Joe's Post-Exam Review Questions

Front 1

non-purposeful eye movements?

Back 1

neurovegetative state

Front 2

T or F: subdural space does NOT communcate with CSF

Back 2

TRUE

Front 3

68 year-old male who smokes tobacco, has COPD. Suspect:

Back 3

O2 saturation of 88%

Front 4

All of the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:

Back 4

Hypoxia is likely caused by a true pulmonary shunt.

Front 5

78-year-old male with CHF, dyspnea, displaced heart sounds, absent fremitus, crackles, and no egophony:

Back 5

pleural effusion with decrease in breath sounds, dull percuss

Back 6

perfect shunt

Front 7

Which does NOT cause an increase in leukocytes?

Back 7

migraines

Front 8

A 72-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer has a decrease in BP, increase in HR, thin, dry mucosal membranes, volume depletion, but a normal serum sodium level. Which of the following is NOT true?

Back 8

Patient is dehydrated. (NOT true because of normal sodium levels).

Front 9

Creatinine indicates what?

Back 9

muscle mass

Front 10

What is the NAACP mnemonic?

Front 11

Which of the following is NOT an exogenous pyrogen?

Back 11

cytokines

Front 12

Define hyperthermia:

Back 12

Hyperthermia: a state of elevated temperature with a NORMAL set point.

Front 13

A 69-year-old patient with dyspnea and dizziness has a BP of 125/95, narrow pulse pressure, and a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur has what?

Back 13

aortic stenosis

Front 14

What is the best estimate of heart function?

Back 14

narrow pulse pressure

Front 15

In aortic stenosis, why is there a supply/demand mismatch with subendocardial ischemia?

Back 15

caused by an increase in left ventricular demand

Front 16

A patient with edema, rales, a holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiates has:

Back 16

mitral valve insufficiency

Front 17

Which of the following is NOT true of aortic insufficiency?

Back 17

The murmur is heard at the BEGINNING of systole in aortic insufficiency. (incorrect statement)

Front 18

When is a coronary artery bypass indicated?

Front 19

Young Japanese person with angina:

Back 19

Prinzmetal's angina

Front 20

Which is NOT recommended to decrease the risk of having an MI?

Back 20

pill-therapy for weight reduction is NOT recommended

Front 21

How do you calculate HR using an EKG?

Back 21

HR = 300/(# of big boxes)

Front 22

If a patient has a HR of 150 and a 2:1 block, then it is a […] until proven otherwise.

Back 22

FLUTTER

Front 23

All of the following are causes of DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY EXCEPT: A. Alcoholism B. Peri-partum state C. Ischemia of the heart D. Idiopathic cardiomyopathy E. amyloid cardiomyopathy

Back 23

AMYLOID CARDIOMYOPATHY is NOT an example of DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY. (Amyloid cardiomyopathy is restrictive.)

Front 24

What are diseases where mechanical lowering of body temperature is NOT indicated?

Back 24

West Nile virus

Front 25

Do amoebas and pinworms cause eosinophilia?

Back 25

no

Front 26

What's the difference between unstable and stable angina?

Front 27

What causes dementia in Alzheimer's disease?

Back 27

degree of neuronal synaptic loss

Front 28

What parameters are checked in SIADH?

Back 28

Check urine and serum osmolarity, in addition to serum sodium levels

Front 29

What are the symptoms of SIADH?

Back 29

normovolemia, decrease in serum Na+, and increase in urine osmolality

Front 30

Is flaccid paresis associated with Idiopathic Parkinson's disease?

Back 30

NO

Front 31

What happens to the (FEV1)/(FVC) ratio in emphysema?

Back 31

There is a DECREASE in the (FEV1)/(FVC) ratio in emphysema

Front 32

A 7-year-old patient presents with coca-cola urine and hypertension. What is the dx?

Back 32

post-infectious Glomerulonephritis

Front 33

For Post-infectious Glomerulonephritis, are the complement levels high or low?

Back 33

HYPOcomplementemia in Post-infectious GN

Front 34

A 42-year-old female has had abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhea, weight loss over the past year, and exhibit a tender mass at the RLQ. What is the dx?

Back 34

Crohn's disease

Front 35

What are the colonoscopic features of Crohn's disease?

Back 35

Deep ulcerations and cobblestoning on colonoscopy.

Front 36

A 25-year-old patient has blood diarrhea and urgency. All of the following treat ULCERATIVE COLITIS EXCEPT: A. Oral mesalamine B. Rectal mesalamine C. oral steroids D. TNF-alpha E. rectal S-ASA

Back 36

TNF-ALPHA is used for Crohn's disease, NOT ulcerative colitis

Front 37

An 18-year-old patient has ULCERATIVE COLITIS. Which of the following is a complication? A. nephrolithiasis B. INCREASED risk of colon cancer

Back 37

INCREASED risk of colon cancer

Front 38

All of the following are associated with INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE EXCEPT:

Back 38

EXUDATIVE PERICARDIAL EFFUSIONS

Front 39

A patient has bloody diarrhea, lower back pain, round, painful red lesions, and bilateral changes in the sacro-iliac joints. What's the dx?

Back 39

INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE

Front 40

A 35-year-old female has amenorrhea, hirsutism, hypertension, and abdominal striae, all of which are indicative of Cushing's disease. Which of the following diagnostic tests are correct?

Back 40

A. 24-hour urinary free cortisol level AND E. ACTH suppression test

Front 41

Is TSH secretion diurnal?

Back 41

TSH secretion is NOT diurnal.

Front 42

A patient has amenorrhea and tender breasts. The physical exam demonstrates milky discharge from both breast, indicating a PROLACTINOMA. What is the preferred initial treatment?

Back 42

BROMOCRIPTINE

Front 43

Cortisol has been given to a patient for arthritis for the past 8 months. If the cortisol is discontinued abruptly, then the patient is at risk for:

Back 43

B. HYPERKALEMIC ACIDOSIS

Front 44

GH symptoms….When should GH serum measurements be drawn?

Back 44

2 hours post-glucose load

Front 45

What are some endogenous diabetogenic substances?

Back 45

1. cortisol 2. epinephrine 3. GH

Front 46

All of the following statements concerning Hepatitis are true EXCEPT:

Back 46

The carrier state in Hepatitis A is often asymptomatic for years into adulthood.

Front 47

True or False: A positive HBsAg merely indicates previous exposure to the virus or recent vaccination and does NOT correlate to infection.

Back 47

FALSE

Front 48

A positive HBsAg means what regarding infection?

Back 48

means ACUTE or CHRONIC infection

Front 49

A positive HBsAb means what?

Back 49

means EXPOSURE, says nothing about infection state

Front 50

All of the following are true regarding Hep B vs. C EXCEPT:

Back 50

PERMUCOSAL transmission is much more likely with Hep C than with Hep B. (false statement)

Front 51

What is the most common method of transmission of Hep C?

Back 51

blood transfusions

Front 52

What are the most commond method(s) of transmission of Hep B?

Back 52

blood and sexual transmission

Front 53

A patient has ascites, palmar erythema, and a decreased BP. He also has a positive HBsAG and a positive HBcAb-IgG, both indicated an infected, chronic state. There is a 10^7 viral load. All of the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT:

Back 53

Either: Risk of developing chronic infection is related to the age at which he was 1st treated for the virus OR Viral load is too low to warrant therapy. (*Note: I don't know the correct answer, other than it is either of the previous statements. I typed this up from someone else's notes)

Front 54

A positive HBsAg indicates what?

Back 54

infected state

Front 55

A positive HBcAb that are IgG indicates what?

Back 55

chronic infection

Front 56

A patient has had DM1 for 8 years. Which of the following is the longest acting insulin drug?

Back 56

GLARGINE is the LONGEST-ACTING insulin drug.

Front 57

Which of the following statements is atypical of Diabetic Metabolism?

Back 57

Insulin is essential for the body's metabolism ONLY during the fed state, when glucose is abundant. (false statement). (Explanation: Diabetics and EVERYONE needs insulin for both the fed and fasting states.)

Front 58

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endocarditis?

Back 58

corticosteroids

Front 59

Which of the following is the most likely organism causing native-valve infective endocarditis?

Back 59

Streptococcus VIRIDANS

Front 60

A patient exhibits confusion, a fever, red skin lesions on his digits, and his febrile. He appears to be undergoing sepsis. What are the DUKE'S CRITERIA PARAMETERS?

Back 60

1 MAJOR + 3 MINOR

Front 61

What is the acronym for atypical organisms that cause endocarditis?

Back 61

HACEK

Front 62

Do Acenitobacter species cause endocarditis?

Back 62

NO!

Front 63

An intravenous methamphetamine user is at risk for what?

Back 63

Staph infection --> Tricuspid endocarditis --> emboli + pneumonia

Front 64

A patient has painful subacute DeQuervain's thyroiditis. What is the I(123) uptake level?

Back 64

low I(123) uptake in DeQuervain's thyroiditis.

Front 65

A patient has low TSH levels and an elevated I(123) uptake. What is the Dx?

Back 65

Grave's disease

Front 66

A patient has exacerbated COPD and sick euthyroid syndrome. Are the reverse T3 levels high or low?

Back 66

reverse T3 levels are high

Front 67

A patient has a thyroid nodule. A solid one indicates a tumor, while a cold nodule indicates a non-iodine-uptaking tumor. What needs to be done?

Back 67

fine needle aspiration

Front 68

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Back 68

Thyroid peroxidase (microsomal) antibodies are found in Grave's disease. (FALSE STATEMENT; microsomal antibodies are found in Hashimoto's thyroiditis).

Front 69

A smoker with pneumonia is infected by a gram-negative coccobacillus. What is the organism?

Back 69

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 70

A pneumonia + RASH is known as what?

Back 70

Walking pneumoniae

Front 71

What are the most common organisms causing walking pneumoniae?

Back 71

viruses, Mycoplasma

Front 72

For a patient with pneumonia + RASH, all of the following statements concerning techniques used to dx are true EXCEPT:

Back 72

use the gram-stain to identify the organism in walking pneumonia (false statement; One CANNOT gram-stain Mycoplasma!)

Front 73

A 78-year-old patient with lung cancer, a BP of 90/40, a HR of 140, and high comorbidities should be treated in what way?

Back 73

Patient should be hospitalized and started on IV Abs.

Front 74

Which of the following is indicative of AIDS?

Back 74

chronic mucocutaneous or esophageal Herpes simplex infections

Front 75

How do you Dx HIV?

Back 75

salivary Ab to HIV by ELISA, confirmed by Western Blot

Front 76

What is the Rx for Immune Reconstitution Syndrome?

Back 76

steroids

Front 77

A person went camping and got diarrrhea from what?

Back 77

Giardia lamblia

Front 78

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?

Back 78

rotavirus

Front 79

A patient with COPD and bilateral flank pain (pyelonephritis) is treated with Clindamycin. What happened next?

Back 79

Patient gets pseudomembranous colitis

Front 80

What kind of bilirubinemia is Gilbert's disease?

Back 80

Gilbert's = benign hyperbilirubinemia (indirect conjugation)

Front 81

Liver disease and emphysema can be caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. What is the gene coding for alpha-1 anti-trypsin secretion?

Back 81

piz/pizz

Front 82

A patient with cirrhosis is most likely to be hypo or hypertensive?

Back 82

cirrhosis = hypotensive

Front 83

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

Back 83

alcohol abuse (EtoH)

Front 84

Which of the following statements is TRUE about cirrhosis?

Back 84

With cirrhosis, a patient is likely to have relative systemic hypotension and a decrease in total peripheral resistance.

Front 85

Which of the following are hyperaldosterone states requiring a restriction of salt intake?

Back 85

1. cirrhosis 2. nephrosis 3. CHF