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217 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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CNO
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Chief of Naval Operations
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COMNAVNETWARCOM
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Commander Naval Netwarfare Command
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NCMS
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Naval Communications Security Material System
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CMIO
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COMSEC Material Issuing Office
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ISIC
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Immediate Superior in Command
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DISA
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Director Defense Information System Agency
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DAA
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Designate Approving Authorities
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MSAB
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Multinational Security Accreditation Board
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NAA
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National Accreditation Authority
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WSC-3
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Transceiver
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WSC-5
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o SHF Antenna (Shore Duty Only)
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WSC-6
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o SHF Antenna (Ships Only)
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GBS
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--Global Broadcast System
Provides Joint operations with high-speed, multimedia communications, and information for deployed, on the move (in-transit), units |
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CUDIXS
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o COMMON USER DIGITAL INFORMATION EXCHANGE SUBSYSTEM
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BCA
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--Broadcast Control Authority
The BCA implements an approved Fleet Broadcast for a specific communications area |
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BCS
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--Broadcast Control Station
The BCS provides all the technical aspects of affecting a Fleet Broadcast |
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BKS
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--Broadcast Keying Station
The BKS introduces message or facsimile traffic into the Fleet Broadcast Network by generating a key stream of broadcast-bound information to the BCS for specific channel allocation before being forwarded to the BRS for broadcast transmission |
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BRS
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--Broadcast Radiating Station
The BRS radiates the broadcast signal to the Fleet via Satellite, Super High Frequency (SHF), and/or Low Frequency (LF). Both area NCTAMS have the ability to rekey/radiate individual broadcast channels via 75BPS Guard Numbers on all DAMA networks upon approval from the numbered fleet commander controlling the broadcast. |
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GCCS-M
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--Global Command Control System Maritime
GCCS-M is the maritime implementation of the joint services GCCS providing a single, integrated, scalable C4I system |
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CWSP
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o Commercial Wideband Satcom Program
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Network Accreditation Process
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1. All systems or networks requesting endorsement of the MSAB may be required to brief the MSAB during the development process
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Network Accreditation Process
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2. National project office submits accreditation package to NAA for approval.
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Network Accreditation Process
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3. NAA advises the national MSAB representative when the nations system is accredited
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Network Accreditation Process
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4. The NAA is responsible for accrediting any guest nation
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Network Accreditation Process
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5. The MSAB national representative is responsible for providing the National Accreditation Endorsement Certificate NAEC of any guest nation they sponsor
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Network Accreditation Process
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6. MSAB chair provides CAEC when all nations connecting to network or systems are accredited
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• 2182 kHz
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International voice distress, safety, and calling;
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• 121.5 MHz
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International voice aeronautical emergency; (IAD)
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• 243.0 MHz
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Joint/combined military voice aeronautical emergency and international survival craft.(MAD)
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CNO
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o Overall Responsible for DON COMSEC Program
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COMNAVNETWARCOM
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o Responsible for Implementing DON COMSEC Program
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NMCS
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o Administers the DON COMSEC program and is the SERVAUTH for DON.
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CMIO
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o Receives, stores, and ships Ready for Issue (RFI) equipment
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ISIC
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o Responsible for the administrative oversight of all COMSEC matters for their subordinate commands
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AL CODE 1
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o Accountable by Serial Number
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AL CODE 2
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o Accountable by Quantity
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AL CODE 4
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o Accountable by Quantity and Classification
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AL CODE 6
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o Electronically Generated
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AL CODE 7
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o Electronically Generate Locally Accountable
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1. Who provides web access to current IA policies?
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DISA
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2. Which FPCON Level is used when the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
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DELTA
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3. Which FPCON Level is used when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities?
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ALPHA
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4. What is the lowest Tier level of EKMS?
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Tier 3
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5. Wrongful use of or possession of a controlled substance is what Article of the UCMJ?
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Article 112a
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6. What is the code name given to the investigation, study, and control of compromising emanations from telecommunications and automated information processing systems?
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TEMPEST
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7. What is the service provided between aeronautical stations (normally a land station but may be placed on board a ship or an earth satellite) and aircraft stations or between aircraft stations in which survival craft stations may also participate?
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Aeronautical Mobile Service
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8. Who is responsible for providing training for public affairs and staff officers?
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Assistant Secretary of Defense for Public Affairs
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9. Who is the Navy’s central operation authority for C4I?
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NETWARCOM
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10. What is article 82 of the UCMJ?
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Solicitation
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11. What VA Level is the Security Sweep?
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3
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12. What is the service between coast stations and ship stations, or between ship stations, in which survival craft stations may also participate?
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Maritime Mobile Service
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13. Who has the overall responsibility and authority for implementation of National COMSEC policy within the DON?
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CNO
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14. What are the 5 attributes of Information Assurance?
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Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, Authentication Non-Repudiation
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15. What code is used for a message when an originating or relay station detects an error in a transmission?
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ZEL/ZDG
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16. What are the four C’s in C4I?
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Command, control, computers, communications
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17. What attribute of Information Assurance does not disclosed information to unauthorized individuals, processes or devices?
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CONFIDENTIALITY
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18. What is Article 87 of the UCMJ?
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Missing Movement
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19. Who Implements the DON COMSEC Program?
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COMNAVNETWARCOM
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20. What attribute of Information Assurance make sure data is correct and sent form a liable source?
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Integrity
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21. The distress signal in voice consist of which word?
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MayDay
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22. What attribute of Information Assurance provides timely reliable access to data and information services for authorized personnel
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Non-Repudiation
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23. How many NCTAMS are there?
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2
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24. What does the acronym NCMS stand for?
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Naval Communications Security Material System
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25. What code is used for a message that is garbled or incomplete?
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ZDK
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26. What three letters are typed out for the distress signal in RATT mode?
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SOS
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27. Destruction of Military Property is what Article of the UCMJ?
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Article 108
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28. What article of the UCMJ was Johnnie Walker charged with for Espionage?
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106a
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29. Visitor Logs must contain all of the following except for?
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Height of Person
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30. How long is the Top Secret Log kept for?
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60 Days
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31. Which FPCON Level is used when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
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Bravo
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32. Where is NCTAMS Pac Located?
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Wahiawa, HI
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33. You should address your distress call directly to a particular station.
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FALSE
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34. Which of the following logs are kept for 30 days?
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Watch to Watch Inventory
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35. What attribute of Information Assurance Assures the sender of the data is provided with proof of delivery?
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Non- Repudiation
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36. Which frequency is used for International Air Distress?
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121.5
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37. What article of the UCMJ will a sailor be charged with if they are going to mast for Sexual Assualt?
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Article 120
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38. Who administers the DON COMSEC program and is the SERVAUTH for DON?
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NCMS
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39. Who Receives, stores, and ships Ready for Issue (RFI) equipment and is the Physical Material Handling Segment (PMHS) for Navy in the EKMS
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CMIO
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40. Which frequency is used for Military Air distress?
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243.0
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41. What VA level is stress testing performed?
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4
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42. Article 92 of the UCMJ is failure to obey a Lawful order?
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True
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43. What is Article 119 of the UCMJ?
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Article 119
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44. If a Sailor is goes to mast for UA what article are charged with?
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Article 86
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45. How many Terrorist Threat Levels are there?
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4
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46. How many NCT’s are managed by NCTAMSLANT and NCTAMSPAC?
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7
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47. What confirms compliance of the security requirements with accepted standards of the proposed implement solutions?
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Certification
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48. Which Message Format Line is used to address who the message is being sent to?
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FL 7
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49. What is the official management authorization to operate a CIS network with a given set of constraints?
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Accreditation
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50. What is article 118 of the UCMJ?
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Murder
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51. Who coordinates inputs from national accreditation agencies for interconnected networks?
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Multinational Security Accreditation Board (MSAB)
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52. What provides the users with privacy guidelines when they are using a government system?
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Banners
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53. Who Responsible for the administrative oversight of all COMSEC matters for their subordinate commands?
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ISIC
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54. Who is responsible for properly administering his/her command's EKMS account and ensuring compliance with established policy and procedures?
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CO
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55. Whose mission is it to coordinate, monitor and oversee the defense of Navy networks?
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NCDOC
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56. What does NCDOC Stand for?
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Navy Cyber Defense Operation Center
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57. In case of an incident or disaster the command will use what to restore their network?
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Disaster Recovery Plan
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58. What are the four Vulnerability Analysis Activity Levels?
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1,2,3,4
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59. Which Message Format Line contains the Station Serial Number?
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FL 15
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60. What VA Level Is the Primary Investigation?
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1
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61. Article 125 of the UCMJ is Sodomy?
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TRUE
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62. What is the Communications Officer also referred to as?
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COMMO
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63. Visitor Logs must contain all of the following except for?
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Height of Person
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64. Who’s responsible to their Commanding Officer for the proper management and security of all COMSEC material held by the command?
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Local Element
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65. True of false Unclassified Material requires TPI?
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False
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66. How many Tiers does EKMS consist of?
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4
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67. Who is the NCTAMS N3 primary assistant for supervising and coordinating all telecommunications functions ashore?
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JFTOC watch officer
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68. Each EKMS Tier 2 account can be identified by what number of digits and it’s also known as the EKMS ID?
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6
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69. If a Sailor is goes to mast for desertion what article are charged with?
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Article 85
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70. How long must he Master Station Log be kept for?
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1 Year
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71. The EKMS Manager must be designated in writing by whom?
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CO
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72. What are the standard markings of COMSEC material?
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TS, S, C, U
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73. How many AL codes are used to identify the minimum accounting controls required for COMSEC material?
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5
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74. If a sailor is being charged with Assualt at mast what article of the UCMJ are they being charged with?
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Article 128
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75. What VA Level is the Vulnerability Sweep?
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2
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76. Who must appoint the EKMS manager in writing?
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CO
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77. What are the Tier Levels of EKMS?
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Tier 0, Tier 1, Tier 2, Tier 3
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78. What does EKMS Stand for?
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Electronic Keying Material System
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79. Who Is the Navy cryptographic authority, administers the EKMS system and approves doctrine.
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NCMS
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80. The National Agency provides centralized coordination and direction for signals intelligence and communications security for the Federal Government.
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TRUE
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81. What does IAM stand for?
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Information Assurance Manager
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82. Which Tier Level of EKMS composite of NSA's Fort Meade and Finksburg key facilities that provides centralized key management services for all forms of key?
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Tier 0
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83. Who has the overall responsible for the Security of their command NIPRNET and SIPRNET?
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IAM
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84. What Article of the UCMJ charges officers with conduct unbecoming of an officer?
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Article 133
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85. Which AL code is accountable to the COR by accounting (serial/register) number from production to destruction?
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AL-1
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86. Which AL code is COMSEC material that is locally accountable by quantity and handled/safeguarded based on its classification?
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AL-4
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87. What is a list of all equipment onboard a ship.
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CEP SUMMARY
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88. How many times per year must a CEP Summary is submitted?
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2
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89. What does PMS Stand For?
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Preventive Maintenance System
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90. Which Tier Level serves as the intermediate key generation and distribution center, central offices of record (COR), privilege managers, and registration authorities for EKMS/COMSEC accounts?
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Tier 1
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91. What lists the enlisted rate, time, tools, parts, and materials required to perform the maintenance?
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MRC
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92. What schedule contains all planned maintenance to be accomplished within the week for equipment in that space?
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Weekly
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93. What schedule displays a division’s maintenance for that quarter?
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Annually
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94. Which Tier Level of EKMS is comprised of the EKMS Accounts that manage key and other COMSEC material?
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Tier 2
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95. Which AL code is COMSEC material that is electronically generated?
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AL-6. AL-7
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96. COMSEC material is superseded in how many ways?
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3
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97. What article of the UCMJ is called the General article but also known as the catch all?
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Article 134
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98. Which supersession is based on a specific, pre-determined supersession date for each edition of material by the Controlling Authority?
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Regular
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99. Which ACP is used for Communications Instructions Distress and Rescue Procedures?
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ACP 135(F)
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100. What are three types of Waves?
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Sound, Light, Radio
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101. What are Transverse waves also called?
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Water
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102. Who provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel and security matters?
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National Security Council
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103. Longitudinal waves travel back and forth in the same direction?
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True
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104. What is a continuous series of waves having the same amplitude and wavelength
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Wave Train
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105. What type of wave is reflected from the surface of the medium they encounter?
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Reflection
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106. What is meant by a wave passing through one medium to another while changing the direction of the wave?
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Refraction
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107. How many atmospheres is the Earth divided into?
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3
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A sailor will be charged with what Article of the UCMJ if they are caught being drunk on duty?
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Article 112
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109. Which portion of the Earth's atmosphere that extends from the surface of the Earth to a height of about 3.7 miles (6 km) at the North Pole or the South Pole and 11.2 miles (18 km) at the equator?
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Troposphere
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110. The ionosphere is mainly used for what type of communications?
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Long Distance Point to Point
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111. What type of wave travels along the surface of the earth?
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Surface
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112. How many layers is the Ionosphere composed of?
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3
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113. Which layer of the Ionosphere is separated into 2 layers?
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F
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114. What is the lowest layer of the Ionosphere?
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D
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115. Who is the primary internal security agency of the government with jurisdiction over investigative matters, which include espionage, sabotage, treason and other subversive activities?
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FBI
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116. Who is responsible for implementation of standards and operational management of Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) for the DoD?
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DIA
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117. A Top Secret Officer can be all of the following except for?
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Military Spouse who’s not a citizen of the United States
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118. Which Oprep Report Provides military units, at any level of command, a system to report significant events and incidents to the highest levels of command.
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Oprep-3
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119. What is a series of messages that’s used to report incidents that are national level interest to the National Military Command Center?
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Oprep-3 Pinnacle
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120. Which Oprep-3 report is used for an exercise purposes.
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Oprep-3 White Pinnacle
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121. Which Oprep-3 report notifies the CNO of incidents that are high on the Navy national level of interest?
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Oprep-3 navy Blue
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122. What type of message is used to inform commands of terrorist incidents?
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Blue Dart
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123. What is Information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities?
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Counterintelligence
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124. What is a set of doctrines or beliefs that form the basis of political, social needs of a group?
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Ideology
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125. Which of the following is not a preparation for terrorist attacks?
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Target Communications
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126. Which terrorist threat level is used when no terrorist group is detected or the group activity is nonthreatening?
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Low
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127. Which terrorist threat level is used when an anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
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High
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128. Which terrorist threat level is used when Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity?
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Medium
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129. How many FPCON Levels do we have?
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5
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130. Which FPCON Level is used when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture
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Normal
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131. Which FPCON Level is used when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely?
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Charlie
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132. What article will a sailor be charged with if they go to mast for fraud?
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Article 83
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What does DAMA stand for?
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Demand Assigned Multiple Access
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134. What is the Baud Rate of CUDIXS?
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2400
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135. What is the 3rd Harmonic frequency of 600Hz?
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1800 Hz
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136. What Material Condition Provides the least protection?
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X-Ray
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137. What Material Condition is set during general quarters?
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Zebra
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138. What Marterial Condition is set when the ship is in routine operations?
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Yoke
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What fittings are set to protect the ship from showing any outside light?
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Dog Zebra
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140. What is Material Condition William fittings marked with?
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Black W
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141. Circle William fittings are normally set to protect the ship from CBR attacks?
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True
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142. What color smoke does a Class A fire produce?
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White
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143. A Class B fire is composed of Electronic Equipment?
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False
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144. What is the LF Frequency Range?
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30-300 Khz
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145. What is the HF Frequency Range?
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3-20 Mhz
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146. What is the UHF Frequency Range?
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300 MHz-3GHz
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147. What is SHF Frequency Range?
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3-30 GHz
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148. What is the VHF Frequency Range?
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30-300 MHz
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149. What is the EHF Frequency Range?
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30-300 GHz
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150. Which Frequency Band is used for Line Of Site Short Range Communications?
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UHF
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151. Which Frequency Band is used aeronautical radio navigation and communications, radar, amateur radio, and mobile communications (such as for boat crews and landing parties)?
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VHF
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152. Which Frequency Band has been designed to counter jamming, intercept, spoofing, and nuclear effects?
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EHF
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153. What does LF stand for?
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Low Frequency
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154. What does UHF stand for?
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Ultra High Frequency
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155. What does EHF stand for?
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Extremely High Frequency
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156. What are the two colors for patch panels?
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Red/ Black
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157. What color patch panel indicates that non-secure (unclassified) information is being passed through the panel?
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Red
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158. What equipment is normally associated with a normal through circuit?
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C-10316
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159. What is meant by the term Full Duplex?
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Refers to a communications system or equipment capable of transmitting simultaneously in two directions.
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160. What is meant by the term Half Duplex?
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Pertains to a transmission over a circuit capable of transmitting in either direction, but only one direction at a time
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161. Which communication circuit is used primarily on task force/task group/ORESTES and is a combination of the simplex and duplex modes?
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Semi Duplex
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162. How far in advance are ships required to submit termination requests prior to getting underway?
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48 Hours
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163. What time period must system back-to-back off-the-air tests be completed prior to getting underway?
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24 Hours
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164. What publication is contains international call signs?
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ACP 113
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165. What publication is used for Message Preparation, Call and Address Components of Message Headings?
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ACP 121(H)
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166. What publication contains information on communication security and certification and accredation?
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ACP 122 (E)
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167. ACP 131 contains information on Q and Z signals?
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True
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168. What publication is used for distress and emergency signals and also contains frequencies for distress and search and rescue?
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ACP 135
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169. What publication is use for OTAT and OTAR procedures?
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NAG-16
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What publication contains information on Establishment of an EKMS Account and Associated Responsibilities
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EKMS 1
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171. What publication contains information on EKMS inspection policy and the duties of the EKMS inspectors?
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EKMS 3
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172. What publication is the Cryptographic Equipment Information Guidance Manual?
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EKMS 5
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What PRC operates in the Frequency Range of 2-75.9 MHz?
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PRC-70
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174. What PRC operates in the Frequency Range of 30-75.95 MHz?
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PRC-77
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The PRC-96 operates in Frequency Range of 121.5-243 MHz?
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TRUE
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176. Which PRC can operate in both UHF and VHF modes?
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PRC-113
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177. What is the Frequency Range of the PRC-104?
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2-29.9 MHz
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178. Which PRC is used for Frequency Hopping and operates in the 30-89.975MHz Frequency Range?
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PRC-117
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