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326 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities? |
D) A Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests.
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What is a RACI model used for?
What is a RACI model used for? A. Defining roles and responsibilities B. Monitoring services C. Performance analysis D. Recording Configuration Items |
A. Defining roles and responsibilities. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted and Informed, and designate the roles of each participant in a project or task.
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Which of the statements below is inaccurate:
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS) B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB) D. The SKMS can include user skill levels |
A. Because the SKMS is NOT part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
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The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB) B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA) C. Urgent Change Board (UCB) |
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
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In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition B. Service Design C. Service Strategy D. Service Operation |
B. Service Design
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Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained |
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles.
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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB) B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS) C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization D. The SKMS can include user skill levels |
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
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Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset? A. Services and Infrastructure B. Applications and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Utility and Warranty |
C. Resources and Capabilities
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Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of Market Spaces C. The design of new or changed services D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems |
B. The design of Market Spaces.
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Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate |
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate is not a responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager.
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Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts? A. Service Catalogue Manager B. IT Designer/Architect C. Process Manager D. Supplier Manager |
D. Supplier Manager
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A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated B. The contract is about to be ended C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon D. The contract has been agreed |
A. The contract is being negotiated
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Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure C. A change that is made as the result of an audit D. A change that correctly follows the required change process |
B. A standard change is a pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
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The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs |
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
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1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation.
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services. Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process? |
Statement 1.
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Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries |
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
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Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio? 2. What services to offer and to whom? 3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? A. 3 only B. 1 only C. 2 only D. All of the above |
D. All of the above.
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Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by? A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database |
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
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How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement |
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
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Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"? A. Service Strategy B. Service Design C. Service Operation D. Service Transition |
C. Service Operation
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Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements 2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets 3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place A. 1 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only |
A. 1 and 3 only
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Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration
Management? A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager |
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
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In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to: A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line |
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) |
B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
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The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value B. Functionality C. IT Assets D. Service Level Requirements |
A. Business Value
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Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is? A. Whether to buy an application or build it B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated |
A. Whether to buy an application or build it.
Application Management lifecycle phases are: • Requirements – requirements gathered based on the business needs of the organization • Design – requirements translated into specifications • Build – application and the operational model are made ready for deployment • Deploy – operational model and application are put into the existing IT environment • Operate – the IT service provider operates the application as part of the business service • Optimize- performance is measured, improvement discussed, and more development is initiated if needed. |
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What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution B. Customer / Business Needs C. Service Release D. Service Requirements |
B. Customer / Business Needs
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Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place C. Ensure delivery and support of a service D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported |
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
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Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk B. Facilities Management C. Technical Management D. IT Operations Control |
B. Facilities Management
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Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?
1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun |
1, 2 and 4
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"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Markets and Customers B. Functions and Processes C. People, products and technology D. Applications and Infrastructure |
B. Functions and Processes
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Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them D. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested |
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
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Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for |
B. Delivering change faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
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Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets? A. Availability Management B. Service Level Management C. Continual Service Improvement D. Business Relationship Management |
B. Service Level Management
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What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider |
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
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Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data B. Knowledge C. Wisdom D. Information |
C. Wisdom
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Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management B. Request fulfilment C. Release and Deployment Management D. Access management |
B. Request fulfilment
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation 2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services A. Both of the above B. Neither of the above C. 2 only D. 1 only |
D. 1 only
Service Operation is the only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured |
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The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services |
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers.
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Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimised B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system |
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for.
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How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions D. By working with users to change their IT configurations |
C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions.
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS |
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS.
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Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process? A. Service Portfolio Management B. Service Level Management C. Component Capacity Management D. Demand Management |
D. Demand Management
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Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported. B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt. C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release. D. Provide training and certification in project management. |
D. To provide training and certification in Project Management
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Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service |
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT Service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service.
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The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services B. The design and development of service improvements C. The design and development of services and service management processes D. The day-to-day operation and support of services |
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
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How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement D. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement |
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement.
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Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management B. Requestfulfilment C. Release and Deployment Management D. Incident Management |
B. Request Fulfillment
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To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve |
C. Validate, Direct, Justify, Intervene
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Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified?
A. BusinessObjectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions |
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals, Operational Goals
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function A. 2 only B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. Both of the above |
A) Two only. Every process defines activities that are executed by a single function
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Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset? A. Resources and Capabilities B. Services and Infrastructure C. Utility and Warranty D. Applications and Infrastructure |
A. Resources and Capabilities.
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Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines B. A change that correctly follows the required change process C. A change that is made as the result of an audit D. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure |
D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure.
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What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed C. A type of Incident D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures |
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed.
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Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media) B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and qualification process exists C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them |
C) Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
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The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the? A. Urgent Change Board (UCB) B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC) C. Emergency CAB (ECAB) D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA) |
Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
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Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data B. Wisdom C. Information D. Knowledge |
B. Wisdom
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable B. Delivers specific results C. A method of structuring an organization D. Responds to specific events |
C. A method of structuring an organization is not a characteristic of a process.
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Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts? A. IT Designer/Architect B. Process Manager C. Service Catalogue Manager D. Supplier Manager |
D. Supplier Manager
Supplier Manager. UC’s deal with 3rd party vendors, suppliers or service providers. Dealing with these parties is a part of a Supplier Manager’s role. |
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Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is outside the scope of the Service Catalogue Manager’s role. |
D.
Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is outside the scope of the Service Catalogue Manager’s role. |
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The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics include availability and capacity D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the infrastructure |
A.
Service metrics measure the end-to-end service; Technology metrics measure individual components |
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The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services C. The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities D. A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of services |
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
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Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output |
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process? A. The Request Fulfilment Process Manager B. The Request Fulfilment Process Owner C. The Service Desk Manager D. The Service Manager |
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
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Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Service Level Management C. Service Catalogue Management D. Capacity Management |
D. Capacity Management
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Known Error DataBase and the Configuration Management System form part of the larger Service Knowledge Management System. B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) |
A.) The Known Error Database and the Configuration Management System form part of the larger Service Knowledge Management System.
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The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
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Emergency Change Advisory Board
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What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis B. Recording Configuration Items C. Defining roles and responsibilities D. Monitoring services |
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
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Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice" |
D. Process Control is defined as the process of planning and regulating, with the objective of performing a process in an effective and efficient way.
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Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure C. A change that is made as the result of an audit D. A change that correctly follows the required change process |
B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
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What are the three Service Provider business models?
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Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
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Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice" C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines |
B. Process Control is correctly defined as the process of planning and regulating, with the objective of performing a process in an effective and efficient way.
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A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organisation |
B. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
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One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed B. Only requirements needed and agreed C. Only capabilities needed and agreed D. Only resources and capabilities needed |
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
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The Request Fulfillment Process Owner.
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Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes |
B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages.
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Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent? A. Extreme focus on cost B. Extreme focus on responsiveness C. Vendor focused D. Extreme internal focus |
D. Extreme internal focus.
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Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Where are we now? B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement C. Prepare for action D. Define what you should measure |
D. Define what you should measure
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Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes |
A. Production and maintenance of all necessary Service Transition Packages is not a part of the Service Design Phase of the Service Lifecycle.
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In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management? A. Service Operation B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Design |
D. Service Design
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process? A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner C. The Service Manager D. The Service Desk Manager |
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
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Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Service Catalogue Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Level Management |
C. Capacity Management
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Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licences C. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected |
D. A secure library where definitive, authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected.
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The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers |
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
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Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system B. Overall business risk is optimised C. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for |
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
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Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application D. Assisting in the design of the application |
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure is not a responsibility of Application Management.
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What is a RACI model used for?
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Defining roles and responsibilities
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Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action B. Define what you should measure C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement D. Where are we now? |
B. Identify what you should measure
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What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed C. A type of Incident D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures |
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
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Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?
A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a service has been disrupted D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff |
B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices, and not services.
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To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
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Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
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In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
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It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers’ needs may not be met within business timescales
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Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool? Knowledge, Information, Data, Wisdom
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Wisdom
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Major Incidents require?
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Separate Procedures
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Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems C. The design of Market Spaces D. The design of new or changed services |
C. The design of Market Spaces
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Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Eliminating recurring Incidents B. Minimising the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimising adverse impact on the business |
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimising adverse impact on the business.
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Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licences D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected |
D. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
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Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can be found |
C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
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Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements oftheorganisation B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes |
C. To produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
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Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk B. IT Operations Control C. Technical Management D. Facilities Management |
D. Facilities Management.
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An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to
suffer. What imbalance does this represent? A. Excessive focus on quality B. Excessively reactive C. Excessively proactive D. Excessive focus on cost |
D. Excessive focus on costs
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Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services |
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk.
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What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed D. A type of Incident |
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
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"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services." These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Functions and Processes B. Markets and Customers C. Applications and Infrastructure D. People, products and technology |
A. Functions and processes.
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Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets? A. Business Relationship Management B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management |
C. Service Level Management
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Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice" D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives |
C. Process Control is correctly defined as the process of planning and regulating, with the objective of performing a process in an effective and efficient way.
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How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organisation?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered B. Showing the business impact of a change C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure |
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
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Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance
drops below acceptable limits? A. Service Level Management B. Performance Management C. Capacity Management D. Event Management |
B. Performance Management
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In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important
that the Incident Manager is given the authority to: A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line |
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
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Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated |
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
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Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio? 2. What services to offer and to whom? 3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? A. 2 only B. 1 only C. All of the above D. 3 only |
C. All of the Above
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Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management B. Incident Management C. RequestFulfilment D. Change Management |
A. Access Management
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results B. A method of structuring an organization C. Responds to specific events D. It is measurable |
B. A method of structuring an organization.
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Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset? A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Services and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Utility and Warranty |
C. Resources and Capabilities.
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Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent? A. Extreme internal focus B. Extreme focus on cost C. Extreme focus on responsiveness D. Vendor focused |
A. Extreme Internal Focus
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results B. Responds to specific events C. It is measurable D. A method of structuring an organisation |
D. A method of structuring an organization is not a characteristic of a process
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Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management B. Applications Management C. Service Desk D. Technical Management |
A. IT Operations Management
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Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts. B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organisational Level Agreements C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements. D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio |
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
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Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design B. Process design C. Environment design D. Strategy design |
B. Process Design
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Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Strategy |
B. Service Level Management
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Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Applications Management B. Service Desk C. Technical Management D. IT Operations Management |
C. Technical Management
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Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
A. The Service Owner B. The Continual Service Improvement Manager C. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) D. The Change Management Process Owner |
A. The Service Owner
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The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement
(OLA) is that: A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver the service C. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer |
A. A SLA is a legally binding agreement, whereas an OLA is a best-efforts agreement.
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Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy |
B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
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Which of the following best describes a Service Request?
A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface B. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meeting D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for |
C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a
CAB meeting |
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Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply
A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations B. To automatically detect service affecting Events C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible |
A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
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What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
A. Informational, Scheduled, Normal B. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency C. Informational, Warning, Exception D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive |
C. Informational, Warning, Exception
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Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management B. Supplier Management and Demand Management C. Demand Management and Service Level Management D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management |
A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
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Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Supplier Management D. Continual Service Improvement |
C. Supplier Management
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Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of
the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Operation D. Service Design |
B. Continual Service Improvement
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Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. Demand Management B. Incident Management C. Release and Deployment Management D. Request Fulfillment |
D. Request Fulfillment
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Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics B. Service Design Package C. Service Portfolio Design D. Process definitions |
B. Service Design Package
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Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review and analyse Service Level Achievement results B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users |
D. Conducting activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users is not one of the objectives of Continual Service Improvement.
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Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action 2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience |
Both are correct.
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Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
A. Availability Management only B. Information Security Management and 3rd line support C. Information Security Management and Availability Management D. Information Security Management only |
C. Information Security Management and Availability Management
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Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?
A. Service Level Management B. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Event Management |
B. Problem Management
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Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
A. Technology, Customer, User B. Corporate, Customer, Service C. Corporate, Customer, Technology D. Service, User, IT |
B. Corporate, Customer, Service
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Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually Improve B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going? C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;Improve the solution D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going? |
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
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Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages
1. Monitor, Measure and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act |
C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
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A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach? A. Yes B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem |
A. Yes
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Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of ITIL?
A. Local B. Centralised C. Holistic D. Virtual |
C. Holistic. Another service desk model recognized by ITIL is “follow-the-sun”
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Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service B. Customer satisfaction C. Total cost of ownership D. Key performance indicators |
A. The value of a service
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Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"? A. Profit B. Preparation C. Products D. Potential |
C. Products
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Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision? A. Where are we now? B. Where do we want to be? C. How do we get there? D. Did we get there? |
B. “Where do we want to be?”
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Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets 2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability 3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals |
All of the above
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In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any users B. An Incident is passed to second-level support C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents D. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it |
C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents
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Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Transition B. Risk Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Availability Management |
A. Service Transition
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Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
A. The IT Executive B. The ISO 27001 Standard C. The Business D. The Service Level Manager |
C. The Business
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Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?
A. A change to a contract with a supplier B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services |
D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services.
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Hierarchic escalation is best described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement |
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
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Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?
A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring Incidents |
C. Problem Management’s objectives do not include restoring service to a user.
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There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below? 1. Progress 2. Effectiveness 3. Efficiency 4. ? A. Cost B. Conformance C. Compliance D. Capacity |
C. Compliance
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The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
called: A. A Service Level Package B. A Service Transition Package C. A Service Design Package D. A New Service Package |
C. A Service Design Package
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Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive Media Library (DML) B. Configuration Management System (CMS) C. Statement of Requirements (SOR) D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) |
B. Configuration Management System (CMS)
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You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines.
Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition? A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership B. Improved quality of service C. Improved Service alignment with business goals D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services |
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services.
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QUESTION NO: 159
Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management 1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided 2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided 3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction 4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in |
1, 2, and 3, but not 4.
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What is the objective of Access Management?
A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations C. To manage access to the Service Desk D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services |
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
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Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language |
B) They are always free, ensuring they can be implemented quickly.
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Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1. Known Error Data 2. Change Schedules 3. Service Knowledge Management System 4. The output from monitoring tools |
All of the above
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release |
B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
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"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
of which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Service Strategy C. Service Transition D. Continual Service Improvement |
C. Service Transition
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Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time 2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control |
Both of the above
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Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
CORRECT? A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing |
C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
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Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
A. A configuration management database (CMDB) B. A capacity database (CDB) C. A configuration management system (CMS) D. A capacity management information system (CMIS) |
D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
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A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs) 2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice? |
Neither of the above
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Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:
A. Services and Components B. Services and Business Processes C. Components and Business Processes D. Services, Components and Business Processes |
A. Services and Components
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Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Transition C. Service Design D. Service Operation |
D. Service Operation
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Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director |
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
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Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset |
B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
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Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset |
B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset.
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The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
Service Lifecycle? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Strategy C. Service Design D. Service Transition |
B. Service Strategy
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What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider C. Reports should be produced weekly D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services |
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
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Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management B. IT Operations Management C. Capacity Management D. Incident Management |
B. IT Operations Management
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Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. To detect security events and make sense of them |
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
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Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
A. Access Management B. Facilities Management C. Event Management D. Demand Management |
A. Access Management
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A risk is:
A. Something that won't happen B. Something that will happen C. Something that has happened D. Something that might happen |
D. Something that might happen
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What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
known as? A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books D. Pocket Guides |
B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
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A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
expected of them? A. Tell others about the progress of an activity B. Perform an activity C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity D. Manage an activity |
C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
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Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
impact? A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency |
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
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Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service |
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
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Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business 2. The successful release of services into the live environment A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above |
A. 1 only. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business.
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Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer |
C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
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Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems 2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes 3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service 4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade |
All of the above.
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What does a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications B. Infrastructure C. Value D. Resources |
C. Value
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Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase
of the lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow tools 2. Measurement and reporting systems 3. Release and deployment technology 4. Process Design A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. All of the above |
C. 1, 2 and 3 only.
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What does Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions B. Maturity and cost C. The end to end service D. Infrastructure availability |
C. The end to end service
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)? A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service |
D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
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Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?
1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives 2. A process should be documented |
Both
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Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Level Manager B. The Business Relationship Manager C. The Service Owner D. The Service Continuity Manager |
C. The Service Owner
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Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms 3. Monitoring of component availability A. All of the above B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only |
B. 1 and 2 only.
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place C. The desk provides 24 hour global support D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization |
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
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What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? 6. ? A. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)? B. How much did it cost? C. How do we keep the momentum going? D. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)? |
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
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Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful? A. Remediation Planning B. Categorization C. Prioritization D. Review and Close |
A. Remediation Planning
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Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported B. To provide training and certification in project management C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release To provide training and certification in project management |
B. To provide training and certification in project management
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Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities |
C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
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Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process |
A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
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Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?
A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure |
D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure
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IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on which of the following?:
1: Design of the service technology 2: Business continuity strategy 3: Business Impact Analysis 4: Risk assessment A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only |
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
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Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service |
A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities
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Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts 2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database 3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts 4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. None of the above |
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process? A. The IT Director B. The Process Owner C. The Service Owner D. The Customer |
B. The Process Owner
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When should tests for a new service be designed?
A. At the same time as the service is designed B. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition C. As part of Service Transition D. Before the service is designed |
A. At the same time as the service is designed
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Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A. Service Design: Design the processes B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management |
A. Service Design: Design the processes
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Reliability is a measure of:
A. The availability of a service or component B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process C. How long a service or component can perform its function withoutfailing D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working |
C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing
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What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service LevelAgreements(SLAs) C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements |
C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
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Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A. Network Management and Application Management B. Technical Management and Change Management C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management D. Facilities Management and Release Management |
C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
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As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?
1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit 2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services 3. An external service provider A. All of the above B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only |
A. All of the above
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What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
A. Rapid, one-off improvement B. Return on investment within 12 months C. Quick wins D. Steady, ongoing improvement |
D. Steady, ongoing improvement
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The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services |
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
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Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management B. Change Management C. Incident Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management |
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
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What is the Service Pipeline?
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage B. All services except those that have been retired C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. All complex multi-user services |
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party Provider |
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management.
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Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity? A. The Asset Register B. The Service Knowledge Management System C. The Known Error Database D. The Information Management System |
B. The Service Knowledge Management System
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Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?
A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. The Problem Record C. The Availability Management Information System D. The IT Service Continuity Plan |
B. The Problem Record
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What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled |
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
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Consider the following list:
1. Change Authority 2. Change Manager 3. Change Advisory Board (CAB) What are these BEST described as? A. Job descriptions B. Functions C. Teams D. Roles, people or groups |
D. Roles, people or groups
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)? A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services D. An SLA for a service with no customers |
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
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In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's
contribution? A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated B. Measures for optimization are identified C. Service value ismodelled D. Service value is actually seen by customers |
D. Service value is actually seen by customers
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A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The RACI Model B. A Release Package C. A Request Model D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle |
B. A Release Package
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Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments |
A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
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Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
Operation to perform? 1. Communication between Data Centre shifts 2. Communication related to changes 3. Performance reporting 4. Routine operational communication A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Operation B. Service Transition C. Continual Service Improvement D. Service Strategy |
C. Continual Service Improvement
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Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged C. All incidents must be fully logged D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log |
C. All incidents must be fully logged
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In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is
underpinned by which set of activities? A. Baseline assessments B. Service and process improvements C. Taking measurements and recording metrics D. Setting measurement targets |
B. Service and process improvements
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In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is
underpinned by which set of activities? A. Baseline assessments B. Service and process improvements C. Taking measurements and recording metrics D. Setting measurement targets |
B. Service and process improvements
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Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular
basis? A. The Service Level Manager B. The IT Service Continuity Manager C. The Service Catalogue Manager D. The Supplier Manager |
D. The Supplier Manager
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Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster B. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers C. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation |
D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation.
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Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?
A. A measurement of cost B. A function described within Service Transition C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together |
D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
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Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
A. Demand Management B. Supplier Management C. Service Desk D. RequestFulfilment |
A. Demand Management
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners D. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization Service owners are more important to service management than process owners. |
B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners.
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Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. A Request for Change (RFC) C. The Service Portfolio D. A Service Description |
A. In Service Level Agreements
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The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is
referred to as what? A. The utility of a service B. The warranty of a service C. The economic value of a service D. Return on investment |
A. The utility of a service
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What are the two major processes in Problem Management?
A. Technical and Service B. Resource and Proactive C. Reactive and Technical D. Proactive and Reactive |
D. Proactive and Reactive
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Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
A. The Change Advisory Board B. A person that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change. C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change. D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change |
C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.
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Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the
levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role? A. The Service Level Manager B. The Configuration Manager C. The Change Manager D. The Information Security Manager |
D. The Information Security Manager
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Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service Design B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Operation |
C. Service Strategy
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Identify the input to the Problem Management process
A. Request for Change B. Problem Resolution C. Incident Records D. New Known Errors |
C. Incident Records
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Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment? A. Early Life Support B. Service Test Manager C. Evaluation D. Release Packaging and Build Manager |
A. Early Life Support
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The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service
Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be? A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup. D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available. |
C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected
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Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service B. Customer satisfaction C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) |
A. The value of a service
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Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Service Level Management D. Financial Management |
A. Capacity Management
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Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:
1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list
of these Four Ps? A. People, Products, Partners, Profit B. People, Process, Products, Partners C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit D. People, Potential, Products, Performance |
B. People, Process, Products, Partners
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With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?
A. Incident Management B. Service Asset and Configuration Management C. Capacity Management D. IT Service Continuity |
A. Incident Management
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In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets? A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) B. Capacity Plan C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM) |
D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database |
C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management System
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Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments
and organizational strategies? A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance B. The Service Support book C. Pocket Guides D. The Service Strategy book |
A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
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What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration Baseline B. Project Baseline C. Change Baseline D. Asset Baseline |
A. Configuration Baseline
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Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A. The Service Provider B. The Service Level Manager C. The Customer D. The Finance department |
A. The Service Provider
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Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?
1. Things that were done correctly 2. Those things that were done incorrectly 3. How to prevent recurrence 4. What could be done better in the future A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (Cls) are stored and protected?
A. Definitive Media Library B. Definitive Software Store C. Service Knowledge Management System D. Software Secure Library |
A. Definitive Media Library
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Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom |
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
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Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?|
A. Service Strategy B. Service Transition C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement |
C. Service Operation
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Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
1. Architectures 2. Technology 3. Service Management processes 4. Metrics A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported |
C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
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Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
A. Incident Model B. Problem Model C. Configuration Model D. Change Model |
C. Configuration Model
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The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
A. Carried out by Service Operations B. Carried out by lots of people C. Critical to the success of the business mission D. Simple and well understood |
D. Simple and well understood.
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Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms 3. Monitoring of component availability A. All of the above B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only |
B. 1 and 2 only
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What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis D. A document that describes business services to operational staff |
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
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How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity B. Only one - the process owner C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor D. Only one - the process architect |
B. Only one - the process owner
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Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner C. They deliver specific results D. They respond to specific events |
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
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Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Responsibilities A. 1 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only |
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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The Supplier Management process includes:
1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements 2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements 3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 only C. All of the above D. 1 and 3 only |
C. All of the above
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Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Design |
D. Service Design
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Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization B. Logging C. Prioritization D. Closure |
A. Categorization
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Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only |
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
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What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)? A. ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality B. Strategic, tactical and operational C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities D. Technology, process and service |
D. Technology, process and service
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Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?
1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above |
C. Both of the above
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Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI) B. Customer and User satisfaction C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty D. Utility and Warranty |
D. Utility and Warranty
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Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do B. Perform C. Implement D. Measure |
A. Do
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Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. Availability Management B. Demand Management C. Financial Management D. Service Level Management |
B. Demand Management
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A change process model should include:
1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined, including handling issues and unexpected events 2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions 4 - Complaints procedures A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only |
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
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Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high
volumes of what? A. Service level requests B. Changes and Releases C. Password resets D. Incidents and Problems |
B. Changes and Releases
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Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome A. 1 only B. Both of the above C. 2 only D. Neither of the above |
B. Both of the above
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Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders |
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
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Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the
technology are considered during development? A. Service Design B. Service Strategy C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement |
A. Service Design
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Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of
incidents that cannot be prevented? A. Service Level Management B. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Event Management |
B. Problem Management
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A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service 2. A major change to an IT service 3. An Emergency Change to an IT service 4. An IT service retirement A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above |
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
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Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known B. The cause of two or more Incidents C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business D. The cause of one or more Incidents |
D. The cause of one or more Incidents
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A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Documenting the process 2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) 3. Improving the process 4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only |
B. All of the above
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Contracts are used to define:
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement |
B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
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In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
A. IT Infrastructure and Applications B. Services, technology and tools C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider |
B. Services, technology and tools
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Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request Management C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, RequestFulfilment |
A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
Management |
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Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of: A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers B. People, Process, Products, Technology C. People, Process, Products, Partners D. People, Products, Technology, Partners |
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
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Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?
A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service C. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem |
A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT
infrastructure |
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Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request Fulfilment B. Service Portfolio Management C. Service Desk D. IT Finance |
A. Request Fulfilment
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Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes?
A. Plan B. Do C. Check D. Act |
A. Plan
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level. D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract. |
A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action
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Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action"?
A. A Problem model B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP) C. A Request for Change (RFC) D. A Business Case |
D. A Business Case
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Which of the following is not one of the major activities of service strategy?
A. Develop Offerings B. Design the Services C. Define the Market D. Prepare for Execution |
B. Define the Services.
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The three sub-processes that make up the Capacity Management process are:
A. Technical Capacity Management, Resource Capacity management, System Management B. Demand Management, Capacity Estimation, Capacity Planning C. System Capacity Management, Demand Estimation, Demand Correlation D. Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management, Component Management. |
D. Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management are the three sub-processes within Capacity Management.
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The ITIL function responsible for cultivation and management of skills required for service delivery is:
A. Demand Management B. Application Management C. Technical Management D. IT Operations Management |
C. Technical Management
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The ability of a component, CI, service, etc. to perform its function when required is also known as
A. Capacity B. Warranty C. Performance D. Availability |
D. Availability
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Continual Service Improvement is concerned with the improvement of:
A. Services only. B. Processes and Services C. Service, Process and Functions D. All aspects of the Service Management effort. |
D. All aspects of the Service Management effort
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Both Utility and Warranty are required for a service to have value:
True or False? |
True
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Which of the following are processes within the Service Design Lifecycle:
1. Capacity Management 2. Supplier Management 3. Transition Planning and Support 4. Knowledge Management 5. Service Level Management 6. Information Security Management |
1, 2, 5 and 6 are all part of the Service Design Lifecycle phase.
(3)Transition Planning and Support and (4) Knowledge Management belong to the Service Transition Lifecycle phase |
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A team or a group of people and the tools they use to serve a particular purpose is also known as a function.
True or False |
True
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"To ensure that services operate within agreed parameters" is the best mission statement for which lifecycle phase?
A. Service Operation B. Service Strategy C. Continual Service Improvement D. Service Transition |
A. Service Operation.
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Which statement is most correct?
A. Services are usually contained or delivered entirely within a single function B. Functions usually map one-to-one with processes C. Processes are always contained entirely within a single function. D. Processes have the ability to coordinate activity across multiple functions within an organization. |
D. Processes have the ability to coordinate activities across multiple functions within an organization.
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What are the three basic activities associated with Financial Management?
A. Tracking, Cost-Analysis, and Planning B. Accounting, Budgeting and Charging C. Asset Management, Financial Planning and Audit D. Analytics, Factorization and Amortization. |
B. Accounting, Budgeting and Charging.
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The three major types of metrics discussed in ITIL are
A. Service Metrics, Process Metrics, and Technology Metrics B. Business Metrics, Service Metrics, and Component Metrics C. Tension Metrics, Progress Metrics and Performance Metrics D. Data, Information and Knowledge |
A. Service Metrics, Process Metrics and Technology Metrics.
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Which of the following is not one of the steps in the Seven Step Improvement Process?
A. Define what can be measured B. Plan the project C. Define what should be measured D. Gather the data |
B. Plan the project.
The seven steps are: -Define what should be measured -Define what can be measured -Gather data -Process data -Analyze data -Present the information -Implement corrective action |
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The four components of Warrant which contribute to the value of a service are:
A. Availability, Capacity, Continuity and Security B. Scalability, Extensibility, Capacity and Flexibility C. Performance, Reliability, Sustainability and Economy D. Efficiency, Effectiveness, Transparency and Volume. |
A. Availability, Capacity, Continuity, and Security.
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The Service Management system which consists of all information regarding configuration items in the environment together with its associated user interfaces is called the:
A. Configuration Management Database B. The Service Knowledge Management System C. The Asset Management System D. The Configuration Management System |
D. The Configuration Management System
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Which lifecycle phase is associated with Problem Management?
A. Service Design B. Service Strategy C. Service Operation D. Service Transition |
C. Service Operation
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Which information is most likely NOT going to be found in the Service Portfolio?
A. Information about how services are expected to be used by customers B. Information about why customers might buy a service C. Information on technical details of services D. Information about the business case for services. |
C. Information about the technical details of services.
The Service Portfolio is mainly intended to help Service Providers prioritize their investments in services. A ssuch, technical details are not as helpful as financial information, demand management information, etc. |
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The entire collection of services under management by a Service Provider is also known as
A. The Service Portfolio B. The Service Pipeline C. The Configuration Management Database D. The Service Catalog |
D. The Service Catalog
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A team or group of people and the tools they use to serve a particular process is also known as a:
A. Project B. Process C. Function D. Role |
C. Function
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Which of the following would least likely be considered as a Configuration Item?
A. A module of a major application B. A server used to support recovery after disaster C. The organization's security policy D. A desktop computer. |
D. A desktop computer
Decisions about which Configuration Items to manage depend on practicality and overall relevance to the organization's ability to manage and deliver services. An individual desktop computer is, in comparison to the other items on the list, probably not as important to control. |
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Which statement correctly summarizes the relationship between Events and Alerts?
A. Alerts generate events B. Events sometimes generate Alerts. An Alert is generated in response to an Event if the Event exceeds a predefined threshold. C. Alerts and Events are not related D. Alerts are Events, therefore, Events always generate Alerts. |
B. Events sometimes generate Alerts. An Alert is generated in response to an Event if the Event exceeds a predefined threshold.
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The three sub-processes beneath Capacity Management include:
A. Technical Capacity Management, Business Capacity Management, and Demand Management B. Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management, and Component Capacity Management C. Financial Capacity Management, Demand Capacity Management and Data Capacity Management D. Continual Capacity Management, Discrete Capacity Management and Intermittent Demand Management |
B. Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management.
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The four components of Warranty which contribute to the value of a service are:
A. Availability, Capacity, Continuity and Security B. Scalability, Extensibility, Capacity and Flexibilitiy C. Efficiency, Effectiveness, Transparency, and Volume D. Performance, Reliability, Sustainability and Economy. |
A. Availability, Capacity, Continuity, and Security are the four essential components of Warranty.
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The selection of services which promise to yield returns for an organization and which only entail costs and risks which are acceptable to the organization is the primary concern of:
A. Service Operation B. Strategic Planning C. Service Design D. Service Strategy |
D. Service Strategy
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The primary objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to :
A. Prevent unauthorized change B. Track assets in order to guarantee the ability to generate financial reports C. Maintain accurate records of configurations and configuration items in the environment D. Maintain efficient data center operations. |
C. Maintain accurate records of configurations and configuration items in the environment.
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Business Impact Analysis is a technique commonly used in which of the ITIL processes below?
A. Service Continuity Management B. Capacity Management C. Service Catalog Management D. Change Management |
A. Service Continuity Management
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An IT department provides e-mail and collaboration services to all other business units within an organization. This is an example of:
A. An internal service provider B. An external service provider C. A shared service provider D. None of the above |
C. A shared service provider.
Shared service providers offer services to one or more business units within the same organization. Internal service providers offer services to customers within a single business unit. |
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What are the three primary types of changes discussed within ITIL?
A. Normal, Standard, Emergency B. Standard, Major, Emergency C. Normal, Major, Minor D. Minor, Major, Emergency. |
A. Normal, Standard and Emergency.
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The specific types of information associated with Configuration Item records in the CMDB are known as:
A. Data B. Features C. Properties D. Attributes |
D. Attributes
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An Operational Level Agreement is best described as:
A. A performance agreement between a service provider and a third party provider upon which a service depends. B. A performance agreement between the CIO and a business unit C. A performance agreement between two customers. D. A performance agreement between different parts of a service provider organization in support of a larger agreement between the service provider and a customer. |
D. A performance agreement between different parts of a service provider organization in support of a larger agreement between the service provider and a customer.
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Service Level Management is primarily responsible for:
A. Service Level Agreements, Operational Level Agreeements, and Service Reviews B. Service Level Agreements, Underpinning Contracts, and Service Reviews C. Service Level Agreements, Customer Satisfaction, and Service Strategy D. Service Level Agreements, Operational Level Agreements, and Underpinning Contracts |
A. Service Level Agreements, Operational Level Agreements, and Service Reviews.
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From the following options, which of the following roles is responsible for authorizing changes?
A. Change Advisory Board B. Service Owner C. Change Manager D. Change Authority. |
D. Change Authority.
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The entire collection of services under management by a Service Provider is also known as:
A. The Service Pipeline B. The Configuration Management Database C. The Service Portfolio D. The Service Catalog |
C. The Service Portfolio
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Which of the following is not one of the steps in the Seven Step Improvement Process?
A. Define what can be measured B. Gather the data C. Plan the Project D. Define what should be measured |
C. Plan the Project
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Which of the following is not primarily true of functions?
A. They are generally supported by both reporting structures and budgets B. They add structure and stability to organizations C. They form the core of the ITIL framework. D. They generally reflect an organzation's org charg |
C. They form the core of the ITIL framework.
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Which processes are part of the Service Operation Lifecycle?
A. Problem Management, Service Catalog Management, Service Portfolio Management, and Change Management B. Problem Management, Service Catalog Management, Service Request Fulfillment, Change Management C. Problem Management, Service Request Fulfillment, Incident Management, Event Management D. Event Management, Change Management, Service Portfolio Management, Incident Management |
C. Problem Management, Service Request Fulfillment, Incident Management, Event Management
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Which of the following activities is necessary for handling Standard Changes?
A. Authorization B. Logging/Recording C. Filtering D. Prioritization |
B. Logging/Recording
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