestine D) abomasum |
D) abomasum
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The age group of cattle most susceptible to Johne's disease is:
A) less than 6 months B) 1-2 years C) 4-6 years D) over 8 years |
A) less than 6 months
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The condition that should be suspected when chronic diarrhea in a herd of cattle is preceded by an outbreak of acute diarrhea is:
A) coccidiosis B) salmonellosis C) bovine viral diarrhea D) ostertagiasis |
B) salmonellosis
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Of the disease conditions listed below, which is NOT associated with the respiratory diseases in cattle:
A) Johne's Disease B) Bovine Viral Diarrhea C) Shipping Fever D) Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis |
A) Johne's Disease
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The best description of of the morbidity and mortality relating to Bovine Respiratory Disease Syndrome (BRDS) is:
A) low morbidity, low mortality B) high morbidity, low mortality C) low morbidity, high mortality D) high morbidity, high mortality |
D) high morbidity, high mortality
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A bacteria that is an important cause of interdigital necrobacillosis is:
A) Corynebacterium paratuberculosis B) Pasturella multocida C) Actinobacillosis ligniersii D) Fusobacterium necrophorum |
D) Fusobacterium necrophorum
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In controlling Foot Rot in cattle, a foot bath may be used that contains:
A) sodium hypochlorite B) povodine iodine C) zinc sulfate D) silver nitrate |
C) zinc sulfate
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An important treatment for laminitis is:
A) glucocorticoids B) antibiotics C) NSAIDS D) nitrofuracin |
C) NSAIDS
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Of the diseases conditions listed below, laminitis would be most likely associated with:
A) Bovine Virus Diarrhea B) Lumpy Jaw C) Johne's disease D) Retained placenta |
D) Retained placenta
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The organism that causes malignant edema is Clostridium:
A) tetani B) chauvoei C) perfringens D) septicum |
D) septicum
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An important factor in exposing cattle to the organism causing blackleg is:
A) unsterilized injection needles B) recently tilled soil C) legume pasture grasses D) aeresol transmission from neighboring farms |
B) recently tilled soil
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The age at which vaccination for protecting cattle from mailgnant edema should begin at is:
A) 8 weeks B) 6 months C) 1 year D) 3 years |
A) 8 weeks
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The organism that causes Anaplasmosis in cattle is a:
A) virus B) bacteria C) fungus D) rickettsia |
D) rickettsia
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When performing a necropsy of cattle that have had Anplasmosis, the organ that is likley to be enlaged is the:
A) abomasum B) spleen C) kidney D) heart |
B) spleen
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The antibiotic that is most effective in treating cases of anaplasmosis is:
A) penicillin B) enrofloxacin C) sulfadimethoxine D) tetracycline |
D) tetracycline
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An important factor in a treatment program for Anthrax will include:
A) removal of external parasites B) remove grain supplements from the ration C) high doses of penicillin early in the course of the disease D) supplement the diet with Vitamin A and E |
C) high doses of penicillin early in the course of the disease
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Considering the cows that have recently calved, the placenta is considered retained if it is not passed within ______ hrs.
A) 2 B) 8 C) 24 D) 36 |
B) 8
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The use of prostaglandins is important in the treatment of:
A) retained placenta B) blackleg C) anthrax D) anaplasmosis |
A) retained placenta
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The local veterinary regulatory agency should be contacted in any suspected case of:
A) malignant edema B) blackleg C) retained placenta D) anthrax E) all of the above |
D) anthrax
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The incidence of ketosis in cattle is related to the breakdown of:
A) collagen B) nerves C) fats D) muscle |
C) fats
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An important element in the treatment of ketosis is the administration of:
A) penicillin B) dexamethasone C) calcium gluconate D) Vitamin E |
B) dexamethasone
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Considering the stages of labor for the cow, the fetus will be visible at the vulva in:
A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 3 D) stage 4 |
B) stage 2
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When dystocia is suspected, a condition that may be related and can cause uterine inertia is:
A) hypoglycemia B) hypocalcemia C) hyperkalemia D) hypernatremia |
B) hypocalcemia
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If assistance is needed during dystocia and obstetrical chains are needed, the initial loop of the chain is placed directly proximal to the:
A) coffin B) pastern C) fetlock D) carpus |
C) fetlock
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The most common disease syndrome seen in adult dairy cattle is:
A) retained placenta B) ketosis C) milk fever D) mastitis |
D) mastitis
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A key feature of the California Mastitis Test is that it is a test of the milk and detects the presence of:
A) bacteria B) antibodies C) hemoglobin D) white blood cells |
D) white blood cells
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Considering milk fever in the cow, as the age of the cow increases, the incidence of the disease is likely to:
A) increase B) decrease C) cease entirely D) age has no effect on the incidence |
A) increase
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The addition of Vitamin D to the ration is an important part of the protocol for the prevention of:
A) ketosis B) mastitis C) dystocia D) milk fever |
D) milk fever
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When administering calcium agents by the intravenous route, signs of calcium toxicity should be monitored for and include:
A) hypersalivation B) muscle tremors C) bradycardia D) dyspnea |
C) bradycardia
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A recommended diet during the dry period for a dairy cow designed for the prevention of milk fever would be one that contains:
A) high levels of calcium B) low levels of calcium C) high levels of vitamin E D) low levels of vitamin D |
B) low levels of calcium
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All of the following are symptoms expected with the furious form of Rabies in cattle EXCEPT:
A) tenesmus B) polydypsia C) hyperexcitablility D) bloat |
B) polydypsia
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In establishing the histopathologic diagnosis of Rabies, Negri Bodies are inclusion bodies that are seen in the tissues of the:
A) periferal nerves B) lymph nodes C) salivary glands D) brain |
D) brain
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Cattle are exposed to the agent producing Mad Cow Disease through:
A) bites of infected animals B) contaminated feeds C) contaminated clothing of farm workers and clinicians D) aersol transmission |
B) contaminated feeds
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The agent that causes Mad Cow Disease is a:
A) virus B) rickettsia C) funfal spore D) misfolded protein |
D) misfolded protein
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The infectious agent that produces Pink Eye is:
A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Clostridium chauvoei C) Actinomycosis bovis D) Moraxella bovis |
D) Moraxella bovis
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When discussing the control of Pink Eye with a farm manager, a veterinarian technician should inform the manager that a key vector in the transmission of Pink Eye in cattle is:
A) birds B) mosquiotes C) flies D) fleas |
C) flies
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When a case of Pink Eye is being treated in a cow, a medication the veterinarian is likely to request is:
A) neomycin B) gentamicin C) enroloxacin D) penicillin G |
D) penicillin G
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A breed of cattle that is prone to Cancer Eye is:
A) Angus B) Jersey C) Short Horn D) Hereford |
D) Hereford
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A key factor in predisposing cattle to the development of cancer eye is:
A) feeds high in grain content B) a deficiency of Vitamin D C) legume pasture grasses D) excessive exposure to sunlight |
D) excessive exposure to sunlight
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The most common tumor of cattle is:
A) lymphosarcoma B) transitional cell carcinoma C) occular squamous cell carcinoma D) malignant melanoma |
C) occular squamous cell carcinoma
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A ruminant parasite that is in the Strongyle group is:
A) Eimeria B) Ostertagia C) Fasciola D) Trichomonas |
B) Ostertagia
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A recommended treatment for the Stongyle parasite group is:
A) tetracycline B) sulfamethazine C) ivermectin D) praziquantel |
C) ivermectin
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The intermediate host of the cattle liver fluke is the:
A) beetle B) tick C) snail D) fly |
C) snail
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A fecal sedimentation is necessary and recommended to identify the eggs of:
A) Nematodirus B) Ostertagia C) Haemonchus D) Fasciola |
D) Fasciola
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The cattle parasite that is a protozoa and is associated with infertility is:
A) Cooperia B) Eimeria C) Trichomoniasis D) Haemonchus |
C) Trichomoniasis
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A major cause of mortality of lambs in the first several weeks of life is:
A) hypocalcemia B) hyponatremia C) hypokalemia D) hypoglycemia |
D) hypoglycemia
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Following birth, lambs must begin ingesting colostrum in:
A) less than 2 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 12 to 24 hours D) 36 to 48 hours |
C) 12 to 24 hours
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When measuring the daily amount of milk needed for nutrition of lambs and kids, the percentage of body weight needed for ingestion is:
A) 1-2% B) 4-6% C) 10-15% D) 20-30% |
C) 10-15%
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When re-warming a hypothermic lamb, the recommended method is:
A) immerse the lamb in warm water B) administer a warm water enema C) administer warmed lactated ringers D) direct the rays of an ultraviolet heat lamp to the lamb |
A) immerse the lamb in warm water
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When the ewe and lamb are confined in the lambing pen, "mama trama" is most often caused by:
A) the ewe lying on the lamb B) the ewe stepping on the lamb C) excessive licking of the lamb by the ewe D) excessive moving or "head butting" of the lamb by the ewe |
B) the ewe stepping on the lamb
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