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158 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the most important function of the respiratory system?
Gas Exchange
What are the functions of the respiratory system?
1. Gas exchange
2. Airway protection
3. Filtration of blood borne emboli
4. Metabolic functions
How do inhalant anaesthetics effect the airways?
Stop alveolar macrophages and mucociliary escalator
The lower airways have what kind of surface area and resistance?
High surface area and low resistance
How many times more soluble is CO2 compared to O2?
20 times
On what does the patency of the bronchioles depend?
Elastic recoil
Heaves is an inflammatory condition characterised by what?
bronchospasm, mucus plugs and chronic fibrosis in bronchiolar walls leading to terminal airway obstruction.
Heaves is thought to be due to what?
Allergy to inhaled antigens e.g. dust from feed and bedding
Heaves presents as what?
coughing, exercise intolerance, increased respiratory rate and effort, flared nostrils.
What is the Heave line?
The latissimus dorsi muscle atrophies and leaves a line on the horses side
What diagnostic techniques would you use to check for Heaves?
Thoracic ausculation - re-breathing bag. Will hear wheezes and crackles
BAL = >10-15% neutraphils and mucus
Blood gas = hypoxaemia
Name the causes of hypoxaemia
Low PIO2
Alveolar hypoventilation
Diffusion disequilibrium
V/Q mismatch
R-L shunt
What is PIO2?
Partial pressure of inspired oxygen
A PaCO2 of >40mmHg means?
Animal is hypoventilating
A PaCO2 of <40mHg means?
Animal is hyperventilating
A high V/Q means?
Too much ventilation
A low V/Q means?
Too little ventilation - bronchoconstriction, mucus, pulmonary oedema. decreased CO
R-L shunt is what?
Blood passing from right ventricle to left atrium w/o passing ventilated alveoli
Which muscle is the sole dilator of the nasopharynx in a horse? and in which direction does it pull?
The stylopharyngeus muscle

Dorsally
What happens when the stylopharyngeus muscle doesn't work?
Inspiratory obstruction and nasopharyngeal collapse
Which muscle is responsible for abduction of the larynx?
Cricoarytenoideus Dorsalis muscle
What is the only muscle of the larynx NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Crycothroideus muscle
When an obstruction is only present during exercise is is called?
A dynamic obstruction as opposed to a static one
When the horse breaths faster the increase in flow increases the driving pressure. This creates increased negative pressure in the airways. What is essential for preventing collapse?
Contraction of abductor muscles of nose, pharynx and larynx. These muscles also dilate the airway
Resistance is mostly affected by what?
Airway diameter
What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Dorsal Displacement of the Soft Palate in horses?
Treadmill endoscopy/telemetric endoscopy
Which side is most common for recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)?
The left
What is stridor?
A pharyngeal/laryngeal noise
What is stertor?
A nasal/pharyngeal noise
For a nasal or paranasal disorders what must you palpate?
The face and carry out a complete oral exam - teeth, eyes, air passages
What is the most common fungal infection to affect the nasal passages of dogs and cats respectively?
Dogs - Aspergillas
Cats - Cryptococcus
What are some advanced diagnostics for nasal disorders?
Rx, CT, MRI, rhinoscopy and exploratory rhinotomy
What is the most common laryngeal diseases in dogs and cats?
Laryngeal paralysis
What are the most common pharyngeal diseases in cats and dogs?
Brachycephalic airway syndrome, elongated soft palate, nasopharyngeal polyp
What is the most common sign of lower respiratory disease?
A cough
What is a "goose honk" cough indicative of?
Tracheal Collapse
What is a soft cough indicative of?
Pneumonia or pulmonary oedema
What is a harsh and paroxysmal cough likely to be?
Bronchitis
True or False
50% of pneumonias will have a neutrophilia with a left shift
TRUE
In the lungs the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to which side?
The left
A CT or MRI are good for seeing what?
Bullae or blebs <3mm
Name some of the pulmonary sample collection techniques
Transtracheal/endotracheal wash
Transthoracic aspiration/biopsy
Bronchoscopy - BAL, biopsy
Thoracotomy/ostomy
Name pleural space disease/effusions
Transudate
Blood
Pus
Chyle/pseudochyle
Neoplasia
Pure and modified transudates can be from what?
RHS heart failure
Pericardial disease
Hypoalbuminaemia
Neoplasia
Diaphragmatic hernia
Non-septic exudate from?
FIP
Neoplasia
Diaphragmatic hernia
Lung lobe torsion
What causes haemorrhagic effusion?
Trauma
Bleeding disorders
Neoplasia
Lung lobe torsion
Pyothorax produces what kind of fluid?
A septic exudate
What are some of the signs of Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome?
Stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, +/- hypoplastic trachea. +/- end stage laryngeal collapse
What do you need to consider when administering fluids to ruminants?
Assess hydration status
Route of administration
Type of fluid to give
How much fluid to give
Rate of administration
How to monitor patient
How can you assess hydration status?
Eye position
Skin tent
Mucous membranes
CRT
Heart rate
What are the signs of mild dehydration? (5%)
Slight decreased elasticity of skin
Slightly sunken eyes
Moist, warm mms
Moderate (8%) dehydration?
Decreased skin elasticity
Slightly sunken eyes
Dull attitude
Tacky mms
Severe (10%) dehydration?
No skin elasticity
Deeply sunken eyes, dry corneas
Prolonged CRT and dry mms
SQ fluids can only be given in small amounts and what is the other parameter?
Must be isotonic, non-irritating

NOT dextrose or calcium products
How much oral fluid can an adult ruminant be given?
10-20 gallons
When should you not administer hypertonic saline?
When dehydration is >8%
What parameters should you monitor when administering IV fluids?
Hypoproteinaemia
Pulmonary oedema
Electrolytes - Ca & K
Glucose
How do you calculate the amount of fluid to give?
body weight (kg) x % dehydration

= Fluid deficit (l)
What are some of the ongoing losses in a ruminant?
Diarrhoea, urination, milk production, salivation (choke)
How do you calculate bicarb deficit?
body weight (kg) x 0.3 (adult 0.6 neonate) x base deficit

= bicarb deficit (mEq)
What is the fluid rate for the first hour in a hypovolaemic calf?
80ml/kg
What is the maintenance?
1ml/1lb/1 hour
What are the values of isotonic bicarb and saline?
1.3% bicarb

0.9% saline
What percentage of total body water is in the ICF?
66%
ECF?
33%
--------25% intravascular
--------50% interstitial
--------25% transcellular
What is the main electrolyte in the ICF and ECF?
ICF = potassium
ECF = sodium
Which compartment bears the brunt of a pure water loss?
ICF
What is the daily fluid requirement of a dog and a horse?
Dog - 60ml/kg/day

Horse - 50ml/kg/day
Hypovolaemia is due to?
Isotonic fluid loss - loss of water AND electrolytes

Dehydration is just a water loss
Give some examples of isotonic fluid loss
GI losses and blood loss
Which compartment gives up fluid in a dehydrated animal?
ICF - leads to a contracture
What is a hallmark of dehydration?
Hypernatremia
Which compartment is effected in hypovolaemia? why?
ECF - isotonic loss so no effect on tonicity of ECF therefore no water moves across from ICF
Increased serum sodium triggers what?
Central osmoreceptors - activates thirst centre
What are the homeostatic mechanisms for volume depletion?
Decreased ECF = decreased cardiac output
Decreased CO leads to activation of RAAS/ADH
Exhaustion of homeostasis leads to?
Hypovomaemic shock
What are the signs of dehydration?
Tachycardia
Tacky mms
Prolonged skin tent
Sunken eyes
Increased urine SP
What are the signs of hypovoaemia?
Tachycardia
Decreased pulse pressure
Reduced jugular fill
Tachypnoea
Cold extremities
Decreased urine output
Depression
When is hypertonic saline indicated?
In hypovolaemia to rapidly increase blood volume from ICF
In the horse 1 litre of hypertonic saline should be followed by how much isotonic crystalloid?
10 litres
What are some of the disadvantages of using frozen plasma?
Need to give it slowly due to risk of reaction
Needs to be thawed and cross matched
Hetastarch cannot be measured on which piece of equipment?
A refractometer
What does giving oral fluids stimulate? and what is their contraindication?
gastro-colic reflux

Contraindicated in horses with nasogastric reflux
When placing a catheter for IV fluid administration what is most important?
The size (radius) of the catheter - always use the largest gauge for emergency resusitation
True or false: In the horse is there is a thrombus in the left jugular you should always try the right jugular
FALSE - risk blowing that one = pumpkin head
Which type of catheter would you use in the long term?
Polyurethane (3-7 days) over-the-wire single or double lumen
As well as monitoring the catheter for signs of infection or thrombi what else should you do?
Flush with heparinized saline 4x daily
What types of diet increase a horses water comsumption?
High in fibre (decreases urine, increases faecal water)
High protein/calcium (increases urine)
Which 2 electrolytes are diet dependent in horses?
Potassium and calcium
Horses with anorexia can lead to what?
K and Ca deficient
Drink less water
= dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
What is a shock dose of fluids?
One blood volume = 8% body weight
or
60-80ml/kg
Give 1/4 dose and reassess
What is the goal of fluid replacement in horses?
To see the animal urinate
How much of the crystalloid remains in circulation after 30mins?
25%
What would the best fluid for a horse be?
Containing K+, Ca+ and Mg+
Potassium values in the fluid should never exceed which value?
Never exceed 0.5mEq/kg/hour of KCl
What are some ways of encouraging a horse to drink more?
Add salt to the diet
Change the water source
Change the water temperature
How much fluid can you give a horse enterically?
Can give up to 10L/hr but only 4-6l per dose
How much pure water can you give a horse via NG tube?
One dose - after that make up and isotonic solution with salt
The forebrain consists of what 3 areas?
Cerebrum
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
The brainstem consists of what 3 areas?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Know the areas of the spinal cord
Cervical - C1-C5
Cervicothoracic - C6-T2
Thoracolumbar - T3-L3
Lumbosacral - L4-S2
True or False:
Lesions cranial to the pons will show up as contralateral defects
TRUE
How can you differentiate central from peripheral vestibular disease?
Peripheral disease will show up with ataxia and circling but with NO paresis
Upper Motor Neuron signs consist of what?
Spastic Paresis
Increased muscle tone
Increased spinal reflexes
Firm bladder, late mild muscle atrophy
Lower Motor Neuron signs consist of what?
Flaccid paralysis
Decreased muscle tone
Decreased spinal reflexes
Flaccid bladder, rapid sever muscle atrophy
What is the Tensilon test for?
Myasthenia Gravis - dog jumps back up after collapse
What do you examine on a neurologic exam?
Mental state and behaviour
Posture and gait
Postural reactions
Muscle tone/size
Spinal reflexes
Pain sensation
Cranial nerves
When would you not want to do a cisternal CSF tap?
When there is high ICP
What are CT and MRI good for?
CT = bone
MRI = soft tissue
What are EMG, ERG, BAER & EEG used for?
EMG - electromyography - tests nerve conduction
ERG - electroretinography
BAER - auditory function
EEG - electroencephalography - intracranial lesions
Define a seizure
Excessive or hypersynchronous abnormal electrical activity in the cerebral cortex
What are the stages of a seizure?
Prodrome - before
Aura - seen during a seizure
Ictal Period - seizure
Post-ictal period - after
What is the only functional form of intracranial seizure?
Epilepsy
What is a number one cause of hypoxia related extracranial seizures?
Anaesthetic accidents
What are some conditions that can be confused with seizures?
Syncope
Hypoglycaemia
MG
Vestibular disease
OCD
Sleep and movement disorders
Type 1 disk disease is compressive and concussive, which breed does is effect most?
Chondrodystrophic breeds - Dachshaunds
What about type 2?
Usually a compressive force and it can affect any breed, usually older than type 1
What is it called when cord degeneration progresses cranially up the spinal cord?
Myelomalacia
Which stage of the action potential is calcium dependent?
Second stage
How is cardiac output calculated?
CO = SV x HR
What are the priorities of the heart?
1. Maintain systemic arterial pressure
2. Maintain normal tissue blood flow
3. Maintain normal systemic and pulmonary capillary pressures
What is the number one cause of heart failure?
Mitral valve endocardiosis
With what condition can you get enlarged jugular pulses?
Heart worm
Which stage of the action potential is calcium dependent?
Second stage
How is cardiac output calculated?
CO = SV x HR
What are the priorities of the heart?
1. Maintain systemic arterial pressure
2. Maintain normal tissue blood flow
3. Maintain normal systemic and pulmonary capillary pressures
What is the number one cause of heart failure?
Mitral valve endocardiosis
With what condition can you get enlarged jugular pulses?
Heart worm
In CHF what are the signs of left and right?
Left = pulmonary oedema
Right = ascites

In cats get pleural effusion in both
When do the coronary arteries get blood?
During diastole
What is the main hormone involved in milk synthesis?
Prolactin
Which hormone is responsible for milk let down?
Oxytocin
What chemical blocks oxytocin from binding to the myoepithelial cells?
epinephrine
Which part of the udder makes up its primary defense?
The teat canal - muscle sphincter and keratin plug when dry
Macrophages are present in a healthy udder but when are neutrophils present?
Bacterial infection but don't work as well as in blood
What is it about parturition that makes the cow more susceptible to infection?
Immune system and teat sphincter overwhelmed at calving
Laying in fluids/manure
Mammary gland not seen as often so early signs are missed
What are the cardinal signs of mastitis?
Redness
Heat
Loss of function
Painful
Where is udder rot found in a older cow? in a heifer?
Older cow = front 2 quarters

Heifer = b/w udder and hind legs
What are the macroscopic alterations of the secretions?
Flakes, clots, gargot, clumps, watery or bloody
What is gargot?
Flakes of fibrin, cells and calcium which produce chunks
What is a quantitative test for mastitis?
California Mastitis test
What does CMT measure?
The somatic cell count - with inflammation more cells enter the udder
What are the classifications of acute mastitis?
Contagious
Gangrenous
Environmental
What are the metabolic events in the pathogenesis of bovine ketosis?
Negative energy balance
Negative glucose balance
Adipose metabolism
Elevations of plasma NEFA conc
NEFAs are mobilised from where? and transported to?
Mobilised from adipose tissue and transported to the liver where they are converted to ketone bodies in hepatic mitochondria
What are the 2 primary metabolic fates of NEFA in the liver?
Ketogenesis and triglyceride synthesis
When does ketogenesis predominate?
Peak-lactation ketosis
When does triglyceride synthesis predominate?
Post-partum ketosis
True or false:
It is possible to distinguish post-partum ketosis from fatty liver
FALSE
What is triglyceride converted into?
3 NEFA & 1 Glycerol
Increased concentrations of ketones does what?
Reduces feed intake
Increases fat metabolism
Increases fat in liver
When does hepatic lipidosis form?
When hepatic triglyceride formation exceeds the formation and release of lipoproteins into circulation
What is the liver biopsy field test?
Test for fat content of liver sample - Severe if floats in water and CuSO4
- Moderate if only floats in CuSO4
- Mild if only in high conc CuSO4
Can pregnancy toxaemia occur in any body condition?
Yes
Pathogenesis of pregnancy toxaemia is?
Disruption of glucose homeostasis - foetal uptake of glucose is independent of dam - rumen cannot take in any more feed
What are some of the causes of fatty liver in cats?
Diabetes mellitus
Toxins
obesity, stress, fodd deprivation
What is a result?
Severe, complete anorexia
Lethargy
Vague CNS signs
Icterus
What is elevated in feline hepatic lipidosis?
Bilirubin and ALP
Biopsy is needed for specific Dx