Itil V3 Foundations Study Cards

Front 1

Service Strategy consists of which four processes

Back 1

1. Strategy Generation
2. Financial Management
3. Service Portfolio Management
4. Demand Management

Front 2

Service Design consists of which seven processes

Back 2

1. Service Catalog Management
2. Service Level Management
3. Capacity Management
4. Availability Management
5. IT Service Continuity Management
6. Information Security Management
7. Supplier Management

Front 3

Service Transition consists of which seven processes

Back 3

1. Transition Planning and Support
2. Change Management
3. Service Asset and Configuration Management
4. Release and Deployment Management
5. Service Validation and Testing
6. Evaluation
7. Knowledge Management

Front 4

Service Operation consists of which five processes

Back 4

1. Event Management
2. Incident Management
3. Request Fulfillment
4. Problem Management
5. Access Management

Front 5

Continual Service Improvement consists of which three processes

Back 5

1. 7-Step Improvement Process
2. Service Measurement
3. Service Reporting

Front 6

What is Service Strategy

Back 6

Service Strategy focuses on governance and decision-making needed to stay tuned to customer expected outcomes.

Front 7

What is Service Design

Back 7

Service Design’s objective is to build structural service integrity through the design of appropriate and innovative services needed to meet business requirements for customer expected outcomes. Designing these services includes their architectural plan as well as the policies, processes, and procedures needed to support the services.

Front 8

What is Service Transition

Back 8

Service Transition’s objective is to prepare for and manage change, transitioning it from design into the live environment. It includes all the aspects of change, both the utility and the warranty, to ensure that once released to the live environment, it can be maintained with operational excellence.

Front 9

What is Service Operation

Back 9

Service Operation is concerned with “Business-as-Usual” activities. In this stage the business can see the value and quality of the strategy, design, and transition activities. Its primary focus is to deliver agreed levels of service.

Front 10

What is Continual Service Improvement

Back 10

Continual Service Improvement maintains value for customers through continually evaluating and improving the quality of service and the overall maturity of the Service Management Lifecycle and its processes. It aims to continually align and re-align IT services to business needs.

Front 11

What is Service Strategy's process Strategy Generation for

Back 11

Strategy Generation is comprised of four core activities: define the market, develop the offerings, develop strategic assets, and prepare for execution.

Front 12

What is Service Strategy's process Financial Management for

Back 12

Financial management covers the functions and processes responsible for managing an IT Service Provider’s budgeting, accounting, and charging requirements.

Front 13

What is Service Strategy's process Service Portfolio Management for

Back 13

A service portfolio is a collection of services defined by what business value they offer; it describes what the business needs are and how the service provider can meet those needs.

Service Portfolio Management is concerned with four key work methods: define, analyze, approve, and charter.

Front 14

What is Service Strategy's process Demand Management for

Back 14

Demand management is a critical component of service management; a lack of appropriate level of focus on demand is a big risk for service providers. Too much excess capacity creates high costs without sufficient value; too little capacity decreases value by negatively impacting customer assets.

Front 15

What is Service Design's process Service Catalog Management for

Back 15

A service catalog provides a single source where all services provided to the business by a service provider are captured. The service catalog consists of two parts: the business service catalog, which provides the customer view of services offered and how they map to business processes, and the technical service catalog, which provides the non-customer view of services offered and how they map to other services, components, and configuration items.

Front 16

What is Service Design's process Service Level Management for

Back 16

The goal of the Service Level Management process is to ensure that services are monitored and measured consistently and accurately toward agreed service levels with business and customers.

Front 17

What is Service Design's process Capacity Management for

Back 17

Capacity Management encompasses business, service, and component elements across the Service Lifecycle. Key to the success of Capacity Management is planning it in the Service Design Phase to ensure that capacity and performance will meet agreed to and projected demands of business and customers.

Front 18

What is Service Design's process Availability Management for

Back 18

Availability Management’s objective is to manage the availability plan for current and future availability requirements. It has a responsibility to monitor, measure, analyze, and report on all availability issues relating to services, components, and resources resulting in events, incidents, or problems. Continual analysis of the IT infrastructure should result in proactive planning, design, recommendation, and improvement of availability.

Front 19

What is Service Design's process IT Service Continuity Management for

Back 19

IT Service Continuity Management works in support of Business Continuity Management. Its aim is to maintain the appropriate plans and IT infrastructure to meet the business’ on-going need for service continuity and recovery capability.

Front 20

What is Service Design's process Information Security Management for

Back 20

Information Security Management aligns with Business security to control access, minimize potential security risks, monitor security breaches, counteract and stop repeat security incidents, and implement corrective measures to repair any impact as a result of security incidents.

Front 21

What is Service Design's process Supplier Management for

Back 21

Suppliers and their services must be managed to support IT Services and business expected outcomes. Supplier Management ensures that suppliers’ services provide value for money, meet targets defined in contracts and agreements, and that all terms and conditions of the contracts and agreements are complied with.

Front 22

What is Service Transition's process Transition Planning and Support for

Back 22

The Transition Planning and Support process is responsible for developing the Service Transition Strategy and Documenting Service Design Packages. Its two key focal points are to plan and coordinate resources and identify and manage risks to reduce the need for corrective actions through the release process and into the live environment.

Front 23

What is Service Transition's process Change Management for

Back 23

To minimize potential risk to the live environment, all changes must be controlled through recording, evaluation, authorization, prioritization, planning, testing, implementation, documentation, and review. It is the role of Change Management to ensure that standardized methods exist for all of these steps to ensure efficient handling of changes and minimize potential risks. Change Management also ensures that once changes have been introduced, they are tracked within the configuration management system for an accurate representation of the live environment.

Front 24

What is Service Transition's process Service Asset and Configuration Management for

Back 24

Service Assets are the capabilities and resources of a service provider. Configuration Items are the IT Services, hardware, software, accommodations, people, and formal process that support the Service Assets.

Service Asset and Configuration Management’s objective is to identify, baseline, maintain, and control changes to the service assets, the components (configuration items) that support those service assets, and the relationships between them. Configuration items may also include non-it assets from internal or external service providers where shared assets need to be controlled.

Front 25

What is Service Transition's process Release and Deployment Management for

Back 25

Release and Deployment Management is responsible for the processes, systems and functions necessary to package, build, test, and deploy a release into the live environment. It is accountable for establishing the services specified in the Transition Planning and Support Service Design Package assembled prior to final handover to service operations.

The goal of Release and Deployment Management is to deliver change, fast and cost effectively, with minimal risk.

Front 26

What is Service Transition's process Service Validation and Testing for

Back 26

Service Validation and Testing is responsible for planning and implementing a structured validation and test process. It directly supports Release and Deployment Management by ensuring that appropriate levels of testing are executed.

Front 27

What is Service Transition's process Evaluation for

Back 27

In the Evaluation process an Evaluation Plan is created and executed to consistently measure performance of a service change and provide associated metrics.

Actual performance is assessed against predicted performance and deviations are understood and managed.

Front 28

What is Service Transition's process Knowledge Management for

Back 28

The aim of Knowledge Management is to get the right information into the right hands at the right time to support business services. A knowledge Management Strategy is required to identify what information is considered useful, how that information should be organized, what level of cleansing should be performed on the information, and how that knowledge should be made available and presented.

Front 29

What is Service Operation's process Event Management for

Back 29

An event is defined as a change in state that is significant to a configuration item or service asset. When an event causes a deviation from the standard, acceptable level of service or has a high potential to impact the level of service, whether detected by users or not, an incident is logged.

Front 30

What is Service Operation's process Incident Management for

Back 30

An incident is any event that interrupts or has the potential to interrupt a service or the quality of the service.

Front 31

What is Service Operation's process Request Fulfillment for

Back 31

A service request is any request from a user for assistance, information, documentation, standard add, move, or change, or for access to an IT Service. Service requests differ from incidents in that an incident is an unplanned event whereas a service request can and should be planned.

Front 32

What is Service Operation's process Problem Management for

Back 32

A problem is defined as the unknown cause of one or more events or incidents. Problem Management is responsible for preventing incidents from occurring or reoccurring or to minimize the impact of incidents that can not be prevented.

Problem Management provides root cause analysis and ensures that permanent resolution is implemented through the Change and Release Management processes.

Front 33

What is Service Operation's process Access Management for

Back 33

Access Management is responsible for granting access to use a service to authorized users and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access. It executes both Availability Management and Security Management by helping to manage confidentiality, availability, and integrity of data and intellectual property.

Front 34

What is Continual Service Improvement's process 7-Step Improvement Process for

Back 34

The 7-Step improvement Process encompasses the steps necessary to gather, analyze, and present data and implement improvements.

Front 35

What is Continual Service Improvement's process Service Measurement for

Back 35

Service Measurement focuses on the measurements and metrics needed to manage services and processes and to report value to the business.

There are three key metrics types that need to be monitored for the success of Continual Service Improvement. They are Technology Metrics (component and application), Process Metrics (how well are the service management processes performing), Service Metrics (how well are service expectations being met).

Front 36

What is Continual Service Improvement's process Service Reporting for

Back 36

Though much data is captured and monitored internal to IT, only a small quantity is of interest to business and customers. The information of interest for business and customers provides a clear picture of how their service expectations are being met and how any deviations from expectations will be handled.

Specifically business and customers are looking to see how IT services performed in support of their business over time.

Front 37

What are the 7 steps in Continual Service Improvement's process 7-Step Improvement Process

Back 37

The specific steps are:

1. Define what should be measured
2. Determine what can be measured
3. Gather required data
4. Process data into required format
5. Analyze the data
6. Present and use the knowledge gained
7. Implement corrective actions.

Front 38

In Strategy Generation, what must be understood about the market

Back 38

service providers must understand their customers, understand the opportunities to serve their customers, and be able to visualize their services working with customer’s assets.

Front 39

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Back 39

B

Front 40

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only

Back 40

B

Front 41

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Back 41

C

Front 42

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services arc recorded in the Service Catalogue

Back 42

B

Front 43

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

Back 43

C

Front 44

Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Back 44

D

Front 45

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. Responds to specific events
D. A method of structuring an organization

Back 45

D

Front 46

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

Back 46

B

Front 47

What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

Back 47

D

Front 48

The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Back 48

B

Front 49

Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management

Back 49

D

Front 50

Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. Service Catalogue Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management

Back 50

D

Front 51

Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Back 51

C

Front 52

The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Back 52

D

Front 53

In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management: Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Back 53

B

Front 54

Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A change that is made as the result or an audit

Back 54

C

Front 55

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Business Relationship Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management

Back 55

C

Front 56

What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

Back 56

D

Front 57

Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

1. Service Portfolio design A. Service Transition
2. Value Creation through Service B. Service Strategy
3. The Service V model C. Service Design
4. Plan Do Check Act model D. Continual Service Improvement
A. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

Back 57

C

Front 58

Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Where the vendor of an application is located
B. Whether to buy an application or build it
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Should application development be outsourced

Back 58

B

Front 59

How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Cheek-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

Back 59

C

Front 60

Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

Back 60

B

Front 61

Which or the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users 10 request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Back 61

B

Front 62

What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
B. A type of Incident
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

Back 62

D

Front 63

In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line

Back 63

B

Front 64

Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
Architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

Back 64

A

Front 65

Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk
and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request fulfillment

Back 65

D

Front 66

Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on responsiveness
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus

Back 66

D

Front 67

Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimize salaries
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
D. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize the cost of training them

Back 67

C

Front 68

Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
B. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

Back 68

A

Front 69

Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Process Manager
B. Service Catalogue Manager
C. Supplier Manager
D. IT Designer/Architect

Back 69

C

Front 70

What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Requirements
B. Customer I Business Needs
C. Service Solution
D. Service Release

Back 70

B

Front 71

To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
C. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
D. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

Back 71

A

Front 72

"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Markets and Customers

Back 72

B

Front 73

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS can include user skill levels
C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
D. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

Back 73

C

Front 74

Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Utility and Warranty
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Applications and Infrastructure

Back 74

C

Front 75

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required Output

Back 75

B

Front 76

Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (OML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions or all software and back-ups are stored and protected

Back 76

B

Front 77

Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

Back 77

D

Front 78

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager

Back 78

B

Front 79

How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
C. By working with users to change their IT configurations
D. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution

Back 79

B

Front 80

One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions it includes?
A. Only capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only resources and capabilities needed
C. Only requirements needed and agreed
D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

Back 80

D

Front 81

Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Web front-end
C. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

Back 81

A

Front 82

Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation

Back 82

A

Front 83

The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of services and service management processes
B. The design and development of new services
C. The day-to-day operation and support of services
D. The design and development of service improvements

Back 83

A

Front 84

A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is about to be ended
B. The contract is being negotiated
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed

Back 84

B

Front 85

An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on cost
B. Excessive focus on quality
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessively reactive

Back 85

A

Front 86

Which of the following arc responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A. All of the above
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Back 86

D

Front 87

The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics include availability and capacity
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness
C. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the infrastructure

Back 87

C

Front 88

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. l, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 3 only

Back 88

A

Front 89

Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
C. Process Models. Goals and Objectives
D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions

Back 89

B

Front 90

In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
B. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers’ needs may not be met within business timescales
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on
responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability

Back 90

B

Front 91

Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management

Back 91

B

Front 92

Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide training and certification in project management.
C. Provide quality knowledge of Change. Release and Deployment Mgmt
D. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.

Back 92

B

Front 93

The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Back 93

A

Front 94

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
B. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
C. Eliminating recurring Incidents
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business

Back 94

D

Front 95

How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Showing the business impact of a change
B. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
C. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure

Back 95

C

Front 96

The MAIN purpose or tile Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Service Level Requirements
B. Functionality
C. Business Value
D. IT Assets

Back 96

C

Front 97

Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them
D. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards

Back 97

D

Front 98

Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?”
A. Service Design
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Back 98

D

Front 99

A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

Back 99

D

Front 100

Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
B. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
C. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator

Back 100

C

Front 101

Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Incident Management
B. Access Management
C. Change Management
D. Request Fulfillment

Back 101

B

Front 102

Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management

Back 102

D

Front 103

Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can be found
B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it
D. An Incident which has a high impact on the business

Back 103

D

Front 104

Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills arc available to manage the infrastructure
B. Assisting in the design or tile application
C. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
D. Deciding whether to buy or build an application

Back 104

A

Front 105

Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure delivery and support of a service
C. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
D. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

Back 105

B

Front 106

1. Which of the statements below concerning Value Creation are true?
a. An organization uses Service Assets to create value in the form of goods and services.
b. An organization relies on Capabilities to coordinate, control, and deploy Resources to produce value.
0 A and B
0 A
0 B
0 None of the above

Back 106

A and B Both of the statements are true. (Service Strategy) - Key Principles and Models

Front 107

2. What ITIL Function acts as a single point of contact for IT users on a day to day basis?
0 Incident Management
0 Application Management
0 Service Desk
0 IT Operations Management

Back 107

Service Desk The Service Desk is the function which acts as a single point of contact for IT users on a day to day basis. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 108

3. Which of the following is not one of the four main activities under Service Strategy?
0 Define the Market
0 Service Portfolio Management
0 Develop Strategic Assets
0 Prepare for Execution

Back 108

Service Portfolio Management Service Portfolio Management is not one of the 4 main activities, and is a major aspect of Service Design. The main activity missing under Service Strategy is "Develop the Offerings". (Service Strategy) - Selected Processes

Front 109

4. Fitness for use, or the assurance that products and services provided will meet certain specifications, reflects which concept below?
0 Utility
0 Resources
0 Warranty
0 Service Management

Back 109

Warranty Warranty reflects "fitness for use" and assures customers that certain specifications are met for products or services; also, performance variation is reduced with warranty. (Service Management) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 110

5. What ITIL Core volume is most closely aligned with the processes of Service Measurement, Service Improvement and Service Reporting?
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Transition
0 Service Design
0 Service Strategy

Back 110

Continual Service Improvement Continual Service Improvement is most closely aligned with the processes of Service Measurement, S service Improvement and Service Reporting (Service Lifecycle)

Front 111

6. Which of the items below holds together any and all relevant CIs, along with their related attributes, in a centralized location; and is capable of linking to Incident, Problem, and Change records?
0 Definitive Media Store
0 Discovery, Deployment, and Licensing Technologies
0 Asset Management System (AMS)
0 Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS)

Back 111

An Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS) holds together any and all relevant CIs, along with their related attributes, in a centralized location; and is capable of linking to Incident, Problem, and Change records. (Service Management) - Technology and Architecture

Front 112

7. What item below does not represent a primary step in developing a RACI chart?
0 Identify the activities and processes
0 Coordinate meeting to assign RACI Code
0 Review SLA to ensure custom requirements are maintained
0 Identify assignment gaps or overlays

Back 112

Reviewing SLAs does not represent a primary step in the development of a RACI chart. (Service Management / Service Lifecycle) - Selected Roles

Front 113

8. Which of the items below represents a service provider's investments across all market spaces, and includes the Service Catalogue, Service Pipeline, and Retired Services?
0 Service Lifecycle
0 Market Space
0 Customer Assets
0 Service Portfolio

Back 113

The Service Portfolio encompasses the Service Catalogue, Service Pipeline, and Retired Services. (Service Strategy) - Selected Processes

Front 114

9. What ITIL function manages and maintains the IT infrastructure by managing the physical IT environment and provides Operations Control and Facilities Management?
0 Service Desk
0 Technical Management
0 Application Management
0 IT Operations Management

Back 114

The IT Operations Management function maintains the IT infrastructure by managing the physical IT environment and provides Operations Control and Facilities Management. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 115

10. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes is applied when planning to design and modify services and processes?
0 Service Transition
0 Service Design
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Strategy

Back 115

Service Design provides guidance when designing and developing services and processes. (Service Lifecycle)

Front 116

11. Within the Service Lifecycle, how would the following events best be sequenced?
a. Service Design begins architecting the service
b. The service becomes part of the Service Catalogue
c. An organization makes a strategic decision to charter a service
0 A, B, C
0 C, A, B
0 B, C, A
0 C, B, A

Back 116

C, A, B The proper sequence is for a decision to be made to charter a service, the service gets designed, the service ultimately becomes part of the organization's Service Catalogue. (Service Design) - Key Principles and Models

Front 117

12. Which of the following statements regarding the RACI model are true?
a. The RACI model clarifies expectations regarding assigned activities to all people involved
b. The RACI model identifies process delivery gaps
c. The RACI model is rigidly applied, and does not have any variations aside from the four main roles
0 Only A is true
0 Only B and C are true
0 Only A and B are true
0 All of the statements above are true

Back 117

Only A and B are true The RACI model has variations which include the RASCI model (adds a "Supportive" role), and the RACI-VS model (adds "Verifies" and "Signs off" roles). (Service Management / Service Lifecycle) - Selected Roles

Front 118

13. What item is recorded in the SLA, and defines the expected times for which a customer should have access to a particular service?
0 Capacity
0 Demand
0 Utility
0 Availability

Back 118

Availability defines when a customer should expect to have access to a particular service and is defined in the SLA. (Service Design) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 119

14. Which of the following processes are not associated with Service Design?
0 Service Catalogue Management
0 Service Level Management
0 Availability Management
0 Service Measurement

Back 119

Service Measurement is a process covered by Continual Service Management. All of the others belong to Service Design. (Service Design) - Selected Processes

Front 120

15. Which item below best reflects a group, team, or person that performs tasks relevant to a specific process?
0 Function
0 Best Practice
0 Role
0 Service

Back 120

Role Under ITIL, this statement best describes a Role. (ITIL V3 Service Strategy) - Service Management as a practice

Front 121

16. What are the two primary areas of service improvement to be expected from Service Automation?
a. Utility
b. Warranty
c. Security
d. Capacity
0 A & B
0 B & C
0 C & D
0 A & D

Back 121

A and B Utility and Warranty are expected to be improved in services as a result of Service Automation. (Service Management) - Technology and Architecture

Front 122

17. Availability of services, controlling demand, and optimizing the use of existing capacity in a day-to-day service environment are most critical to which of the following ITIL Core volumes?
0 Service Design
0 Service Operation
0 Service Transition
0 Continual Service Improvement

Back 122

Service Operation provides guidance on the effectiveness and efficiency for the delivery and support of operational (day-to-day) services to customers, and focuses heavily on the availability of services, controlling demand, and optimizing the use of existing capacity. (Service Lifecycle)

Front 123

18. Under Service Operation, what principles balance the risk of delivering more than what is necessary (at a higher cost) versus delivering substandard services which are under budget?
0 Stability vs. Responsiveness
0 Quality of Service vs. Cost of Services
0 Reactive vs. Proactive
0 IT Service vs. Technology Component

Back 123

Quality of Service vs. Cost of Service balance the risk of delivering more than what is necessary (at a higher cost) versus delivering substandard services which are under budget. (Service Operation) - Key Principles and Models

Front 124

19. A Service Desk structure consisting of multiple Service Desks which appear to form a single unit, can be located anywhere, and rely upon modern telecommunication technology is termed:
0 Centralized Service Desk
0 Offshore Service Desk
0 Call Center
0 Virtual Service Desk

Back 124

A virtual Service Desk appears to users as a single support unit, even though it may consist of many personnel which are remotely dispersed. (Service Operation) Selected Functions

Front 125

20. Under Service Design, what process is used by an organization to meet the objectives of confidentiality, information integrity, information availability, and authenticity of information?
0 Availability Management
0 Supplier Management
0 Service Level Management
0 Information Security Management

Back 125

Information Security Management supports the main objectives of confidentiality, integrity, availability, and authenticity. (Service Design) - Selected Processes

Front 126

21. What role is responsible for ensuring agreed levels of service availability are maintained, monitors the actual availability of services achieved, and manages the Availability Plan?
0 Service Continuity Manager
0 Availability Manager
0 Capacity Manager
0 Demand Manager

Back 126

The Availability Manager performs the activities above, and also assesses the potential impacts of change in relation to service availability; may also attend the CAB. (Service Design) - Selected Roles

Front 127

22. Which of the following statements describing a process in ITIL are true?
a. A process includes all of the resources required to deliver the outputs.
b. A process may not define or revise organizational policies or standards
0 A and B
0 A
0 B
0 Both of the above are false

Back 127

A Under ITIL, a process may indeed define and revise organizational policies or standards, as well as guidelines, activities, and work instructions if needed. (ITIL V3 Service Strategy) - Service Management as a practice

Front 128

23. What concept allows management to better understand a service's quality requirements, and presents both the associated costs and expected benefits?
0 Business Case
0 Technical Service Catalogue
0 Risk Analysis
0 Service Portfolio

Back 128

Business Case A Business Case presents management with a service's quality requirements and associated delivery costs, in addition to models which outline what a service is expected to achieve. (Service Lifecycle) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 129

24. What stage of the Deming Cycle requires the actual implementation of improvements to Service and Service Management processes?
0 Plan
0 Do
0 Check
0 Act

Back 129

Act The "Act" stage of the Deming Cycle requires implementation of the improvement to the Service and Service Management processes. (Continual Service Improvement) - Key Principles and Models

Front 130

25. A broad concept reflecting an organization's informed decision making process, underpinned by data from the CMDB and CMS is known as what?
0 Service Catalogue
0 Quality Management System
0 Service Model
0 Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)

Back 130

The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) leverages underpinning data stored in the CMDB, which flows through the CMS, to make informed decisions. (Service Lifecycle) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 131

26. To ensure that a process is continually improved and meets its objectives, it is most critical that the process has which of the following?
0 A Process Policy
0 Process Capabilities
0 Process Enablers
0 A Process Owner

Back 131

The Process Owner is responsible for ensuring a process meets its objectives and is continually improved. (ITIL V3 Service Design)

Front 132

27. Which of the following processes is not owned by the ITIL V3 Core volume Service Transition?
0 Service Assets and Configuration Management
0 Change Management
0 Release and Deployment Management
0 Operation Management

Back 132

Operation Management is owned by the ITIL V3 Core volume "Service Operation". (Service Transition) - Selected Processes

Front 133

28. Which of the Service Desk performance indicators below would least likely be measured by means of a customer survey?
0 Was the support call answered quickly
0 Were users provided guidance which was easy to follow and accurate
0 Is the user perception of the company improved based on their experience with the Service Desk
0 What was the percentage of calls answered within 45 seconds of entering the system

Back 133

What was the percentage of calls answered within 45 seconds of entering the system? The percentage of calls answered within X amount of seconds is a quantitative performance indicator not normally measured by a customer survey, and is typically tracked in an automated fashion. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 134

29. Taking in to account the dominant pattern of the Service Lifecycle, what area focuses on policies, standards, and objectives; and creates outputs which are used by Service Design?
0 Service Transition
0 Service Design
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Strategy

Back 134

Service Strategy The dominant pattern of progress in the Service Lifecycle is for Service Design to follow Service Strategy; Service Strategy focuses on the creation of policies, standards, and objectives (Service Lifecycle)

Front 135

30. Which of the following items fall under the area of Process Control in the Process Model?
a. Process Owner
b. Process Resources
c. Process Policy
d. Process Capabilities
0 A, C
0 B, D
0 A, B, C
0 B, C, D

Back 135

A, C The Process Owner and Process Policy fall under the area of Process Control in the Process Model; Process Resources and Process Capabilities fall under the area of Process Enablers... (ITIL V3 Service Design) - Service Management as a practice

Front 136

31. Which of the following is not one of the three types of metrics under Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
0 Technology Metrics
0 Process Metrics
0 Baseline Metrics
0 Service Metrics

Back 136

Baseline Metrics The three types of metrics covered under Continual Service Improvement are Technology, Process, and Service metrics. (Continual Service Improvement) - Key Principles and Models

Front 137

32. Carpenter Consulting has been experiencing a spike in the level of support calls received over the past week. Many of the incidents reported require immediate attention to minimize disruptions to service. How should the priority of incidents be addressed?
0 Incident should be prioritized based on the order each request is received
0 Incident should be prioritized based on the number of people affected by a given disruption
0 Incident should be prioritized based on their urgency and impact
0 Incident should be prioritized based on the importance/seniority of the person making the request

Back 137

Incidents should be prioritized based on their impact and urgency. When several incidents are being dealt with at the same time, priority must be determined based on the impact and urgency of each incident. (Service Operation) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 138

33. What role is responsible for managing the CMS, as well as for managing the CIs and defining their naming conventions?
0 Service Asset Manager
0 Configuration Manager
0 Change Manager
0 Configuration Control Board

Back 138

The Configuration Manager is responsible for managing the Configuration Management System (CMS), as well as for managing the Configuration Items (CIs) and defining their naming conventions. (Service Transition) - Selected Roles

Front 139

34. Which of the items below are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk?
a. Number of incidents resolved without escalation
b. Percentage of incidents properly logged
c. Number of telephone calls which were answered courteously, as reported in customer surveys
0 A and B
0 B and C
0 A and C
0 All of the above

Back 139

All of the above All of the responses are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk. Some performance indicators are more qualitative and best measured via customer surveys, such as whether telephone calls were courteously answered. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 140

35. Which of the following statements regarding Process Control are true?
a. Processes which are controlled can be repeated
b. The extent of control over a process should be defined after measurement metrics are determined for a given process
c. An organization should document and control defined processes
0 A and B
0 B and C
0 A and C
0 All of the above

Back 140

A and C Under the Process Control activity, the extent of control over a process should be defined before measurement metrics are defined. (ITIL V3 Service Design) - Service Management as a practice

Front 141

36. A Problem whose root cause has already been determined, and for which a Workaround has been documented, is known as what?
0 Event
0 Known Error
0 Alert
0 Incident

Back 141

A Known Error is a problem whose cause is known and for which a workaround has been documented. (Service Operation) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 142

37. The failure of a Configuration Item (CI), which has not yet impacted service, is known as what?
0 Incident
0 Event
0 Alert
0 Problem

Back 142

Incident Even if the service has not yet been impacted, the failure of a CI is considered an incident. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 143

38. A set of connected behaviors or actions which are performed by a person, team, or group in a specific context is known as what?
0 An Event
0 A Resource
0 A Service
0 A Role

Back 143

A Role This statement represents the definition of a role. (Service Strategy) - Selected Roles

Front 144

39. What does Service Design pass on to Service Transition for each new service, major change to an existing service, or removal of a service?
0 Delta Roles
0 Request for Change (RFC)
0 Incident
0 Service Design Package (SDP)

Back 144

A Service Design Package (SDP) is passed on from Service Design to Service Transition each time a service is added, changed, or removed. (Service Design) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 145

40. WebSphere Hosting, a web site hosting company, received a support request from one of its clients. The client requested that a backup of their web site's database be made available for download. A look at the SLA shows that this request should be accommodated by WebSphere Hosting within 24 hours. How best can this request be categorized?
0 A Known Error
0 A Service Level Requirement
0 A Change Request
0 A Service Request

Back 145

A Service Request ITIL defines standard services which are agreed to in the SLA as Service Requests. Service requests are handled using the Incident Management process. (Service Operation) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 146

1. What concept below reflects "fitness for purpose" and represents the characteristics of a service which a customer gets to achieve desired outcomes?
0 Warranty
0 Utility
0 Resources
0 Service Management

Back 146

Utility Utility reflects "fitness for purpose" and is what the customer gets to achieve desired outcomes. (Service Management) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 147

2. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes places and prioritizes improvement programs according to strategic objectives?
0 Service Strategy
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Transition
0 Service Operation

Back 147

Continual Service Improvement accommodates learning and improvement, and prioritizes improvement programs and projects in accordance with an organization's strategic objectives. (Service Lifecycle)

Front 148

3. Which of the statements below are true regarding service assets?
a. The justification to maintain and upgrade service assets is increased as the demand for those service assets increase
b. Costs incurred by accommodating the demand for services are recovered from the customer through agreed terms and conditions
0 A and B
0 A
0 B
0 Both statements are false

Back 148

A and B Both statements above are true. As more demand is generated for services, there is more reason to keep those services maintained. The cost of offering a service to a customer is recovered from the customer.(ITIL V3 Service Strategy) - Service Management as a practice

Front 149

4. Which of the following are valid objectives of the ITIL Service Desk function?
a. To quickly restore normal service to users after an interruption
b. To provide first-line support to users
c. To manage the resolution of incidents
d. To escalate requests which cannot be resolved by first-line support
0 A, B
0 A, B, D
0 B, C, D
0 All of the above are valid of objectives of the Service Desk function

Back 149

All of the items listed are valid objectives of the Service Desk Function. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 150

5. What role acts as the primary point of contact to customers for all service related questions and issues, ensures that customer delivery and support requirements are met, and may identify opportunities for service improvements which result in raised RFCs?
0 Service Owner
0 Process Owner
0 Change Manager
0 Service Level Manager

Back 150

The Service Owner is responsible for the activities listed above; In addition, the Service Owner will communicate with Process Owners over the course of the Service Management lifecycle. (Service Management / Service Lifecycle) - Selected Roles

Front 151

6. Under ITIL, what are the 4 "P"s which facilitate effective Service Management?
0 People, Processes, Products, Partners
0 Profit, Procedures, Products, Potential
0 People, Procedures, Profit, Planning
0 People, Procedures, Profit, Performance

Back 151

People, Processes, Products, Partners The 4 "P"s of Service Management, as defined by ITIL, are People, Processes, Products, Partners. (Service Design) - Key Principles and Models

Front 152

7. What generic Service Management concept(s) allows defined processes such as an organization's Incident Lifecycle and Change Model to be pre-defined and controlled, resulting in the automatic management of items such as escalation paths and alerting?
0 Service Assets
0 Workflow or process engine
0 Incident workarounds
0 The Deming Cycle

Back 152

Workflows and/or process engines allow processes to be pre-defined and controlled, resulting in automatic management of the items described. (Service Management) - Technology and Architecture

Front 153

8. Which of the Service Strategy statements below are true?
a. Both Resources and Capabilities are types of assets
b. Capabilities are easier for an organization to acquire than Resources
0 A
0 B
0 Both A and B are false

Back 153

A Resources are easier for an organization to acquire than Capabilities; Capabilities relate to the management, processes, and knowledge within the organization. (Service Strategy) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 154

9. What term best represents the concept of outcomes desired by customers, in combination with the services available to facilitate those outcomes?
0 Service Portfolio
0 Service Catalogue
0 Market Space
0 Market Value

Back 154

Market Space is represented by the desired outcomes of customers, along with the services available to support those outcomes. (Service Strategy) - Selected Processes

Front 155

10. What aspect of Service Design is concerned with designing the calculation methods and metrics of services?
0 Technology architectural design
0 Process Design
0 Measurement Design
0 Service Portfolio Management

Back 155

Measurement Design In Service Design, Measurement Design is concerned with designing the calculation methods and metrics of services. (Service Design) - Key Principles and Models

Front 156

11. What type of Service Desk is typically dispersed geographically, provides 24 hour support at a relatively low cost, and may need to provide safeguards which address different cultures?
0 Local Service Desk
0 Centralized Service Desk
0 Virtual Service Desk
0 Follow the Sun

Back 156

Follow the Sun The characteristics above describe a Follow the Sun approach. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 157

12. Which of the models below identifies a specific role which would provide additional resources to conduct work or assist with implementation?
0 RACI
0 RACI-VS
0 RASCI
0 PDCA

Back 157

RASCI The RASCI model adds the role of "Supportive"; this role would provide additional resources to conduct work or assist with implementation. (Service Management / Service Lifecycle) - Selected Roles

Front 158

13. What statement below best describes the concept of "Service Management" in ITIL?
0 A set of specialized capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
0 A logical concept referring to people and automatic measures that execute a defined process, an activity, or combination thereof
0 A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes they want to achieve, without the ownership of specific costs and risks
0 A team, unit, or person that performs tasks related to a specific process

Back 158

ITIL describes Service Management as "A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.” (ITIL V3 Service Strategy) - Service Management as a practice

Front 159

14. What types of context-sensitive tools execute automated scripts which assist with diagnosing incidents in a short amount of time?
0 Remote control tools
0 Discovery, Deployment, and Licensing Technologies
0 Integration Configuration Management System (CMS)
0 Diagnostic Utilities

Back 159

Diagnostic utilities use automated scripts to diagnose incidents earlier, and are context sensitive regarding the application. (Service Management) - Technology and Architecture

Front 160

15. You are responsible for documenting the required level of service and performance targets with your organization's internal Application Support group so that the expected level of service can be delivered to the customer. What is this internal, underpinning document referred to as?
0 Operational Level Agreements
0 Availability Management Plan
0 Service Level Agreement
0 Service Catalogue

Back 160

Operational Level Agreement (OLA) An OLA would document the level of service and performance target expected of internal departments within the organization. (Service Design) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 161

16. Which of the following statements regarding the Service Portfolio are true?
a. The Service Portfolio should form part of a Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS
b. The Service Portfolio should be registered as a document within an organization's Configuration Management System (CMS)
0 A and B
0 A
0 B
0 None of the above is true

Back 161

A and B The Service Portfolio should be part of an overarching SKMS, and should also be registered as a document in the CMS. (Service Design) - Key Principles and Models

Front 162

17. Which of the following is not a key metric associated with Service Level Management?
0 SLA Targets Missed
0 SLA Breaches in underpinning contracts
0 Number of services covered by an SLA
0 Customer satisfaction of SLA achievement

Back 162

Number of services covered by an SLA The number of services covered by an SLA is not a metric which would be tracked. (Service Design) - Selected Processes

Front 163

18. An item such as a service component or an asset of the organization which is under the control of Configuration Management is known as what?
0 Configuration Item (CI)
0 Configuration Management System (CMS)
0 Variant
0 Resource

Back 163

A Configuration Item (CI) includes any item which is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management. (Service Transition) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 164

19. What role is responsible for identifying and documenting the value of services within an organization and provides cost information to Service Portfolio Management?
0 IT Financial Manager
0 Service Level Manager
0 Demand Manager
0 Product Manager

Back 164

The IT Financial Manager is responsible for identifying and documenting the value of services within an organization and provides cost information to Service Portfolio Management. (Service Strategy) - Selected Roles

Front 165

20. What statement below is true regarding a Function?
0 A function must be performed by multiple personnel, representing an organizational unit
0 A single person must focus on a single function only
0 Functional, hierarchies decrease cross-functional coordination within an organization
0 A function optimizes work methods by focusing on specific outcomes

Back 165

A function optimizes work methods by focusing on specific outcomes A function can be performed by as little as one person within an organization. In smaller organizations, single persons may be multi-functional. Functional hierarchies increase cross-functional coordination, eliminating silos within an organization.(ITIL V3 Service Design) - Service Management as a practice

Front 166

21. What Service Design process ensures agreed levels of availability from the SLA is met, and maintains an Availability Plan which reflects the current and future needs of the organization?
0 Service Level Management
0 Capacity Management
0 Availability Management
0 Service Catalogue Management

Back 166

As the name suggests, Availability Management ensures agreed levels of availability from the SLA is met, and maintains an Availability Plan which reflects the current and future needs of the organization. (Service Design) - Selected Processes

Front 167

22. What Service Operation principle focuses on the ability to respond to changes without impacting other services?
0 Responsiveness
0 Quality of Service
0 Cost of Service
0 Stability

Back 167

"Responsiveness" focuses on the ability to respond to changes without impacting other services. (Service Operation) - Key Principles and Models

Front 168

23. Which of the following items do not represent a valid term for the structure of a Service Desk?
0 Centralized Service Desk
0 Production Service Desk
0 Local Service Desk
0 Virtual Service Desk

Back 168

Production Service Desk The common terms used to define options for structuring Service Desks are Centralized Service Desk, Local Service Desk, Virtual Service Desk, and the Follow the Sun approach. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 169

24. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes relies on practices and methods from Quality Management, Change Management, and the enhancement of capabilities?
0 Service Design
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Operation
0 Service Transition

Back 169

Continual Service Improvement integrates the practices and methods from Quality Management, Change Management, and the improvement of capabilities. (Service Lifecycle)

Front 170

25. What item is responsible for storing only those services which currently active and being offered by the organization?
0 Service Catalogue
0 Service Pipeline
0 Service Specification
0 Service Portfolio

Back 170

The Service Catalogue consists of services currently being offered. The Service Pipeline consists entirely of services in development. The Service Portfolio consists of services in development, services currently being offered, and services which have been retired. (Service Lifecycle) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 171

26. What role is responsible for ensuring IT capacity is adequate for the delivery of services, produces and maintains a Capacity Plan, and balances capacity with demand?
0 Capacity Manager
0 Availability
0 Service Level Manager
0 Demand Manager

Back 171

The Capacity Manager performs the activities above, and also configures monitoring of capacity via different types of performance reporting. (Service Design) - Selected Roles

Front 172

27. In which of the following areas can Service Management be positively impacted by automation?
a. Design and modeling
b. Service Catalogue
c. Classification and routing
d. Optimization
0 A and B
0 B and C
0 A, C, and D
0 All of the above

Back 172

All of the above Service Management can benefit from automation in all of the areas listed; in addition, pattern recognition and analysis, and detection and monitoring may also be improved. (Service Management) - Technology and Architecture

Front 173

28. A Service Desk structure which utilizes a number of sites, located in different time zones, in an effort to provide 24 hour support is referred to as:
0 Full coverage support
0 Full service support
0 Follow the Sun
0 Follow the Moon

Back 173

As the term suggests, "Follow the sun support" aims to provide users with around the clock support. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 174

29. What concept allows management to better understand a service's quality requirements, and presents both the associated costs and expected benefits?
0 Business Case
0 Technical Service Catalogue
0 Risk Analysis
0 Service Portfolio

Back 174

A Business Case presents management with a service's quality requirements and associated delivery costs, in addition to models which outline what a service is expected to achieve. (Service Lifecycle) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 175

30. Under Service Design, what process is used to manage Underpinning Contracts with vendors through their lifecycle; and assures that those Underpinning Contracts are aligned with targets specified in customer SLAs?
0 Supplier Management
0 Capacity Management
0 Service Level Management
0 Information Security Management

Back 175

Supplier Management Underpinning Contracts are agreements made with 3rd party suppliers/vendors, and must be in alignment with customer SLAs. Supplier Management ensures this. (Service Design) - Selected Processes

Front 176

31. Which of the following is not a Core volume of the ITIL V3 Library?
0 Service Strategy
0 Service Transition
0 Continual Service Improvement
0 Service Catalogue Management

Back 176

Service Catalogue Management The Core volumes of ITIL V3 are Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement (Service Lifecycle)

Front 177

32. In ITIL, the activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of performing a process in an effective, efficient and consistent manner is known as what?
0 The Process Model
0 Process Change
0 Process Control
0 Process Policy

Back 177

Process Control plans and regulates processes so that they are performed effectively, efficiently, and consistently. (ITIL V3 Service Design) - Service Management as a practice

Front 178

33. What role is responsible for formally authorizing changes, and may delegate this responsibility to another role based on pre-defined parameters such as risk and cost?
0 Product Manager
0 Change Authority
0 Change Manager
0 Change Advisory Board

Back 178

The Change Authority (which is a given role, person, or group) is responsible for the activities listed above. (Service Transition) - Selected Roles

Front 179

34. Which of the following items is not a recognized Change Type under Service Transition?
0 Normal
0 Standard (Pre-authorized)
0 Emergency
0 Planned

Back 179

Planned The three Change Types defined by ITIL are Normal (not pre-approved), Standard (Pre-authorized), and Emergency. (Service Transition) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 180

35. Which of the following items below would least likely be categorized as a Service Request?
0 A request for a password reset to allow a user to log in to a time tracking program
0 A request for a user manual for the corporate extranet
0 A request for user’s network connection which failed after an application caused an error
0 A request for a database extract from an information system

Back 180

A request to fix a user's network connection which failed after an application caused an error As Service Requests are classified as incidents which do not reflect a failure in the IT infrastructure, the user whose application caused an error would be the correct response. (Service Operation) - Selected Functions

Front 181

36. What role is responsible for owning, maintaining, and protecting the Known Error Database?
0 Incident Manager
0 Problem Manager
0 Alert Manager
0 Event Manager

Back 181

The Problem Manager is responsible for the Known Error Database, and initiates the formal closure of all Problem records. (Service Operation) - Selected Roles

Front 182

37. Under Continual Service Improvement (CSI), what type of metrics is computed from component metrics?
0 Technology Metrics
0 Process Metrics
0 Baseline Metrics
0 Service Metrics

Back 182

Service Metrics are computed from component metrics, and are the result of the end-to-end service. (Continual Service Improvement) - Key Principles and Models

Front 183

38. What Service Strategy process quantifies the financial value of IT Services, assets which underlie the provisioning of services, and the qualifications of operational forecasting?
0 Demand Management
0 Financial Management
0 Strategy Generalization
0 Service Portfolio Management

Back 183

Financial Management is the Service Strategy process responsible for quantifying the financial value of IT services, assets, and qualifications of operational forecasting. (Service Strategy) - Selected Processes

Front 184

39. The ability of an organization to transform resources in to services which can offer value to customers is a critical concept for which of the following?
0 Process Model
0 Service Management
0 Role
0 Good Practice

Back 184

Service Management The statement describes a core concept of Service Management in ITIL. (ITIL V3 Service Strategy) - Service Management as a practice

Front 185

40. During a client discussion, you are asked to summarize the meaning of an Incident. Which of the items below most appropriately defines an Incident?
0 The unknown root cause of one or more disruption to service
0 Any event which may lead to the disruption, or decreased quality, of a service
0 A disruption for when the root cause is known
0 A support request not involving a failure in the IT infrastructure

Back 185

Any event which may lead to the disruption, or decreased quality, of a Service A support request not resulting from a failure in the IT infrastructure is a type of Incident (Service Request), but is not broad enough. (Service Operation) - Generic Concepts and Definitions

Front 186

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?

Back 186

C

Front 187

What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

Back 187

A

Front 188

What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison

Back 188

D

Front 189

4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

Back 189

A

Front 190

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated?
by the customer’s business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management

Back 190

A

Front 191

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy

Back 191

A

Front 192

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above

Back 192

C

Front 193

8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

Back 193

D

Front 194

9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

Back 194

C

Front 195

10. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved
in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

Back 195

A

Front 196

11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different
IT components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization

Back 196

B

Front 197

12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4.?
5.?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management

Back 197

A

Front 198

13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the
Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System

Back 198

A

Front 199

14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Back 199

C

Front 200

15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers

Back 200

B

Front 201

16. The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed
Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or
delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or
improvement program

Back 201

B

Front 202

17. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization
of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services

Back 202

B

Front 203

18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the
IT infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

Back 203

C

Front 204

19. The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big bang vs. Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management

Back 204

B

Front 205

20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

Back 205

C

Front 206

21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the
service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology

Back 206

B

Front 207

22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement

Back 207

A

Front 208

23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control
action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices

Back 208

A

Front 209

24. Consider the following statements:
1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Back 209

D

Front 210

25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

Back 210

A

Front 211

26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is
likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

Back 211

C

Front 212

27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the
delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from
Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement

Back 212

A

Front 213

28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications
and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the same location

Back 213

C

Front 214

29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether
the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.

Back 214

C

Front 215

30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release

Back 215

B

Front 216

31. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business

Back 216

D

Front 217

32. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and
Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the
infrastructure when Operators are not available

Back 217

B

Front 218

33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result
4. It responds to a specific event
5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above

Back 218

C

Front 219

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an
application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a
list of approved options

Back 219

B

Front 220

35. A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to
pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period

Back 220

A

Front 221

36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact

Back 221

D

Front 222

37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

Back 222

A

Front 223

38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

Back 223

D

Front 224

39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement
Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and
process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can
measure

Back 224

A

Front 225

40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Back 225

B

Front 226

1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

Back 226

C

Front 227

2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required

a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

Back 227

D

Front 228

3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for?
improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only

Back 228

C

Front 229

4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements
of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement

Back 229

D

Front 230

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service?
Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and
manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an
external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where
value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by Service Design

Back 230

B

Front 231

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT
and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

Back 231

D

Front 232

7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

Back 232

B

Front 233

8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement

Back 233

B

Front 234

9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during
Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with
Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any
other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the
Service Lifecycle

Back 234

C

Front 235

10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process

Back 235

D

Front 236

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost

Back 236

B

Front 237

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service?
Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could
otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to
implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

Back 237

D

Front 238

13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management?
process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Back 238

A

Front 239

14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio?
Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

Back 239

B

Front 240

15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Back 240

A

Front 241

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)

Back 241

B

Front 242

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

Back 242

A

Front 243

19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Back 243

A

Front 244

20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL

Back 244

B

Front 245

21. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured.
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only

Back 245

B

Front 246

22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

Back 246

D

Front 247

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately
described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs)
in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to
achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain
accurate configuration records

Back 247

D

Front 248

24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

Back 248

D

Front 249

25. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or
network access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to
maintain the infrastructure

Back 249

C

Front 250

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative,
which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem
management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and
business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

Back 250

C

Front 251

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library? (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation

Back 251

B

Front 252

28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a
controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

Back 252

A

Front 253

29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

Back 253

C

Front 254

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve

Back 254

C

Front 255

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s)
resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal
resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application
service provisioning

Back 255

A

Front 256

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

Back 256

A

Front 257

33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

Back 257

A

Front 258

34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service
Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service
Management

Back 258

D

Front 259

35. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external
service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

Back 259

C

Front 260

36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

Back 260

B

Front 261

37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Back 261

A

Front 262

38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management

Back 262

B

Front 263

39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data
and using it to take corrective action

Back 263

D

Front 264

40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only

Back 264

C

Front 265

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services

Back 265

C

Front 266

2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation

Back 266

A

Front 267

3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Back 267

C

Front 268

4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of
errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which
process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management

Back 268

D

Front 269

5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management
Processes: How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out
multiple times to Implement Continual Service Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Service
Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan, and then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated
multiple times to Implement Continual Service Improvement

Back 269

B

Front 270

6. Consider the following statements:
1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model is beneficial to design Function”
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only

Back 270

D

Front 271

7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management

Back 271

D

Front 272

8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment
Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service
Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended
objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of
related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested,
verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed
service

Back 272

A

Front 273

9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Back 273

D

Front 274

10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external
customers
C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services

Back 274

B

Front 275

11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by?
maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services

Back 275

C

Front 276

12. The Design Manager is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of
quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT?
responsibilities included in this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting
processes

Back 276

B

Front 277

13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability
components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management

Back 277

B

Front 278

14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other
Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of
Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity
Management.
D. All of above

Back 278

D

Front 279

15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the
customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. The successful and reverted changes during a specific period

Back 279

D

Front 280

16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

Back 280

A

Front 281

17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop
when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important

Back 281

A

Front 282

18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service
improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How
do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get
there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Back 282

D

Front 283

19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance
contracts
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are
complied with

Back 283

C

Front 284

20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative
determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue,
the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having
this user’s PC replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management

Back 284

B

Front 285

21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base
(KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

Back 285

C

Front 286

22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change
Management. What information is this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management
can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management

Back 286

B

Front 287

23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?
A. Application Service Provision
B. Business Process Outsourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Co-Sourcing

Back 287

C

Front 288

24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

Back 288

B

Front 289

25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned

Back 289

A

Front 290

26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for
example using an emergency power provision. Which of the following ITIL processes
could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management

Back 290

A

Front 291

27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change
C. Request for Release
D. Service Request

Back 291

B

Front 292

28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an
interruption of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager

Back 292

A

Front 293

29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?

A. What is the ROI ?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the VOI?

Back 293

C

Front 294

30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management?
Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is
effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities’.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and
enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are
achieved

Back 294

A

Front 295

31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are?
correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout
their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. It’s never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above

Back 295

C

Front 296

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P’s of Service Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan

A. People
B. Product
C. Patterns
D. Partners

Back 296

C

Front 297

33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. Average uptime of a service
B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

Back 297

B

Front 298

34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item
or IT service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service,
configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to
Incidents being logged
D. All of above

Back 298

D

Front 299

35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing

Back 299

C

Front 300

36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their
Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio,
or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only
C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only

Back 300

C

Front 301

37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly
after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this
contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a
supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored
to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function
without interruption

Back 301

A

Front 302

38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks

Back 302

D

Front 303

39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents

Back 303

B

Front 304

40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule
D. Communicating and preparing the release

Back 304

C

Front 305

1. Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1. What services should we offer and to whom?
2. How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3. How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Back 305

D

Front 306

2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager?
A. Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

Back 306

A

Front 307

3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1. Customer retention
2. Time to market
3. Service Architecture
4. Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only

Back 307

D

Front 308

4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management

Back 308

D

Front 309

5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Back 309

D

Front 310

6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

2. Designing technology architectures to support the service
3. Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A. All of the above
B. 2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only

Back 310

D

Front 311

7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?
A. Customer satisfaction score
B. Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C. Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D. Number of services deployed within agreed times

Back 311

A

Front 312

8. Major Incidents require:
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation

Back 312

A

Front 313

9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1. Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. None of the above

Back 313

B

Front 314

10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Back 314

B

Front 315

12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?

A. 7
B. 4
C. 6
D.11

Back 315

A

Front 316

11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them
D. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards

Back 316

D

Front 317

13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A. Network Management and Application Management
B. Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D. Facilities Management and Technical Management

Back 317

C

Front 318

14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A. It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B. It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C. It consists of five publications
D. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000

Back 318

B

Front 319

15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?
1. Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data
2. Control of user desk-tops
3. Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4. Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Back 319

D

Front 320

16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Back 320

C

Front 321

17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood

Back 321

D

Front 322

18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2. Control of user desktop PCs
3. Create and use diagnostic scripts
4. Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Back 322

B

Front 323

19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B. Customer and User satisfaction
C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D. Utility and Warranty

Back 323

D

Front 324

20. What is the Service Pipeline?
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B. All services except those that have been retired
C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. All complex multi-user services

Back 324

A

Front 325

21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A. Activity based, Access Management
B. Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C. Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D. Analytical based, Shaping user behavior

Back 325

B

Front 326

22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release

Back 326

B

Front 327

23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

Back 327

B

Front 328

24. One organization provides and manages an entire business process or function for another organization. This is known as:
A. Business Process Management
B. Business Function Outsourcing
C. Business Process Outsourcing
D. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

Back 328

C

Front 329

25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. Service Catalogue Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management

Back 329

D

Front 330

26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Back 330

D

Front 331

27. Availability Management is responsible for availability of:
A. Services and Components
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Components and Business Processes
D. Services, Components and Business Processes

Back 331

A

Front 332

28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?
A. Component Capacity Management
B. Process Capacity Management
C. Technology Capacity Management
D. Capability Capacity Management

Back 332

A

Front 333

29. The group that authorizes Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:
A. Technical Management
B. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Back 333

B

Front 334

30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

Back 334

A

Front 335

31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

Back 335

B

Front 336

32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management

Back 336

C

Front 337

33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C. A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
D. A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests

Back 337

D

Front 338

34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?
1. Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A. All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Back 338

B

Front 339

35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management

Back 339

D

Front 340

36. Governance is concerned with:
A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B. Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C. Reducing the total cost of providing services
D. Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

Back 340

B

Front 341

37. A risk is:
A. Something that won't happen
B. Something that will happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that might happen

Back 341

D

Front 342

38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?
A. A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found
B. A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C. As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D. Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case of a recurrence

Back 342

B

Front 343

39. IT Operations Management has been asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A. Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels
B. Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C. Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D. They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy

Back 343

B

Front 344

40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A. Service Level Management
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Service Asset and Configuration Management
D. Incident Management

Back 344

C

Front 345

41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The RACI Model
B. A Release Package
C. A Request Model
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

Back 345

B

Front 346

42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Back 346

C

Front 347

43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, and low cost changes?
A. Demand Management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request Fulfillment

Back 347

D

Front 348

44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Business Relationship Manager
C. The Service Owner
D. The Service Continuity Manager

Back 348

C

Front 349

45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

Back 349

D

Front 350

46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Back 350

C

Front 351

47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the following does this include?
A. Only capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only resources and capabilities needed
C. Only requirements needed and agreed
D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

Back 351

D

Front 352

48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
A. Configuration
B. Consulted
C. Complex
D. Controlled

Back 352

B

Front 353

49. What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

Back 353

D

Front 354

50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI Model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model

Back 354

A

Front 355

51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

Back 355

B

Front 356

52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two or more organizations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"?
A. Outsourcing
B. Application Service Provision
C. Multi-sourcing
D. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

Back 356

C

Front 357

53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B. Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C. Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D. Plan; Predict; Report; Justify

Back 357

A

Front 358

54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?
A. Early Life Support
B. Service Test Manager
C. Evaluation
D. Release Packaging and Build Manager

Back 358

A

Front 359

55. What does a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

Back 359

C

Front 360

56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A. The Service Provider
B. The Service Level Manager
C. The Customer
D. Resources

Back 360

A

Front 361

57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation

Back 361

C

Front 362

58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design

Back 362

D

Front 363

59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business?
1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All the above

Back 363

C

Front 364

60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C. A pre-authorized Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A Change that is made as the result of an audit

Back 364

C

Front 365

61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management?
1. Management and review of Organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2. Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3. Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Back 365

C

Front 366

62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition and Service Operation
C. Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D. Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

Back 366

D

Front 367

63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management

Back 367

A

Front 368

64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:
1. An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being detected on the network
2. Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Back 368

C

Front 369

65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Back 369

A

Front 370

66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
D. People, Products, Technology, Partners

Back 370

C

Front 371

67. "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Functions and Processes
C. Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D. Markets and Customers

Back 371

B

Front 372

68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications. What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A. Validation and Testing
B. The business value that can be expected from a given service
C. Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D. Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation

Back 372

A

Front 373

69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on cost
B. Extreme focus on quality
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessively reactive

Back 373

A

Front 374

70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?

A. What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?

Back 374

C

Front 375

71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved
3. Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4. Implement CSI enhancement
A. 3-1-2-4
B. 3-4-2-1
C. 1-3-2-4
D. 2-3-4-1

Back 375

A

Front 376

72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Aligning the business and IT strategies
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets

Back 376

D

Front 377

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Back 377

B

Front 378

2. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only

Back 378

B

Front 379

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Back 379

C

Front 380

4. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

Back 380

B

Front 381

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

Back 381

C

Front 382

6. Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Back 382

D

Front 383

7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. Responds to specific events
D. A method of structuring an organization

Back 383

D

Front 384

8. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives

Back 384

B

Front 385

9. What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

Back 385

D

Front 386

11. Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management

Back 386

D

Front 387

12. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. Service Catalogue Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management

Back 387

D

Front 388

13. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Back 388

C

Front 389

14. The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Back 389

D

Front 390

15. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Back 390

B

Front 391

16. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A change that is made as the result of an audit

Back 391

C

Front 392

17. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Business Relationship Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management

Back 392

C

Front 393

18. What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service
Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

Back 393

D

Front 394

19. Exhibit:
1. Service Portfolio design A. Service Transition
2. Value creation through Service B. Service Design
3. The Service V model C. Plan Do Check Act model
4. Service Design D. Continual Service Improvement

Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
8. 1C, 2D, l A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 1A, 4D
D. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

Back 394

C

Front 395

20. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Where the vendor or an application is located?
B. Whether to buy an application or build it?
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be?
D. Should application development be outsourced?

Back 395

B

Front 396

21. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple
times to implement Continual Service Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Service Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Cheek-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Service Improvement

Back 396

C

Front 397

22. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

Back 397

B

Front 398

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Back 398

B

Front 399

24. What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
B. A type of Incident
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has change

Back 399

D

Front 400

25. In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line

Back 400

B

Front 401

26. Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future
IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

Back 401

A

Front 402

27. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk
and cost are low?
A. Access Management

B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request fulfillment

Back 402

D

Front 403

28. Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on responsiveness
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus

Back 403

D

Front 404

29. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimize salaries
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to
minimize the cost of training them

Back 404

C

Front 405

30. Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
B. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

Back 405

A

Front 406

31. Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Process Manager
B. Service Catalogue Manager
C. Supplier Manager
D. IT Designer/Architect

Back 406

C

Front 407

32. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Requirements
B. Customer/ Business Needs
C. Service Solution
D. Service Release

Back 407

B

Front 408

33. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
C. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
D. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

Back 408

A

Front 409

34. "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Markets and Customers

Back 409

B

Front 410

35. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS can include user skill levels
C. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
D. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization

Back 410

C

Front 411

36. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Utility and Warranty
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Applications and Infrastructure

Back 411

C

Front 412

37. Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output

Back 412

B

Front 413

38. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

Back 413

B

Front 414

39. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) arc recorded in the Configuration
Management system
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

Back 414

D

Front 415

40. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager

Back 415

B

Front 416

41. How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
C. By working with users to change their IT configurations
D. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution

Back 416

B

Front 417

42. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Only capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only resources and capabilities needed
C. Only requirements needed and agreed
D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

Back 417

D

Front 418

43. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Web front-end
C. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

Back 418

D

Front 419

44. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation

Back 419

A

Front 420

45. The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of services and service management processes
B. The design and development of new services
C. The day-to-day operation and support of services
D. The design and development of service improvements

Back 420

A

Front 421

46. A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is about to be ended
B. The contract is being negotiated
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed

Back 421

B

Front 422

47. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on cost
B. Excessive focus on quality
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessively reactive

Back 422

A

Front 423

48. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A. All of the above
B. 2 and 3only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Back 423

D

Front 424

49. The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure

Back 424

C

Front 425

50. Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3and 4only
C. l, 3and 4only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Back 425

A

Front 426

51. Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
C. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions

Back 426

B

Front 427

52. In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability or the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
B. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within
business timescales
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability the customers must be
made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on
responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability

Back 427

B

Front 428

53. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations’ Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management

Back 428

B

Front 429

54. Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide training and certification in project management.
C. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management.
D. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.

Back 429

B

Front 430

55. The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Back 430

A

Front 431

56. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
B. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
C. Eliminating recurring Incidents
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business

Back 431

D

Front 432

57. How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Showing the business impact of a change
B. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
C. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure

Back 432

C

Front 433

58. The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Service Level Requirements
B. Functionality
C. Business Value
D. IT Assets

Back 433

C

Front 434

59. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
D. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards

Back 434

D

Front 435

60. Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?”
A. Service Design
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Back 435

D

Front 436

61. A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

Back 436

D

Front 437

62. Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
B. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
Manager
C. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;
Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator

Back 437

C

Front 438

63. Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Incident Management
B. Access Management
C. Change Management
D. Request Fulfillment

Back 438

B

Front 439

64. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the business Lifecycle is part of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management

Back 439

D

Front 440

65. Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can
be found
B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal
time to log it
D. An Incident which has a high impact on the business

Back 440

D

Front 441

66. Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure

B. Assisting in the design of the application
C. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
D. Deciding whether to buy or build an application

Back 441

A

Front 442

67. Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure delivery and support of service
C. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
D. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

Back 442

B