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121 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
a) Deming cycle b) RACI model c) CSI model d) Service model |
RACI model
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2. Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1- Configuration items (CIs) may be grouped and managed together 2- Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of controls a) 2 only b) 1 only c) All of the above d) None of the above |
c) All of the above
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Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
a) Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests b) Web front-end c) Menu driven range of self help and service requests d) A direct interface into the back end process of handling software. |
Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests.
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1. Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
a) Deming Cycle b) RACI model c) CSI (Continual Service Improvement) model d) Service model |
b) RACI model
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2. Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. Configuration Items (CIs) may be grouped and managed together 2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control a) 2 only b) 1 only c) All of the above d) None of the above |
c) All of the above
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3. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities ?
a) Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests b) Web front-end c) Menu-driven range of self help and service requests d) A direct interface into the back end process handling software |
a) Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
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4. What process does Demand Management work most closely with?
a) Service Level Management b) Capacity Management c) Service Strategy d) Configuration Management |
b) Capacity Management
Explanation: Service Strategy is a lifecycle phase, not a process. |
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5. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger 2. A characteristic of the "Process" is that it is performance driven and able to be measured. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) None of the above d) 2 only |
b) 1 and 2 only
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6. What is the difference between a process and a project?
a) A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan. b) A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan. c) A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. d) In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important |
a) A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
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7. Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?
a) Service Operation b) Demand Management c) Service Design d) Capacity Management |
d) Capacity Management
Explanation: Hint is that A and C are lifecycles, not "parts" of lifecycles. When performance is mentioned, usually capactiy is too. |
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8. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
a) IT Service Continuity Management b) Service Level Management c) Problem Management d) Availability Management |
d) Availability Management
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9. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?
a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk b) The level of availability realised and the time not available per period c) The percentage of incidents that were resolved within the target d) The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period |
a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk
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10. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics 2. Business continuity strategy 3. Business Impact analysis 4. Risk assessment a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 1, 2,and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only |
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
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11. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
a) Access Management b) Incident Management c) Release and Deployment Management d) Request Fulfillment |
d) Request Fulfillment
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12. What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
a) Steady, ongoing improvement b) Rapid, one-off improvement c) Return on investment within 12 months d) Quick Wins |
a) Steady, ongoing improvement
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13. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
1. Introducing new services 2. Decommissioning services 3. Transfer of services between service providers a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) All of the above d) 1 and 3 only |
c) All of the above
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14. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system (CMS) is CORRECT?
a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users b) There may be more than one CMS c) There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB) d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS |
d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS
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15. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?
a) The service owner b) The chief information officer c) Knowledge management d) The process owner |
d) The process owner
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16. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process address?
1. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans 2. Ensuring release packages can be tracked 3. Authorizing changes to support the process a) 1 and 2 only b) All of the above c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only |
a) 1 and 2 only
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17. Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
a) The version information of all software b) The organizational structure of the company c) Asset information d) Details of all operational services |
d) Details of all operational services
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18. Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the required metrics for new or
changed services? a) Service design b) Service operation c) Service strategy d) Service delivery |
a) Service design
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19. Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
1. IT service continuity management 2. Information security management 3. Service catalogue management a) All of the above b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only |
d) 1 and 2 only
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20. Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem workaround is found?
a) The problem record is closed b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all related incident records d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a request for change(RFC) |
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
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21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation 2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both of the above d) Neither of the above |
b) 2 only
Explanation: It is only this stage (Service Operation) that services actually deliver value to the business. |
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22. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
a) Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate b) Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate c) Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio d) Ensuring that all operational services arc recorded in the Service Catalogue |
b) Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
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23. In which lifecycle phase is the SKMS updated?
a) Strategy b) Design c) Transition d) Operations e) CSI |
c) Transition
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24. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
a) A process may define policies, standards and guidelines b) The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process with the objective of achieving Best Practice" c) The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals d) The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives |
b) The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process with the objective of
achieving Best Practice" Explanation: Process Control is The Activity of planning and regulating a Process, with the Objective of performing the Process in an Effective, Efficient, and consistent manner. |
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25. What are the three Service Provider business models?
a) Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party b) Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit c) Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party d) Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider |
d) Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
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26. Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
a) Where the vendor of an application is located b) Whether to buy an application or build it c) Who the vendor of the storage devices will be d) Should application development be outsourced |
b) Whether to buy an application or build it
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27. How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
a) There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement b) Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act c) The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement d) There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Cheek-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement |
c) The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
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28. Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
a) Prepare for action b) Define what you should measure c) Where are we now? d) Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement |
b) Define what you should measure
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29. What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Requirements B. Customer I Business Needs C. Service Solution D. Service Release |
B. Customer I Business Needs
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30. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve C. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve D. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene |
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
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31. "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Functions and Processes C. People, products and technology D. Markets and Customers |
B. Functions and Processes
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32. Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Utility and Warranty B. Services and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Applications and Infrastructure |
C. Resources and Capabilities
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33. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (OML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions or all software and back-ups are stored and protected |
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
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34. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner C. The Service Manager D. The Service Desk Manager |
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
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35. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation |
A. Separate procedures
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36. The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of services and service management processes B. The design and development of new services C. The day-to-day operation and support of services D. The design and development of service improvements |
A. The design and development of services and service management processes
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37. Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager B. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager C. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator |
C. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
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38. Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure B. Assisting in the design or tile application C. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application D. Deciding whether to buy or build an application |
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
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39. Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle B. Ensure delivery and support of a service C. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported D. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place |
B. Ensure delivery and support of a service
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40. Which of the statements below concerning Value Creation are true?
A. An organization uses Service Assets to create value in the form of goods and services. B. An organization relies on Capabilities to coordinate, control, and deploy Resources to produce value. a) A and B b) A only c) B only d) None of the above |
a) A and B
Explanation: A and B Both of the statements are true. (Service Strategy) - Key Principles and Models |
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41. Which of the following is NOT one of the four main activities under Service Strategy?
a) Define the Market b) Service Portfolio Management c) Develop Strategic Assets d) Prepare for Execution |
b) Service Portfolio Management
Explanation: The 3 are Strategy Generation activities. The missing one is “Deveop Offerings”. Service Portfolio Management is a process. |
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42. Which of the items below holds together any and all relevant CIs, along with their related attributes, in a centralized location; and is capable of linking to Incident, Problem, and Change records?
a) Definitive Media Store b) Discovery, Deployment, and Licensing Technologies c) Asset Management System (AMS) d) Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS) |
d) Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS)
Explanation: An Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS) holds together any and all relevant CIs, along with their related attributes, in a centralized location; and is capable of linking to Incident, Problem, and Change records. |
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43. Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?
A. Availability management B. Problem Management C. IT service continuity management D. Security Management |
B. Problem Management
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44. Which activity is not a service Desk activity?
A. Relating an incident to a known error B. Solving a problem C. Registering incidents D. Applying temporary fixes |
B. Solving a problem
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45. Which statement best describes the role of the service Desk?
A. The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer B. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems C. The service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned D. The service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available |
A. The service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer
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46. When an organization decides to control the flow of incidents information within the IT
organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place? A. Change management B. Availability management C. Incident Management D. Problem Management |
C. Incident Management
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47. A powerful failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Fortunately, there is an
ITSC Plan available. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan? A. Immediately, as the IT service can no longer be used B. When the time within which the failure should be solved, has exceeded. C. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement D. When the incident Manager thinks this is necessary |
C. When the continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum
period of time mentioned in the service Level agreement |
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48. Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to
support an application? A. Capacity Management B. Configuration Management C. Change Management D. Availability management |
A. Capacity Management
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49. Who decides the category of a change ?
A. The service desk B. The change manager C. The problem manager D. The customer |
B. The change manager
Explanation: Classification - Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. Only the Change Manager can determine the category of a specific change. |
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50. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The sequence in which the change is made B. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant etc C. The speed with which the change is made D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned |
B. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant etc
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51. Which activity in the problem management process is responsible for generating requests
for change (RFCs)? A. Error Control B. Monitoring C. Proactive Problem Management D. Problem Analysis |
A. Error Control
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52. TestKing.com calls the service Desk and Reports that the system is slow. He asks
whether he can be given another PC like this colleague's, which is much faster. Which term is applicable to this situation? A. Problem B. Request For Change C. Incident D. Classification |
C. Incident
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53. Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?
A. Request for Change (RFC) B. Known Error C. Work-around D. incident |
B. Known Error
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54. Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)? A. Which Requests for change have been submitted for a specific server? B. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC? C. Which Configuration items does a specific service consist of? D. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y? |
D. Which members of staff of department x have moved to department Y?
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55. Where are the statuses of changes recorded?
A. In the known error database B. In the change database C. In the configuration management database (CMDB) D. In the definitive software library (DSL) |
C. In the configuration management database (CMDB)
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56. When is a known error identified?
A. When the problem is known B. When the problem has been resolved C. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management D. When the cause of the problem is known |
D. When the cause of the problem is known
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57. What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the same
characteristics? A. A problem B. A change request C. A service call D. A known error |
A. A problem
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58. When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are assigned
to identify the cause. Which ITIL process is responsible for this? A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Service Level Management D. Problem Management |
D. Problem Management
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59. Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures?
A. Problem Management B. Capacity Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Service Desk |
C. IT Service Continuity Management
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60. An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information
database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased, to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient? A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Change Management D. Security Management |
B. Capacity Management
Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner. |
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61. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative
determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. Availability Management B. Change Management C. Configuration Management D. Service Level Management |
B. Change Management
Explanation: The case was registered as an incident with an obvious solution. The solution is to exchange the hardware used by the user and therefore the incident process will hand over the case to the change process. Availability Management plans for short interruptions in everyday work but do not act to solve an interruption once there is one. Configuration Management handles the CMDB and tells people how the hardware should be configured, but they do not configure the hardware themselves. Service Level Management states how fast the users computer should be replaced, but they do not actually replace the hardware. |
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62. An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the
actual implementation takes place, the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. Under whose leadership is this discussion held? A. the Change Manager B. the Service Level Manager C. the Service Manager D. the Network Manager |
A. the Change Manager
Explanation: The goal of Change Management is to manage the process of change through standardized methods and procedures, thereby limiting incidents related to change and improving day-to-day operations. Successful Change Management results in fewer incidents being generated before the process was implemented. All changes must be approved by the change management process. |
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63. Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT
infrastructure? A. Availability Management B. Change Management C. Incident Management D. Problem Management |
B. Change Management
Explanation: The question states “resulting from the changes”…The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements, in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality, and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organization. |
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64. The information security policy should include all of the following policies EXCEPT?
A. An e-mail policy B. A records retention policy C. A charging policy D. An asset disposal policy |
C. A charging policy
Explanation: A charging policy does not have to be included in the information security policy. A charging policy specifies the objective of the charging process and the way in which charges will be calculated. |
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65. Through which process would a major change that has a considerable cost and risk usually be initiated?
A. Service Portfolio Management B. Problem management C. Change evaluation D. Change Management |
A. Service Portfolio Management
Explanation: The Service Portfolio Management process is responsible for managing the service portfolio. Service Portfolio management ensures that the service provider has the right mix of services to meet required business outcomes at an appropriate level of investments. This process considers services in terms of the business value that they provide. Major changes that have a high risk, cost, or impact to the organization are typically initiated from the service portfolio management process. While the Change Management process will need to evaluate the impact of a major change, it would initiate the change. |
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66. Which of the following statements about critical success factors (CSFs) and key performance indicators (KPIs) from the Continual Service improvement lifecycle stage is/are CORRECT?
1. A service should have no more than two to five associated CSFs during any point of time. 2. No more than two to seven KPIs should be defined for each CSF. A. Both of the above B. Neither of the above C. 2 only D. 1 only |
D. 1 only
Explanation: A service should have no more than two to five associated CSFs during any point in time. A CSF is something that must happen if an IT service, process, project, plan, or other activity is to succeed. KPIs are metrics used to help manage an IT service, process, plan, project, or other activity. They are used to measure the achievement of each CSF. There should be no more than two to five KPIs should be defined for each CSF. |
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67. Which sub process of capacity management focuses on how the current services that support the business are delivered?
1. Service capacity management 2. Component capacity management 3. Business capacity management A. 1 only B. 3 only C. All of the above D. 2 only |
A. 1 only
Explanation: While there are many similar activities carried out by each sub process of capacity management, each individual sub process has a unique focus. The service capacity management sub process is responsible for understanding the performance and capacity of IT services. This sub process focuses on how the current services that support the business are delivered. |
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68. Which of the following is the BEST description of service management?
A. An approach that emphasizes the importance of coordination and control across the various functions, processes, and systems necessary to manage the full lifecycle of IT services. B. An assurance that a product or service will meet the agreed requirements. C. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need. D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services. |
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.
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69. Which service design aspect would benefit the MOST by using a RACI model?
A. Design of measurement methods and metrics B. Design of processes required C. Design of service solutions D. Design of technology and management architectures |
B. Design of processes required
Explanation: When designing the ‘required processes’ aspect of Service Design, it is necessary to clearly define the roles and their responsibilities. RACI, an acronym for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and informed, is a model used to help define roles and responsibilities. As a result, the ‘processes required’ service design aspect would benefit the most from the RACI model. |
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70. Which of the following aspects of service management would be included in the scope of event management?
1. Configuration items (CIs) 2. Environmental conditions 3. Security 4. Brainstorming sessions A. 1 and 4 only B. all of the above C. 1, 2, and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only |
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation: Event management can be applied to any facet of service management that needs to be closely managed and that can be automated. This includes CIs, environmental conditions, security, software licensing, and normal activity. While 1, 2 and 3 are all aspects of service management included in the scope of event management, brainstorming sessions are not. They are used during problem management to identify trends that might point towards the existence of an underlying problem. |
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71. What is the purpose of service design?
A. To plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments. B. To ensure that new, modified, or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the service strategy and service design stages of the life cycle. C. To define the perspective, position, plans and patterns that a service provider needs to execute to meet an organization’s business outcomes. D. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers. |
A. To plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments.
Explanation: The purpose of service design is to plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments. This helps to ensure quality service delivery, cost-effective service provision, and customer satisfaction. Option “B” is the purpose for Service Transition, option “C” is Service Strategy and option “D” is Service Operation. |
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72. Which of the following statements about baselines is/are CORRECT?
1. Baselines should be established but do not need to be documented. 2. Collecting data at the beginning or during first measurements is essential, regardless of the data’s integrity. A. All of the above B. Neither of the above C. 1 only D. 2 only |
D. 2 only
Explanation: Statement #1 is false. While it is important to establish baselines from the outset, they should also be documented for later comparison. If baselines are not documented, it can make it difficult or impossible to recall them. Statement #2 is correct. Collecting data at the beginning or during first measurements is essential, regardless of the data’s integrity. Having some data as a starting point, even if suspect, is better than having no starting point. |
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73. Which of the following are objectives of the seven-step improvement process?
1. To define and manage the steps needed to identify, define, gather, process, analyze, present, and implement improvements 2. To lower the cost of providing services 3. To ensure that IT services enable the achievement of required business outcomes A. All of the above B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 only |
B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: There are a number of objectives of the seven-step improvement process. This includes the objective to lower the cost of providing services to ensure that IT services enable the achievement of required business outcomes. Lowering costs is almost always a good objective for a process; however, you must also ensure that quality or service delivery is not affected. So you need to ensure that the impact of a cost reduction does not result in missing a business outcome. Statement #1 is not correct because it is “to define and manage the steps to identify, define, etc….” which is not an objective. |
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74. Within the IT service continuity management (ITSCM) process of Business Continuity Management (BCM), which key activity is part of the requirements and strategy stage of the lifecycle?
A. Business Impact analysis (BIA) B. Develop IT service continuity plans C. Change management D. Policy settings |
A. Business Impact analysis (BIA)
Explanation: ITSCM is a recurring process through the lifecycle, used to make sure any service continuity and recovery plans that are created are kept in line with current business priorities. This would include any business continuity plans (BCPs). The requirements and strategy stage includes the business impact analysis. Statement B, ‘Develop IT service continuity plans’ is part of the implementation stage, not the requirements and strategy stage of the lifecycle. |
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75. Which of the following is a technique that can be used to help evaluate and minimize the normal operational incidents from occurring?
A. SWOT analysis B. Service analytics C. Risk assessment D. Quality Assurance |
Explanation: Risk assessment is the initial step of risk management: analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. It is also a technique that can be used to help evaluate and minimize the normal operational incidents from occurring. Service analytics is a technique used to assess the business impact of incidents. Quality Assurance (QA) is a process, not a technique, responsible for ensuring that the quality of a product, service, or process will provide its intended use. SWOT – an acronym for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. SWOT analysis is a technique that involves reviewing and analyzing the internal strengths and weaknesses of an organization and the external opportunities and threats that it faces.
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76. Which of the following is used to manage the lifecycle of a single change?
A. Change Record B. Standard Change C. Change model D. Request for Change (RFC) |
A. Change Record
Explanation: A change record contains the particulars of a change. Each individual change record details the lifecycle of a single change and contains all the information required about the change, which includes information found in the RFC. As a result, the change record is used to manage the lifecycle of the change that it details. A change model is a separate way of dealing with a particular category of change. A change model defines specific predefined steps that will be followed for a change of this category. However, a Change model does NOT allow you to manage the lifecycle of a single change. |
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77. Which is the MAIN responsibility of the service owner?
A. Provide the overall management of all IT services B. Deliver a specific IT service C. Define all aspects of an IT service and its requirements throughout each stage of its lifecycle D. Communicate process information or changes as appropriate to ensure awareness |
B. Deliver a specific IT service
Explanation: The service owner is accountable for delivering a specific IT service. They are responsible to the customer for initiation, transition, and ongoing maintenance and support of a specific service. The Service owner’s responsibilities also include: act a s prime customer contact for all service related enquiries and issues, ensure service delivery and support meet customer requirements, identify opportunities for service improvement, liaise with appropriate process owners, solicit required data for analysis, be the one accountable to IT director or SM director. Statement “C” defines the properties of a service design package. |
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78. Which of the following is NOT a value that is a result of implementing best practices for Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
A. Steady and ongoing improvement in service quality B. Ensures that IT services stay aligned to the requirements of the business C. Recognize opportunities to increase the value of organizational structures and capabilities D. Improved control of service assets and configurations |
D. Improved control of service assets and configurations
Explanation: Improved control of service assets and configurations is a benefit or value of implementing good service transition, not continual service improvement. |
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79. Which of the following has the same goal as Event Management?
A. Service analytics B. Instrumentation C. Tuning D. Incident Management |
B. Instrumentation
Explanation: Instrumentation is a term that refers to those techniques and technologies used to measure the various behaviors exhibited by elements that make up the IT infrastructure. The goal of instrumentation is to transform data into actual information that can be acted on and used. Event management has the same goal. |
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80. Which of the following is NOT a value that is a result of implementing good service design?
A. Ease of implementation of new services B. Improved quality of service C. Reduced frequency and duration of service outages D. Reduced total cost of ownership (TCO) |
C. Reduced frequency and duration of service outages
Explanation: Reduced frequency and duration of service outages is a value that is a result of implementing good service operation, not service design. Reducing the frequency and duration of service outages allows the business to receive the full benefit of value created by the services they are delivering. |
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81. Which type of metrics are captured or documented as key performance indicators (KPI), critical success factors (CSF), and activity metrics for the service management processes?
A. Process metrics B. Technology metrics C. Improvement metrics D. Service metrics |
A. Process metrics
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82. Which of the following are aspects of strategy that represent the scope of service strategy?
1. Defining a strategy by which a service provider will supply services to meet the business outcomes of a customer. 2. Defining the organizational capability needed to deliver the strategy. 3. Defining a strategy on how to administer those services A. 1 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 2 only D. 1 only |
A. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Two aspects of strategy are defined by the ITIL Service Strategy core publication: 1 – Defining a strategy by which a service provider will supply services to meet the business outcomes of a customer 2 – Defining a strategy on how to administer those services |
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83. Which aspect of availability is a measure of how long an IT service can perform its agreed function without interruption?
A. Maintainability B. Serviceability C. Reliability D. Availability |
C. Reliability
Explanation: Reliability is a measure of how long an IT service or other configuration item (CI) can perform its agreed function without interruption. It is usually measured as a mean time between failures (MTBF) or mean between service incidents (MBSI). Maintainability is an aspect of availability. It is a measure of how quickly and effectively an IT service or other CI can be restored to normal working after a failure and is often measured as mean time to restore service (MTRS). Serviceability is the ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. This contract will include agreed levels of reliability, maintainability, and availability for a configuration item (CI). Availability is the ability of an IT service or CI to perform its agreed function when required. It is determined by reliability, maintainability, serviceability, performance and security- usually calculated as a percentage. |
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84. Which of the following BEST describes availability?
A. A measure of how long an IT service or other Configuration Item can perform its agreed function without interruption. B. A measure of how quickly and effectively an IT service or other Configuration Item can be restored to normal working after a failure. C. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. D. The ability of an IT service or other CI to perform its agreed function when required. |
D. The ability of an IT service or other CI to perform its agreed function when required.
Explanation: Availability is the ability of an IT service or CI to perform its agreed function when required. It is determined by reliability, maintainability, serviceability, performance and security- usually calculated as a percentage. It is best practice to calculate availability of an IT service using measurements of the business output. |
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85. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services |
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
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86. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management |
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
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87. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Implementing service and process improvements B. Aligning the business and IT strategies C. Creating a baseline D. Defining measurable targets |
D. Defining measurable targets
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88. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A. It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle B. It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization C. It consists of five publications D. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000 |
B. It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
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89. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation phase of the Lifecycle?
1 - Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged 2 - Control of user desk-top PCs 3 - Create and use diagnostic scripts 4 - Dashboard type technology A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only |
B. All of the above
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90. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options 2 Management summary 3 Business workload forecasts 4 Backout plans A. 2, 3 and 4 B. All of them C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 |
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: 1,2 and 3 are all usually included in a Capacity plan. Back-out plans are associated with Change Management. |
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91. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification B. Security C. Reliability D. Maintainability |
A. Verification
Explanation: B,C and D are all elements of Availability Management . Verification is an element of Configuration Management. |
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92. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money B. Be as high level as possible C. Match the organization’s requirement for information to be held D. Vary according to cost |
A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money
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93. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A. Service Level Manager B. Capacity Manager C. Change Manager D. Financial Manager |
C. Change Manager
Explanation: This is a Change Request. Change Management is responsible for managing all RFCs. Other areas may be involved in assessing options and implementing the change, however, responsibility for managing the request rests with Change Management. |
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94. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A. Lack of ownership of impacted services B. Increased visibility and communication of changes C. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs D. The ability to absorb a larger volume of change |
A. Lack of ownership of impacted services
Explanation: B, C & D are all benefits of implementing Change Management whereas A is a difficulty |
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95. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A. Develop Procedures and Initial Testing B. Education and Awareness C. Review, Audit and Assurance D. Ongoing Training and Testing |
A. Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
Explanation: ‘Develop procedures and initial testing’ is part of the Implementation stage. |
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96. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager 2 Customer representatives 3 Change Manager 4 Senior IT technical managers A. 2 and 3 only B. All of them C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4 |
B. All of them
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97. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A. The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable B. The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation C. The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available D. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure |
D. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure
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98. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax B. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value C. Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed) D. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity |
D. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
Explanation: A is true. Depreciation is the reduction in value of an asset over time. Staff costs are operational (day to day running). ROCE is defined as net profit before tax & interest/total assets less current liabilities. |
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99. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A. Documentation B. Software C. Purchase order D. Accommodation |
C. Purchase order
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100. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1 Tool selection 2 Tool specification 3 Process design 4 Functional requirements analysis In which order should the above activities be taken? A. 4 2 1 3 B. 4 3 2 1 C. 2 1 4 3 D. 2 1 3 4 |
B. 4 3 2 1
Explanation: Tool selection should only take place once analysis of requirements, process definition & tool specification activities are complete. |
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101. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements B. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets. C. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability. D. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost |
A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
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102. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
A. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs B. Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services, C. Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs |
D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
Explanation: ‘Catalogue services’ is the first step in defining the services provided by an IT department. Once defined, SLRs can be obtained from the business and then reviewed against existing internal & external capabilities. Following any further negotiation required, SLAs can be agreed with business representatives. |
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103. Which of the following statements is true?
A. An urgent release is always a delta release B. A full release may contain package and delta releases C. package release may contain full and delta releases D. A full release may contain several delta releases |
C. package release may contain full and delta releases
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104. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum B. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands C. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels |
D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
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105. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A. Network Management B. The Service Desk C. Capacity Management D. Problem Management |
B. The Service Desk
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106. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts 2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents 3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported 4 A Forward Schedule of Change Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk? A. All four B. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3 |
A. All four
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107. Consider the following list:
1 Modelling 2 Risk Analysis 3 Application Sizing 4 DSL maintenance Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4 |
B. 1 and 3
Explanation: Capacity Management responsibilities include Modelling & Application Sizing. Risk Analysis is used in ITSCM and Availability Management. DSL maintenance is the responsibility of Release Management. |
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108. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1. Incident Management 2. Availability Management 3. Configuration Management 4. IT Service Continuity Management 5. Change Management A. 1, 3 and 5 B. 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. All of them |
D. All of them
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109. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
A. Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available B. No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management C. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems D. Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information |
C. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
Explanation: Problem Management will benefit greatly if Incident Management is in place however long standing problems can be identified and addressed without Incident Management in place. Therefore Problem Management is not entirely dependent on Incident Management. (The ‘incidents’ will still occur, but they will not be managed) |
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110. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A. The RFCs that it satisfies B. The number of updates to the OHS C. Service Level metrics D. The DSL configuration |
A. The RFCs that it satisfies
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111. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs |
A Chairing the CAB
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112. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
A. You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs B. You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control C. You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded D. You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff |
B. You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
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113. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A. Customer Service Level Requirements are established B. Changes taking place are properly coordinated C. All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date. D. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls |
D. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
Explanation: A benefit of introducing a Service Desk is that more effective and efficient use of support resources is possible. This is partly achieved by ensuring all incidents are logged with the Service Desk avoiding calls direct to support teams. |
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114. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
A. A capital cost B. A type of charging policy C. An uplift to allocated costs D. A revenue stream |
C. An uplift to allocated costs
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115. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not B. There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error C. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause is known D. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT infrastructure, with a Problem there is not |
C. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause is known
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116. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A. DSL B. AMDB C. CMDB D. CDB |
C. CMDB
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117. What roles does the ISG play in ensuring that Service Design aligns with business needs?
A. Identifying potential business partners for outsourcing B. Ensuring that IT management approves of the projects that are authorized for implementation C. Reviewing IT and business plans D. Reviewing IT policies and standards |
C. Reviewing IT and business plans
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35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 - Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users 2 - Recording Change Requests from users 3 - Handling complaints and queries A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 |
C. 1 and 3
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