Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
320 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Urease positive bugs
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>articular <span style="font-weight:600;">K</span>inds <span style="font-weight:600;">H</span>ave <span style="font-weight:600;">U</span>rease<br /><br /><span style="text-decoration: underline;">P</span>roteus, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">K</span>lebsiella, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">H</span>. pylori, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">U</span>reaplasma
|
|
|
Obligate Intracellular Bugs
|
Stay Inside when it is <span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>eally <span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>old<br><br>Rickettsia, Chlamydia
|
|
|
Facultative Intracellular
|
<span style="text-decoration: underline;">S</span>ome <span style="text-decoration: underline;">N</span>asty <span style="text-decoration: underline;">B</span>ugs <span style="text-decoration: underline;">M</span>ay <span style="text-decoration: underline;">L</span>ive <span style="text-decoration: underline;">F</span>acultative<span style="text-decoration: underline;">LY</span><br><br>Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francicella, Legionella, Yersinia
|
|
|
Encapsulated Bugs
|
Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules<br><br>Streptococcus pneumoniae<br>Klebsiella<br>Haemophilus influenzae<br>Pseudomonas aeruginosa<br>Cryptococcus neoformans<br><br>+ others: some E. coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, Yersinia pestis (F1 envelope)
|
|
|
Gram stain limitations
|
These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>reponema (too thin): dark field microscopy, fluorescent antibody staining<br><span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>ickettsia (intracellular)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">M</span>ycoplasma (no cell wall)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">M</span>ycobacterium (high mycolic acid content): acid fast stain<br><span style="font-weight:600;">L</span>egionella pneumophila (intracellular): silver stain<br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>hlamydia (intracellular, lacks muramic acid in cell wall)
|
|
|
Spore forming bacteria
|
Bacillus anthracis<br>Bacillus cereux<br>C. perfringens<br>C. tetani<br>C. botulinum
|
|
|
Bacteria that require cysteine
|
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella, Pasteurella
|
|
|
Obligate anaerobes
|
Anaerobes <span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>an't <span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>reathe <span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>ir.<br><br>Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces
|
|
|
Microaerophilic
|
Campylobacter and Helicobacter
|
|
|
Obligate aerobes
|
Nagging Pests Must Breathe<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">N</span>ocardia, <span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>seudomonas aeruginosa, <span style="font-weight:600;">M</span>ycobacterium tuberculosis, and <span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>acillus
|
|
|
Which coagulase negative Staphylococcus is Novobiocin <span style="font-weight:600;">resistant</span>? which is <span style="font-weight:600;">sensitive</span>?
|
On the office's <span style="font-weight:600;">staph </span>retreat, there was <span style="font-weight:600;">NO StRES</span>.<br><br>Novobiocin resistant: S. saprophyticus<br>Novobiocin sensitive: S. epidermidis
|
|
|
Which alpha hemolytic Streptococcus is <br>1. optochin sensitive and bile soluble?<br>2. optochin resistant and not bile soluble?
|
OVRPS<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">O</span>ptochin: <span style="font-weight:600;">V</span>iridans is <span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>esistant, <span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>neumoniae is <span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>ensitive
|
|
|
Which beta hemolytic Streptococcus is:<br />1. bacitracin resistant?<br />2. bacitracin sensitive?
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">B-BRAS</span><br /><br /><span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>acitracin<br /><br />Group <span style="font-weight:600;">B</span> (S. agalactiae) is <span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>esistant<br /><br />Group <span style="font-weight:600;">A</span> (S. pyogenes) is <span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>ensitive
|
|
|
Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
|
<span style="text-decoration: underline;">Test with Mac</span><span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">C</span><span style="text-decoration: underline;">on</span><span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">KEE</span><span style="text-decoration: underline;">'</span><span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">S</span><span style="text-decoration: underline;"> agar</span><br><span style=" text-decoration: underline;"></span><br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>itrobacter<br><span style="font-weight:600;">K</span>lebsiella<br><span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>nterobacter<br><span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>. coli<br><span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>erratia<br><br>middle 3 are fast fermenters.
|
|
|
PSEUDOmonas diseases
|
Wound and burn infections, hot tub folliculitis<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>neumonia (especially in CF)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>epsis (black skin lesions)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>xternal otitis (swimmer's ear)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">U</span>TI<br><span style="font-weight:600;">D</span>rug use and <span style="font-weight:600;">D</span>iabetic <span style="font-weight:600;">O</span>steomyelitis<br>
|
|
|
Triad of Typhoid fever
|
Bradycardia, neutropenia, splenomegaly
|
|
|
How to diagnose Typhoid fever during first week and second week?
|
1st week: blood culture<br>2nd week: stool culture
|
|
|
VDRL False positives
|
VDRL<br /><br />Viruses (mono, hepatitis)<br />Drugs<br />Rheumatic fever<br />Lupus and Leprosy
|
|
|
Features of Lyme Disease
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">BAKE </span>a Key Lyme pie:<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>ell's Palsy<br><span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>rthritis<br><span style="font-weight:600;">K</span>ardiac block<br><span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>rythema migrans
|
|
|
Classic triad of all Rickettsial diseases
|
headache, fever, and rash (vasculitis)
|
|
|
Palm and Sole Rashes
|
You drive <span style="font-weight:600;">CARS </span>using your palms and soles<br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>oxsackie <span style="font-weight:600;">A </span>virus (hand, foot, and mouth disease)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>ocky mountain spotted fever<br><span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>yphilis<br>
|
|
|
Thermally dimorphic fungi
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>ody <span style="font-weight:600;">H</span>eat <span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>hanges <span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>hape<br><br>Blastomyces<br>Histoplasma<br>Coccidioides<br>Sporothrix
|
|
|
What are pseudohyphae? Which fungus has this morphology?
|
Pseudohyphae are hyphae with constrictions at each septum. (yeasts that bud but do not separate)<br><br>e.g. Candida albicans
|
|
|
Killed viral vaccines
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">RIP A</span>lways<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>abies<br><span style="font-weight:600;">I</span>nfluenza<br><span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>olio (Salk)<br>H<span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>V
|
|
|
Recombinant viral vaccines
|
HBV and HPV
|
|
|
Naked viruses
|
Naked <span style="font-weight:600;">CPR </span>and <span style="font-weight:600;">PAPP </span>smear<br>Calicivirus<br>Picornavirus<br>Reovirus<br>Parvovirus<br>Adenovirus<br>Papilloma<br>Polyoma
|
|
|
DNA enveloped viruses
|
Herpesviruses (HSV, VZV, CMV, EBV)<br>HBV<br>Smallpox virus
|
|
|
DNA nucleocapsid viruses
|
Parvovirus<br>Adenovirus<br>Papillomaviruses<br>
|
|
|
RNA enveloped viruses
|
Influenza, Parainfluenza, RSV<br><br>Measles, Mumps, Rubella<br><br>Rabies, HTLV, HIV<br>
|
|
|
RNA nucleocapsid viruses
|
Enteroviruses (poliovirus, Coxsackievirus, Echovirus, HAV)<br>Rhinovirus<br>Reovirus
|
|
|
All DNA viruses are double stranded except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All DNA viruses are double stranded except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">parvovirus</span>
|
|
|
All DNA viruses have linear DNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All DNA viruses have linear DNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">papilloma and polyoma (circular supercoiled) and hepadna (circular incomplete)</span>
|
|
|
All DNA viruses are icosahedral except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All DNA viruses are icosahedral except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">pox virus (complex)</span>
|
|
|
All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">pox virus (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)</span>
|
|
|
Name the 7 DNA viruses
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">HHAPPPP</span>y<br><br>Hepadna<br>Herpes<br>Adeno<br>Pox<br>Parvo<br>Papilloma<br>Polyoma
|
|
|
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with PAN and membranous glomerulonephropathy?
|
HBV
|
|
|
Which hepatitis virus is associated with cryoglobulinemia and MPGN type I
|
HCV
|
|
|
Most common causes of Neonatal Pneumonia
|
Group B Streptococci<br>E. coli
|
|
|
Most common causes of Pneumonia in Children (4w to 18 y)
|
Runts May Cough Sputum<br><br>RSV, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
|
Most common causes of Adult Pneumonia (18-40 y)
|
M. pneumoniae<br>C. pneumoniae<br>S. pneumoniae
|
|
|
Bloody diarrhea
|
Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, EHEC, EIEC, Yersinia enterocolitica, C. difficile, Entamoeba histolytica
|
|
|
Watery diarrhea (3 bacteria, 3 viruses, 3 protozoa)
|
ETEC, Vibrio cholerae, C. perfringens<br><br>Rotavirus, Adenovirus, Norwalk virus<br><br>Giardia, Crytposporidium, Isospora<br><br>
|
|
|
Nosocomial pneumonia
|
Staph, enteric gram negative rods
|
|
|
Pneumonia in Immunocompromised patients
|
Staph, enteric gram negative rods, fungi, viruses, PCP
|
|
|
Aspiration Pneumonia
|
Anaerobes
|
|
|
Pneumonia in Alcoholics and IVDU
|
S. pneumoniae, Klebsiella, Staph
|
|
|
Pneumonia in Cystic fibrosis
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
|
Postviral Pneumonia
|
Staph, H. influenzae
|
|
|
Atypical Pneumonia
|
Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia
|
|
|
MCC of neonatal meninigitis
|
Group B streptococci
|
|
|
MCC of Meningitis in children
|
S. pneumoniae
|
|
|
MCC of Meningitis in Elderly
|
S. pneumoniae
|
|
|
MCC of Meningitis in adults (6-60 y)
|
N. meningitidis
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis
|
S. aureus
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis in sexually active people
|
N. gonorrhea (rare, septic arthritis is more common)
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis in Diabetics and IVDU
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis in Sickle Cell anemia
|
Salmonella
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis in prosthetic replacement
|
S. aureus and S. epidermidis
|
|
|
MCC of Vertebral Osteomyelitis
|
Pott's disease (M. tuberculosis)
|
|
|
MCC of Osteomyelitis following cat and dog bites or scratches
|
Pasteurella multocida
|
|
|
MCC of ambulatory UTI
|
E. coli (50-80%) and Klebsiella (10%)<br><br>in sexually active women, 2nd MCC is Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%)
|
|
|
Hospital acquired UTIs
|
E. coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, Serratia, Pseudomonas
|
|
|
UTI Bugs
|
SSEEK PP<br><br>Serratia, Staph saprophyticus, E. coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas
|
|
|
Classic triad of Toxoplasma gondii congenital infection
|
Chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus
|
|
|
TORCHeS Infections
|
Toxoplasma gondii<br>Others: Listeria, E. coli, group B streptococci<br>Rubella<br>CMV<br>HSV-2 and HIV<br>Syphilis
|
|
|
Catalase Positive Bugs
|
If you've got CGD, make <span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">SPACE </span>for bugs with catalase!<br><br>Staph<br>Pseudomonas<br>Aspergillus<br>Candida<br>Enterobacteriaceae
|
|
|
1st Signal for Th-cell activation
|
binding of TCR (Th cell) to MHC II (APC)
|
|
|
2nd Signal of T cell activation
|
CD4/CD8 bind to MHC II/MHC I <br />Integrin (LFA-1) binds to ICAM-1<br />IgCAMs binds to LFA-3<br />CD28 binds to B7 --> triggers transcription of several cytokine genes<br />
|
|
|
3rd singal for T-cell activation
|
Cytokines: <br /><br />IL-1<br />IL-2<br />IL-6<br />TNF-alpha
|
|
|
Endotoxin receptor
|
CD14 located on macrophages
|
|
|
Mechanism of action of Superantigens
|
nonspecifically bind TCR to MHC II <br>--> activate Th cells <br>--> release of IFN-gamma from Th1 cells<br>--> activate macrophages<br>--> release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha from macrophages
|
|
|
Which cytokines are produced by Th1 cells?
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">IFN-gamma<br />TNF-alpha</span><br />IL-2, IL-3<br />GM-CSF
|
|
|
Which cytokines are produced by Th2 cells?
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">IL-4, 5, 6, 10</span><br />IL-2, 3<br />GM-CSF<br />
|
|
|
Crossregulation of Th1 and Th2 cells
|
Th1 --> IFN-gamma --> inhibits Th2<br /><br />Th2 --> IL-4 and IL-10 --> inhibit Th1<br />
|
|
|
What is the first signal for B cell activation?
|
binding of MHC II-peptide complex (B cell) to TCR (Th cell)
|
|
|
What is the second signal for B cell activation
|
B7 binds to CD28<br>CD40 binds to CD40L
|
|
|
What is the third signal for B cell activation
|
IL-2, 4, 5
|
|
|
Activation of B cells includes what 3 processes?<br />
|
differentiation, memory, and class switching
|
|
|
Deficiency of DAF (GPI)
|
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
|
|
|
Deficiency of C5-C8 leads to <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span> bacteremia.
|
Deficiency of C5-C8 leads to <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">Neiserria</span> bacteremia.
|
|
|
Deficiency of C3 leads to
|
severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections. <br>
|
|
|
Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">hereditary angioedema</span>
|
|
|
Name the 2 primary opsonins
|
IgG and C3b
|
|
|
Name to complement factors that induce anaphylaxis
|
C3a and C5a
|
|
|
Which complement factor attracts neutrophils?
|
C5a
|
|
|
MAC is formed of which complement factors?
|
C5-C9
|
|
|
Defect in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
|
<br><br>XR defect in BTK (a tyrosine kinase gene) --> blocks B-cell differentiation/mutation --> -- production of B-cells
|
|
|
Characteristic lab result in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
|
decreased B cells
|
|
|
Defect in Hyper-IgM syndrome
|
defective CD40L on Th cells --> inability of B cells to class switch
|
|
|
++ IgM and -- IgG, IgA, IgE
|
Hyper-IgM syndrome <br />(CD40L defect)
|
|
|
most common immune deficiency
|
IgA deficiency
|
|
|
Anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA
|
IgA deficiency
|
|
|
Defect in IgA deficiency
|
failure in isotype switching to IgA
|
|
|
normal number of B cells, -- plasma cells and immunoglobulins
|
CVID
|
|
|
Defect in CVID
|
defect in B-cell maturation (many causes)
|
|
|
B-cell immunodeficiency that presents in the 20s to 30s
|
CVID
|
|
|
True or false, in CVID there is increased risk of autoimmune diseases.
|
True
|
|
|
Defect in Digeorge syndrome
|
failure of development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches (thymus and parathyroid glands)
|
|
|
IL-12 deficiency
|
decreased Th1 response --> decreased IFN-gamma --> disseminated mycobacterial infections.
|
|
|
Defect in Job's syndrome (Hyper-IgE syndrome)
|
Th cells fail to produce IFN-gamma --> inability of neutrohils to respond to chemotactic stimuli
|
|
|
Features of Hyper-IgE syndrome
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">FATED</span><br><br>coarse <span style="font-weight:600;">F</span>acies<br>cold staph <span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>bscesses<br>retained primary <span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>eeth<br>increased Ig<span style="font-weight:600;">E</span><br><span style="font-weight:600;">D</span>ermatologic problems (eczema)
|
|
|
Defect in Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
|
T-cell dysfunction
|
|
|
Defect in SCID
|
Several types<br><br>IL-2 receptor defect (MC)<br><br>adenosine deaminase deficiency<br><br>failure to synthesize MHC II antigens
|
|
|
Defect in Ataxia-telangiectasia
|
Defects in DNA repair enzymes
|
|
|
Triad of ataia-telangiectasia
|
cerebellar defects (ataxia)<br />spider angiomas (telangiectasia)<br />IgA deficiency
|
|
|
Defect in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
|
Progressive deltion of B and T cells. Decreased ability to mount an IgM response.
|
|
|
Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">TIE</span><br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>hrombocytopenic purpura, <span style="font-weight:600;">I</span>nfections, <span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>czema
|
|
|
--IgM and ++ IgE, IgA
|
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
|
|
|
Defect in Leukocyte adhesion deficiency 1
|
LFA-1 integrin (CD18)
|
|
|
Features of LAD type 1
|
recurrent bacterial infections<br>absent pus formation<br>delayed separation of umbilicus<br>neutorphilia
|
|
|
Defect in Chediak-Higashi syndrome
|
AR defect in microtubular function --> decreased fusion of phagocytic vesicles with lysosomes
|
|
|
Partial albinism is seen in which immunodeficiency syndrome?
|
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
|
|
|
Defect in Chronic granulomatous disease
|
lack of NADPH oxidase
|
|
|
increased susceptibility to catalase-positive organisms
|
CGD
|
|
|
test for CGD
|
negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test
|
|
|
Explain why in CGD catalase positive organisms cannot be killed.
|
Catalase positive organisms breakdown any H2O2 they produce by catalase. Therefore, to kill them, a WBC needs myeloperoxidase to produce HOCl. In NADPH deficiency there is no H2O2 production, which is the substrate for myeloperoxidase. <br><br>Catalse negative organisms cannot breakdown the H2O2 they produce. The WBC uses this H2O2 as a substrate for myeloperoxidase to form HOCl which can kill these organisms (bypassing the defective NADPH oxidase).<br><br>
|
|
|
Fever, urticaria, arthrlagia, proteinuria, and lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after antigen exposure
|
Serum sickness (III)
|
|
|
local edema and necrosis after intradermal injection of antigen
|
Arthus reaction (III)
|
|
|
Test for each type of hypersensitivity
|
I: scratch test and RISA<br>II: direct and indirect Coombs<br>III: immunofluorescent staining<br>IV: patch test
|
|
|
4 T's of Type 4 Hypersensitivity
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">T</span> lymphocytes<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>ransplant rejections<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>B skin test<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>ouching (contact dermatitis)
|
|
|
HLA-A3
|
Hemochromatosis
|
|
|
HLA-B27
|
PAIR<br><br>Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, IBD, Reiter's syndrome
|
|
|
HLA-B8
|
Grave's disease
|
|
|
HLA-DR2
|
MS, SLE, Goodpasture syndrome, Hay fever
|
|
|
HLA-DR3
|
DM type 1
|
|
|
HLA-DR4
|
Rheumatoid Arthritis, DM type 1
|
|
|
HLA-DR5
|
Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto's thyroiditis
|
|
|
HLA-DR7
|
steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome
|
|
|
After a bone marrow transplant, a patient presents with maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and diarrhea
|
GVHD
|
|
|
What is the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">mediator </span>and <span style="text-decoration: underline;">timeframe</span> in Hyperacute rejection
|
preformed antidonor antibodies<br><br>minutes
|
|
|
What is the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">mediator </span>and <span style="text-decoration: underline;">timeframe</span> in Acute rejection
|
Tc cells reacting against foreign MHCs of the donor<br /><br />days to weeks
|
|
|
What is the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">mediator </span>and <span style="text-decoration: underline;">timeframe</span> in Chronic rejection
|
T cell and Ab mediated vascular damage (obliterative vascular fibrosis)<br><br>months to years
|
|
|
Which 2 types of transplant rejection are irreversible? which 1 is reversible?
|
irreversible: hyperacute and chronic<br>reversible: acute
|
|
|
Anti-basement membrane antibodies
|
Goodpastur syndrome
|
|
|
Antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies
|
Myasthenia gravis
|
|
|
Anticentromere antibodies
|
CREST syndrome
|
|
|
Antiendomysial and antigliadin
|
Celiac disease
|
|
|
What 3 antibodies may be present in Type 1 DM
|
anti-insulin<br>anti-islet cell<br>anti-glutamate decarboxylase
|
|
|
Anti-intrinsic factor, anti-parietal cell
|
pernicious anemia<br>
|
|
|
antimicrosomal antibodies
|
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
|
|
|
antithyroglobulin antibodies
|
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
|
|
|
Antimitochondrial antibodies
|
primary biliary cirrhosis
|
|
|
antimyeloperoxidase antibodies (p-ANCA)
|
microscopic polyangiitis
|
|
|
Antiproteinase 3 (c-ANCA)
|
Wegener's granulomatosis
|
|
|
Antiribonucleoprotein (Anti-U1-RNP)
|
mixed connective tissue disease
|
|
|
anti-TSH receptor
|
Grave's disease
|
|
|
ANA
|
SLE
|
|
|
Anti-dsDNA, anti-smith
|
SLE<br>
|
|
|
antihistone antibodies
|
Drug induced lupus
|
|
|
Anti-IgG
|
Rheumatoid factor
|
|
|
Anti-Scl-70
|
Scleroderma
|
|
|
Anti-desmoglein
|
Pemphigus vulgaris
|
|
|
Anti-Jo1
|
Polymyositis, dermatomyositis
|
|
|
Anti-SS-A (anti-Ro), Anti-SS-B (anti-La)
|
Sjogren's syndrome
|
|
|
Anti-smooth muscle
|
Autoimmune hepatitis
|
|
|
Agar for Haemophilus influenzae
|
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
|
|
|
N. gonorrhoeae agar
|
Thayer Martin media
|
|
|
B. pertussis agar
|
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
|
|
|
C. diphtheriae culture
|
Tellurite plate, Loffler's media
|
|
|
M. tuberculosis culture
|
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
|
|
|
M. pneumoniae culture
|
Eaton's agar (pyrimidines, purines, cholesterol)
|
|
|
E. coli culture
|
blue-black colonies with metallic sheen on Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar<br>
|
|
|
Legionella culture
|
Charcoal Yeast Extract agar
|
|
|
Sabourad's agar
|
Fungi
|
|
|
TCBS agar
|
V. cholera
|
|
|
Thioglycolate agar
|
Anaerobes
|
|
|
Enteric pathogens culture
|
Hektoen enteric agar or xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
|
|
|
Bipolar staining
|
Y. pestis
|
|
|
kidney-shaped diplococci
|
Neisseria<br>
|
|
|
Lancet-shaped diplococci
|
S. pneumoniae
|
|
|
Metachromatic staining
|
Corynebacterium
|
|
|
Gull's wings
|
Campylobacter
|
|
|
Catalase Positive Organisms
|
If you've got CGD, make <span style="font-weight:600;">SPACE</span> for organisms with catalase!<br><br>Staph<br>Pseudomonas<br>Aspergillus<br>Candida<br>Enterobacteriaciae
|
|
|
The only Gram positive bacterium that has endotoxin
|
Listeria
|
|
|
Name the 2 toxins that are Superantigens
|
Staphylococcus aureus: Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSST-1)<br>Streptococcus pyogenes: Scarlet fever (erythrogenic toxin)
|
|
|
Name the 4 ADP ribosylating (A-B) toxins and their targets
|
Cholera toxin: Gs (<span style="text-decoration: underline;">activates</span>)<br />ETEC heat labile toxin: Gs (<span style="text-decoration: underline;">activates</span>)<br />Pertussis toxin: Gi (inactivates)<br /><br />Diphtheria: EF-2 (inactivates)<br />Pseudomonas: EF-2 (inactivates)
|
|
|
Name the 4 toxins that increase cAMP
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">cAMP</span><br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>=<span style="font-weight:600;"> </span>cholera toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>=<span style="font-weight:600;"> </span>anthrax toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">∑</span>= ETEC heat labile toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">P= </span>Pertussis toxin
|
|
|
which bacterial toxin is in itself a bacterial adenyl cyclase?
|
bacillus anthracis toxin
|
|
|
Which 2 toxins cleave host cell rRNA (inactivate 60S ribosome)
|
Shiga toxin<br>Vero toxin (EHEC)
|
|
|
5 Bacterial toxins encoded in a lysogenic phage
|
ABCDE<br><br>Shig<span style="font-weight:600;">A</span>-like toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>otulinum toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>holera toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">D</span>iphtheria toxin<br><span style="font-weight:600;">E</span>rythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes
|
|
|
Fungal Pneumonia in Eastern states
|
Blastomycosis
|
|
|
Fungal Pneumonia in Mississippi and Ohio river valleys
|
Histoplasmosis
|
|
|
Fungal Pneumonia in Rural Latin America
|
Paracoccidiomycosis
|
|
|
Fungal Pneumonia in Southwestern states
|
Coccidiomycosis
|
|
|
45 degree branching septate hyphae
|
Aspergillus
|
|
|
pseudohyphae + budding yeasts at 20 degrees C
|
Candida<br>
|
|
|
Pigeon droppings
|
Cryptococcus
|
|
|
Bat and bird droppings
|
Histoplasma
|
|
|
irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at obtuse angles
|
Mucor and Rhizopus<br>
|
|
|
Treatment of toxoplasmosis
|
sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
|
|
|
Treatment of most trematodes and cestodes
|
Praziquantel<br><br>except neurocysticercosis and Echinococcus granulosus: Albendazole
|
|
|
Treatment of Loa loa, Wuchereria bancrofti, and Toxocara canis
|
Diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
Treatment of Onchocerca volvulus (rIVER blindness)
|
IVERmectin
|
|
|
Treatment of Dracunculus medinensis
|
Niridazole<br>
|
|
|
Treatment of intesitnal nematodes
|
Mebendazole
|
|
|
rose gardener's disease
|
sporotrichosis (local pustule or ulcer + ascending lymphangitis)<br><br>cigar shaped budding yeast visible in pus
|
|
|
All DNA viruses are dsDNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All DNA viruses are dsDNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">parvovirus ("part-of-a-virus")</span>
|
|
|
All RNA viruses are ssRNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
All RNA viruses are ssRNA except <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">reovirus ("repeato-virus") which is dsRNA</span>
|
|
|
Name the most prominent parvovirus and it's diseases
|
B19:<br>1. aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease<br>2. fifth disease (erythema infectiosum "slapped cheeks" rash)<br>3. hydrops fetalis
|
|
|
Name the herpes viruses
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">CHEV</span>rolet<br><br>CMV<br>HSV-1, HSV-2, HHV-6, HHV-8<br>EBV<br>VZV
|
|
|
what is the most prominent Polyomavirus and what diseases does it cause?
|
JC virus: PML (in HIV)
|
|
|
PML
|
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (caused by the JC virus)
|
|
|
Segmented viruses
|
BOAR (all are RNA viruses)<br><br>Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxoviruses, Arenaviruses, Reoviruses
|
|
|
Name the 2 Reoviruses and their diseases
|
Reovirus: Colorado tick fever<br>Rotavirus: MCC of fatal diarrhea in children
|
|
|
Picornaviruses
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">PERCH </span>on a "peak"<br><br>Poliovirus<br>Ecohvirus (meningitis)<br>Rhinovirus<br>Coxsackievirus (meningitis, herpangina, hand foot & mouth disease, myocarditis)<br>HAV
|
|
|
Caliciviruses
|
Norwalk virus: gastroenteritis
|
|
|
Flaviviruses
|
HCV<br>Yellow Fever<br>Dengue<br>St. Louis encephalitis<br>West Nile virus
|
|
|
Togaviruses
|
Early Romans Wore Togas<br><br>EEE (Eastern equine encephalitis)<br>Rubella<br>WEE (Western equine encephalitis)
|
|
|
Retroviruses
|
have reverse transcriptase<br><br>HIV<br>HTLV
|
|
|
Coronavirus
|
common cold and SARS
|
|
|
Paramyxoviruses
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>a<span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">R</span>a<span style="font-weight:600;">M</span>yxoviruses<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">P</span>arainfluenza: croup<br><span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>SV: bronchiolitis in rabies <span style="color:#ff208c;">(Rx is ribavirin)</span><br><span style="font-weight:600; color:#000000;">R</span><span style="color:#000000;">ubeola: Measles</span><br><span style="font-weight:600; color:#000000;">M</span><span style="color:#000000;">umps</span>
|
|
|
Filoviruses
|
Ebola/Marburg hemorrhagic rever
|
|
|
Arenaviruses
|
LCMV (lymphocytic chroiomeningitis virus)<br>Lassa fever encephalitis
|
|
|
Bunyaviruses
|
Bunyaviruses viciously destroy <span style="font-weight:600;">CH</span>u<span style="font-weight:600;">RCH</span>e<span style="font-weight:600;">S</span><br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>alifornia encephalitis<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">H</span>antavirus<br><span style="font-weight:600;">R</span>ift valley fever virus<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>rimean-<span style="font-weight:600;">C</span>ongo <span style="font-weight:600;">h</span>emorrhagic fever<br /><span style="font-weight:600;">S</span>andfly fever virus
|
|
|
Deltavirus
|
HDV
|
|
|
HIV-associated infections when CD4 count is <400
|
Superficial infections: oral thrush, tinea pedis, hairy leukoplakia<br>Reactivation of: TB, VZV<br>Other bacterial infections (H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, Salmonella)
|
|
|
HIV-associated infections when CD4 count is <200
|
Cysts: Pneumo<span style="font-weight:600;">cyst</span>is pneumonia, Crytposporidium and Isospora (acid fast <span style="font-weight:600;">cysts</span>)<br>Reactivation of HSV<br>disseminated coccidiodomycosis<br>
|
|
|
HIV-associated infections when CD4 count is <100
|
Candidal esophagitis, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis
|
|
|
HIV-associated infections when CD4 count is <50
|
CMV Retinitis and esophagititis<br>disseminated MAI<br>Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
|
|
|
Identify 1, 2, and 3<br><img src="ccff52a1f20f6cf06a716f77639c51ed.jpg" />
|
1: gp120<br>2: gp41<br>3: lipid membrane
|
|
|
Identify 4 and 5<br><img src="ccff52a1f20f6cf06a716f77639c51ed.jpg" />
|
4: p17 matrix protein<br>5: p24 capsid
|
|
|
Identify 6 and 7<br><img src="ccff52a1f20f6cf06a716f77639c51ed.jpg" />
|
6: RNA<br>7: reverse transcriptase
|
|
|
Structure of the Spleen
|
White Pulp:<br>1. PALS: T cells<br>2. Follicles: B cells<br><br>Red pulp: <br>1. Splenic cords: reticular cells, B and T cells, macrophages, blood cells (RBCs, platelets, granulocytes) [basically everything]<br>2. Sinusoids: Macrophages
|
|
|
LNs that drain stomach
|
celiac
|
|
|
LNs that drain duodenum, jejunum
|
superior mesenteric
|
|
|
LNs that drain sigmoid colon
|
colic --> inferior mesenteric
|
|
|
LNs that drain upper limb and breast
|
axillary
|
|
|
LNs that drain rectum (lower part) and anal canal (above pectinate line)
|
internal iliac
|
|
|
LNs that drain anal canal below pectinate line
|
superficial inguinal
|
|
|
LNs that drain scrotum and thigh
|
superficial inguinal
|
|
|
LNs that drain Testes
|
para-aortic
|
|
|
LNs that drain lateral side of dorsum of foot
|
popliteal
|
|
|
Function of Th1 cells
|
Make IL-2, IFN-gamma<br>Activate macrophages and Tc cells<br><br><br>Inhibited by IL-10
|
|
|
Functions of Th2 cells
|
Make IL-4, IL-5, IL-10<br />Help B cells make antibody<br /><br /><br />Inhibited by IFN-gamma
|
|
|
Activity of Natural Killer cells is enhanced by:
|
IL-12, IFN-alpha, IFN-beta
|
|
|
Main function of Interleukins 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">Hot T</span>-<span style="font-weight:600;">Bone</span> st<span style="font-weight:600;">EA</span>k<br /><br />IL-1: fever (Hot)<br />IL-2: growth of <span style="font-weight:600;">T</span> cells (Th and Tc)<br />IL-3: growth and differentiation of <span style="font-weight:600;">bone </span>marrow stem cells<br />IL-4: Ig<span style="font-weight:600;">E</span> production (class switching)<br />IL-5: Ig<span style="font-weight:600;">A</span> production (class switching) + activates eosinophils
|
|
|
IL-6
|
production of acute phase reactants and immunoglobulins
|
|
|
IL-8
|
Chemotactic factor for neutrophils
|
|
|
IL-10
|
inhibits Th1 cells
|
|
|
IL-12
|
activates NK cells and Th1 cells
|
|
|
IFN-gamma
|
stimulates macrophages
|
|
|
TNF
|
mediates septic shock<br>- leukocyte recruitment<br>- vascular leak
|
|
|
CD4, TCR, CD3, CD28, CD40L
|
Th cell
|
|
|
CD8, TCR, CD3
|
Tc cell
|
|
|
IgM, B7, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD40, MHC II
|
B cell
|
|
|
MHC II, B7, CD40, CD14, Fc receptor, C3b receptor
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
receptors for MHC I, CD16, CD56
|
NK cell
|
|
|
MHC I
|
all nucleated cells + platelets
|
|
|
MHC II
|
APCs (B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells)
|
|
|
Cefepime
|
4th generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Ceftriaxone
|
3rd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefoperazone
|
3rd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefoxitin
|
2nd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefaclor
|
2nd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefotaxime
|
3rd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefuroxime
|
2nd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefotetan
|
2nd generation cephalosporin<br>
|
|
|
Cephalexin
|
1st generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Cefazolin
|
1st generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Ceftazidime
|
3rd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
Spectrum of 1st generation cephalosporins
|
PECK<br><br>Proteus<br>E. coli<br>Cocci (gram positive)<br>Klebsiella
|
|
|
Spectrum of 2nd generation cephalosporin
|
HEN PECKS<br><br>Haemophilus influenzae<br>Enterobacter<br>Neisseria<br><br>Proteus<br>E. coli<br>Cocci (gram positive)<br>Klebsiella<br>Serratia
|
|
|
Use of 3rd generation cephalosporin
|
serious gram negative infections resistant to other beta lactams<br><br>e.g. meningitis (ceftriaxone)
|
|
|
Cephalosporins used to treat Pseudomonas
|
Taz, Fep, Fop<br><br>Ceftazidine<br><br>Cefepime<br><br>Cefoperazone
|
|
|
Lipid-soluble cephalosporins (eliminated in bile)
|
Ceftriaxone<br>Cefoperazone<br>Cefomandole
|
|
|
Lipid-soluble penicillins
|
Nafcillin and Oxacillin (excreted in bile)<br><br>Amoxicillin (enterohepatic cycling but excreted by kidneys)
|
|
|
Magic bullet for Gram negative <span style="font-weight:600;">Aerobes</span>? e.g. Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Serratia
|
Aztreonam<br><br>(no activity against gram positives or anaerobes)
|
|
|
Imipinem is always adiminstered with <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">[...]</span>
|
Imipinem is always adiminstered with <span style="font-weight:600; color:#0000ff;">cilastatin</span>
|
|
|
Cilastatin
|
inhibitor of renal dihydropeptidase I (which inactivates impinem in renal tubles)
|
|
|
Spectrum of Imipenem and meropenem
|
Widest spectrum of any antibiotic: Gram positive cocci, gram negative rods, anaerobes (drug of choice for Enterobacter)<br><br>But <span style="font-weight:600; text-decoration: underline;">NOT</span>: MRSA, atypical bacteria, some Pseudomonas
|
|
|
Side effects of Imipenem
|
GI stress<br>Skin rash<br>Seizures (less with meropenem)
|
|
|
Spectrum of Linezolid
|
Gram positives (including anaerobes) e.g. VRSA, VRE, drug-resistant pneumococci<br><br>but NOT Gram negatives
|
|
|
Side effects of Linezolid
|
bone marrow suppression (platelets)<br>
|
|
|
Streptogramins (Quinupristin, Dalfopristin)
|
VRSA, VRE, drug-restistant pneumococci<br><br>MOA similar to TTC
|
|
|
VRE (faecalis and faecium)
|
Streptogramins treat only E. faecium<br>Lenezolid treats both.
|
|
|
Aminoglycosides
|
"Mean" <span style="font-weight:600;">GNATS </span>canNOT kill anaerobes<br><br>Gentamycin<br>Neomycin<br>Amikacin<br>Tobramycin<br>Streptomycin<br><br>
|
|
|
Bugs resistant to Aminoglycosides
|
Amin<span style="font-weight:600;">O2</span>glycosides<br><br>Require O2 for uptake, therefore ineffective against anaerobes
|
|
|
Streptomycin
|
Aminoglycoside used to treat<br><br><span style="font-weight:600;">TB</span><br><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>ularemia<br><span style="font-weight:600;">B</span>ubonic plague
|
|
|
Side effects of Vancomycin
|
Nephrotoxic<br>Ototoxic<br>Thrombophlebitis<br>Red man syndrome (diffuse flushing): can be prevented by pretreatment with antihistamines and slow infusion rate.
|
|
|
Side effects of Aminoglycosides
|
Nephrotoxic<br>Ototoxic<br>Teratogenic<br>Neuromuscular blokade (decreases acetylcholine release) --> increases effects of skeletal muscle relaxants
|
|
|
Uses of Tetracyclines
|
A<span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>ypicals (chlamydia, ureaplasma, mycoplasma)<br><span style="font-weight:600;">T</span>ick-borne diseases (Rickettsia, Tularemia, Borrelia)<br>Acne<br>Vibrio<br><br>Doxyclicline: Prostatitis<br>Demeclocycline: SIADH<br>Minocycline: meningococcal carriers (or Rifampin)
|
|
|
Macrolides
|
Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin<br><br>Gram-positive cocci<br>Mycoplasma<br>*Legionella*<br>Chlamydia<br>Neisseria<br><br>URIs, Pneumonias, STDs
|
|
|
Treatment of Osteomyelitis (bone penetrating drugs)
|
Gram positive: Vancomycin<br>Gram negative: Quinolones
|
|
|
Lipid soluble Tetracycline
|
doxycycline
|
|
|
Lipid soluble Macrolide
|
Azithromycin
|
|
|
Antibiotics that potentiate neuromuscular blockers
|
Aminoglycosides<br>Clindamycin
|
|
|
Use of Clindamycin
|
<span style="font-weight:600;">Anaerobic infections above the diaphragm</span><br><br>Bacteroides fragilis<br>Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
MCC of clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis?
|
Clindamycin
|
|
|
MOA of sulfonamides
|
inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase
|
|
|
Use of of SMX-TMP
|
Nocardia<br />UTIs<br />PCP<br /><br />Gram positives<br />Gram negatives (shigella, salmonella)
|
|
|
Sulfasalazine
|
Sulfonamide<br><br>prodrug of salicylate used in <span style="font-weight:600;">ulcerative colitis </span>and <span style="font-weight:600;">rheumatoid arthritis</span>
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Aminoglycosides
|
conjugation: acetylation, adenylation, or phosphorylation
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Penicillins/Cephalosporins
|
1. Penicillinase<br>2. PBP changes (MRSA)<br>3. porins (gram negatives)
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Vancomycin
|
D-ala-D-ala to D-ala-D-lactate
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Chloramphenicol
|
acetylation
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to TTC
|
pumped out of bacteria
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Sulfonamides
|
1. altered enzyme (dihydropteroate synthetase)<br>2. -- uptake<br>3. ++ PABA synthesis
|
|
|
Mechanism of Drug resistance to Quinolones
|
1. altered enzyme (gyrase)<br>2. -- uptake
|
|
|
Antibiotic used to treat hypercortisolism
|
Ketoconazole
|
|
|
Side effects of Protease Inhibitors
|
GI upset<br>Hyperglycemia<br>Lipodystrophy<br>Thrombocytopenia<br>P450 inhibitors
|
|
|
Which HIV drugs causes pancreatitis
|
Ritonavir<br>Didanosine<br>Zalcitabine
|
|
|
Which HIV drug causes kidney stones
|
Indinavir
|
|
|
ZDV
|
Zidovudine
|
|
|
ddI
|
Didanosine
|
|
|
ddC
|
Zalcitabine
|
|
|
d4T
|
stavudine
|
|
|
3TC
|
lamivudine
|
|
|
Which HIV drugs causes peripheral neuropathy and pancreatitis
|
Didanosine<br>Zalcitabine
|
|
|
ANtibiotics to Avoid in pregnancy
|
SAFE Moms Take Really Good Care<br><br>Sulfonamides: kernicterus<br>Aminoglycosides: ototoxicity<br>Fluoroquinolones: cartilage damage<br>Erythromycin estolate: acute cholestatic hepatitis in mom<br><br>Metronidazole: mutagenesis<br>Tetracyclines: discolored teeth, inhibit growth<br>Ribavirin: teratogenic<br>Griseofulvin: teratogenic<br>Chloramphenicol: "gray baby"
|
|
|
Cerebellar defects (ataxia)<br>Spider angiomas (telangiectasia)<br>IgA deficiency
|
ataxia-telangiectasia (defect in DNA repair enzymes)
|
|
|
MOA of cyclosporine
|
forms complex with cyclophilins --> inhibit calcineurin --> block T-cell activation and differentiation
|
|
|
MOA of Muromonab
|
Binds to CD3 --> inhibits T-cell activation (2nd signal)
|
|
|
MOA of Azathioprine
|
antimetabolite (precursor of 6-MP)
|
|
|
Immunosuppressant that is nephrotoxic
|
Cyclosporine
|
|
|
Immunosuppressant that is nephrotoxic, neurotoxic, causes hypertension, hyperglycemia, and pleural effusion
|
Tacrolimus
|
|
|
Immunosuppressant that causes bone marrow suppression
|
Azathioprine
|
|
|
Immunosuppressant that causes cytokine release syndrome
|
Muromonab
|
|
|
Immunosupressant that leads to hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
|
Sirolimus
|
|
|
MOA of Tacrolimus
|
forms complex with FK-binding proteins --> inhibit calcineurin --> -- IL-2 --> -- T-cell activation and differentiation
|
|
|
MOA of Daclizumab
|
Mab against IL-2 receptor
|
