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367 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the requirements for an instrument rating? FAR 61.65
- 50 hrs of PIC cross country flight time; 10 must be in airplanes
- 40 hrs of actual or simulated instrument time
- 15 hrs of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in the aircraft category
- 3 hrs of instrument training within 60 days from an authorized instructor
250 NM cross country conducted under IFR; including 3 different kinds of approaches
When is an instrument rating required? FAR 61.3e, 91.157
- under IFR flight rules
- in weather conditions less than minimum for VFR flight
- in class A airspace
- under special VFR in controlled airspace at night
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC under IFR? FAR 61.57
- biennial flight review
- 3 TO/LD within 90 days (to carry passengers)

within preceding 6 months (actual or simulated; in flight or sim of appropriate category):
- 6 IAPs
- Holding procedures
- intercepting and tracking course through navigation systems
How can a pilot become IFR current again if they let their IFR currency expire? FAR 61.57
regulations allow a second 6 month "grace" period to accomplish (actual or simulated; in flight or sim of appropriate category):
- 6 IAPs
- Holding procedures
- intercepting and tracking course through navigation systems

If that is not completed, the pilot needs an instrument proficiency check (IPC)
Define "appropriately rated safety pilot" FAR 61.3, 91.109
- must hold a private pilot certificate
- current medical certificate
- be current in the category and class of aircraft being flown (ie. single-engine land)
What information must a PIC be familiar with before a flight? FAR 91.103
Weather reports and forecasts
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths of intended use
Alternatives if flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing distances
What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions? FAR 91.167
aircraft must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing (including the approach), the alternate airport (if required), and thereafter, for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition? FAR 91.7
the PIC
What aircraft instruments/equipment are required for IFR operations? FAR 91.205
Generator or alternator
Radios
Altimeter
Ball (slip/skid)
Clock
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn (turn coord)
Direction gyro (heading)
What are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment for IFR? FAR 91.171, 91.409, 91.411, 91.413
- Annual inspection
- 100 inspection (if operated for hire; includes airframe, engine(s), propellers)
- Pitot/Static inspection (24 months)
- Transponder inspection (24 months)
- Altimeter (24 months)
- VOR (30 days)
- ELT (12 months)
May portable electronic devices be operated on board an aircraft? FAR 91.21
No! AND the PIC must not allow it if:
- aircraft is operated by air carrier or commercial operator
- aircraft is operated under IFR

Exceptions are:
- portable voice recorders
- hearing aids
- pacemakers
- anything that won't interfere with nav/comm equipment
What documents must be on board an aircraft to make it legal for IFR flight? FAR 91.9, 91.203
Airworthiness certificate
Registration certificate
Radio station license (international)
Owner's manual (AFM)
Weight and balance data
When using GPS for navigation under IFR, how often must the database be updated? AIM 1-1-19
Every 28 days
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan? AIM 5-1-7
Prior to entering controlled airspace, a flight plan must be filed and ATC clearance must be received if weather conditions are below VFR minimums

Pilot should file at least 30 minutes prior to departure
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan? AIM 5-1-14
Anytime VFR minimums can be maintained outside of class A airspace
What is a composite flight plan? (AIM 5-1-7)
a flight plan that specifies VFR and IFR portions
What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when filing an IFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-8)
- Radar beacon transponder
- DME equipment
- TACAN-only equipment
- Area navigation equipment (RNAV)-LORAN, INS
- Advanced area navigation equipment (GPS, GNSS)
The requested altitude on an FAA flight plan form represents which altitude for the route of the flight? (AIM 5-1-8)
Enter only the initial requested altitude
What are the alternate airport requirements? (FAR 91.169c)
1-2-3 rule
1 - One hour before or after your planed ETA at the airport
2 - at least 2,000ft ceilings are forecast
3 - at least 3 SM visibilities are forecast

the, no alternate is required
What are the minimums forecast to use an airport (with an IAP) as an alternate?
2SM visibility

600ft (precision)
800ft (non-precision)
What is the definition of the term "ceiling"? (P/CG)
Height above the Earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as "broken", "overcast", or "obscuration" and not classified as "thin" or "partial"
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate? (FAR 91.169c)
If an IAP has been published for that airport, then the minimums for that procedure should be used

If no IAP has been published, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR
What are preferred routes and where can they be found? (P/CG)
Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. They can be found in the AF/D or in the Jeppesen chart book.
What are enroute low altitude charts? (AIM 9-1-4)
They provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000ft MSL. They are revised every 56 days
What are enroute high altitude charts? (AIM 9-1-4)
They are designed for navigation at or above 18,000ft MSL. Revised every 56 days

Includes things like:
- jet route structure
- Navaids
- selected airports
- reporting points
What are "area charts"? (AIM 9-1-4)
Area charts show congested terminal areas at a large scale (LA, Dallas, Atlanta). Revised every 56 days
Where can information on possible navigation aid limitations be found? (FAA-H-8083-15)
NOTAMs as well as A/FD
What other useful information can be found in the A/FD for route planning?
- enroute flight advisory services (locations and communication outlets)
- ARTCC (location and frequencies)
- aeronautical chart bulletins
- special notices (flight service station, weather service office phone numbers)
- VOR receiver checkpoints
What are NOTAMs? (AIM 5-1-3)
Notices To Airmen - time critical information that could affect the flight.

Includes things like:
- runway closures
- changes in Navaid status
- approach chart changes
What are the three categories of NOTAMs? (AIM 5-1-3)
- (D) distant information beyond the area of responsibility of the Flight Service Station. Contains items serious enough to affect airport or facility usability
- (L) local information what would have little impact on non-local operations. Contains items like taxiway closures, persons or equipment near runways, beacon outages
- (FDC) information that is regulatory in nature. Items such as amendments to published IAPs or charts; TFRs caused by natural disasters or large scale public events
Which type of NOTAMs will be omitted from a pilot briefing if not requested by the pilot?
FDC and (D) NOTAMs
Where can NOTAM information be obtained (AIM 5-1-3)
- Nearest FSS
- DUATS
- Online from the FAA website
Will an FSS briefer provide GPS NOTAMs as part of a standard briefing? (AIM 1-1-19)
No, a pilot must request them
What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?
- Altimeter
- VSI
- Airspeed indicator
How does an altimeter work?
Aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, through shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on a dial of the instrument
What are the limitations that a pressure altimeter is subject to?
Nonstandard pressure and temperature: Remember from high to low, look out below! (Works for high and low temperature too!)

- Warm day or high pressure, pressure level is higher, ALT indicates lower than actual altitude
- Cold day or low pressure, pressure level is lower, ALT indicates higher than actual altitude
For IFR flight, what is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter?
75 feet or less from the field elevation
Define and state how to determine Indicated altitude
Read off the face of the altimeter
Define and state how to determine Pressure altitude
Indicated altitude with 29.92 in hg set in the kollsman window. Transponder uses this altitude
Define and state how to determine True altitude
Height above sea level, use a flight computer
Define and state how to determine Density altitude
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Use a flight computer
Define and state how to determine Absolute altitude
Height above ground. Subtract the terrain elevation from true altitude
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
Measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source
What are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?
It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/static system
What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
- Position error, caused by static ports sensing erroneous pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port
- Density error, changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated by the instrument
- Compressibility error, caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. Usually occurs above 180 kias
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
Indicated - read of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors
Calibrated - IAS corrected for instrument position errors; obtained from the POH/AFM for various flap and landing gear configurations
- Equivalent - CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude
True - CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
Groundspeed - TAS corrected for wind; speed across the ground
How does the vertical-speed indicator work?
Changing pressures expand or contract a diaphragm connected to the indicating needle through gears and levers. The VSI is connected to the static pressure line through a calibrated leak; it measures differential pressure
What are the limitations of the vertical-speed indicator?
It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.
What instruments are aflected when the pitot tube ram air inlet and drain hole freeze?
Only the airspeed indicator will be affected. It acts like an altimeter— it will read higher as the aircraft climbs and lower as the aircraft descends. It reads lower than actual speed in level flight.
What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?
Airspeed indicator—Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descends, the airspeed indicator would read high (outside static pressure would be greater than that trapped). If the aircraft climbs, the airspeed indicator would read low.
Altimeter — Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked. Vertical speed —Will indicate level flight.
If the air temperature is +6°C at an airport elevation of
1,200 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
4,200 MSL: 6° at the surface divided by the average temperature lapse rate of 2°C results in a 3,000-foot freezing level, converted to sea level by adding the 1,200-foot airport elevation.
What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?
For pilot tube—Turn pitot heat on.
For static system — Use alternate air if available or break the face of a static instrument (either the VSI or A/S indicator).
What indications should you expect while using alternate air?
If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane where static pressure is usually lower than outside, selection of the alternate static source may result in the following indications:
Altimeter will indicate higher than the
actual altitude
Airspeed will indicate greater than the
actual airspeed
Vertical speed will indicate a climb while in
level flight
What instruments contain gyroscopes?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator/indicator.
Name several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft.
Various power sources used are: electrical, pneumatic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, and dry-air pump systems. Aircraft and instrument manufacturers have designed redundancy into the flight instruments so that any single failure will not deprive the pilot of his/her ability to safely conclude the flight. Gyroscopic instruments are crucial for instrument flight; therefore, they are powered by separate electrical or pneumatic sources. Typically, the heading indicator and attitude indicator will be vacuum-driven and the turn coordinator electrically-driven.
How does the vacuum system operate?
The vacuum or pressure system spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or pressure required for instrument operation varies by manufacturer and is usually between 4.5 to 5.5 in. Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in light aircraft is the vane-type engine-driven pump, mounted on the accessory case of the engine.
What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes?
Rigidity—the characteristic of a gyro that prevents its axis of rotation tilting as the Earth rotates; attitude and heading instruments operate on this principle.
Precesshrn —the characteristic of a gyro that causes an applied torce to be felt, not at the point of application, but 90 degrees from that point in the direction of rotation. Rate instruments such as the turn coordinator use this principle.
How does the turn coordinator operate?
The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
The miniature aircraft in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn. The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid).
Slip—ball on the inside of turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.
Skid—ball to the outside of turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.
What is the source of power for the turn coordinator?
Turn coordinator gyros can be driven by either air or electricity; some are dual-powered. Typically the turn coordinator is electrically powered, but always refer to the AFM for specifics.
How does the heading indicator work?
The operation of the heading indicator works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
They vary with the particular design and make of instrument: on some heading indicators in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits are exceeded, the instrument “tumbles” or “spills” and no longer gives the correct indication until it is reset with the caging knob. Many modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.
What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?
Because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from the heading it is set to. The amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument (worn and dirty bearings and/or improperly lubricated bearings). Non- slaved heading indicators must periodically be compensated for drift. Three degrees in 15 minutes is normal. Significantly greater drift rates may signal impending gyro failure.
How does the attitude indicator work?
The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.
What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?
Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument; bank limits are usually from 1000 to 1100, and pitch limits are usually from 60° to 70°. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized. Some modern attitude indicators are designed so they will not tumble.
Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?
Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nosedown indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180° turn. On rollout from a 180° turn, the Al will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth’s lines of magnetic force.
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18° angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.
What are the various compass errors?
Oscillation error—Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique.
Deviation error— Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft.
Variation error—Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation.
Dip errors:
a. Acceleration error— On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south.
Remember: ANDS
Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South
b. Northerly turning error—The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turn.
Remember: UNOS
Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South
At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude? (AC OO-6A)
Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately I” Hg per 1,000 feet.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? (AC OO-6A)
15°C and 29.92” Hg are standard at sea level.
State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.
Low pressure—Air flows inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
High pressure—Air flows outward, downward, and clockwise.
What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?
The Coriolis force causes winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars.
Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle?
Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.
When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5°), what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds. dew or fog.
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.
What is the difference between a stable and an unstable atmosphere?
An unstable atmosphere is one in which, if air is displaced vertically, it will continue to move vertically; a stable atmosphere is one which tends to resist any vertical movement of air.
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
When temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb (approaching 3°C per 1,000 feet), you have an indication of unstable air. If the temperature remains unchanged or decreases only slightly with altitude, the air tends to be stable. The “K” index of a stability chart is also a means of determining stability prior to flight.
List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation and visibility. (AC OO-6A)
Stable
Clouds-Stratiform Cumuliform
Turbulence-Smooth Rough
Precipitation-Steady Showery
Visibility-Fair to Poor Good

Unstable
Clouds-Cumuliform
Turbulence-Rough
Precipitation-Showery
Visibility-Good
What are the two main types of icing?
Structural and induction are the two main types of icing.
Name four types of structural ice.
Clear ice—Forms when large drops strike the aircraft surface and slowly freeze.
Rime ice— Small drops strike the aircraft and freeze rapidly.
Mixed ice—Combination of the above; supercooled water drops varying in size.
Frost— Ice crystal deposits formed by sublimation when temperature/dew point is below freezing.
What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and freezing temperature at the point moisture strikes the aircraft are necessary.
Which type of structural icing is more dangerous. rime or clear?
Clear ice is typically the most hazardous ice enc.untered. It is hard, heavy and tenacious (lear ice forms when. utter initial iii pact. the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows oUt over the aircraft surface, gradually freezing as a smooth sheet ot solid ice. This happens when drops are large, such as in rain or in cumuli- form clouds. Its removal by deicing equipment is especially ditlicult due to the fact that it forms as it flows away from the deicing equipment.
What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?
To form a thunderstorm there must be:
a. A source of lift (heating, fast-moving front)
b. Unstable air (nonstandard lapse rate)
c. High moisture content (temperature and dew point are close).
What are “squall line” thunderstorms?
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft. it usually forms rapidly, reaching a maximum intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness.
State two basic ways that fog may form.
Fog forms:
a. By cooling air to the dew point
b. By adding moisture to the air
Name several types of fog.
a. Radiation fog
b. Advection fog
c. Upsiope fog
d. Precipitation-induced fog
e. Ice fog
What causes radiation fog to form?
Conditions favorable for radiation fog are a clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity). The fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form?
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground Or water. It is most common along coastal areas but often develops deep in continental areas. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night. It deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots; wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus.
Define upslope fog.
Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Unlike radiation fog, it can form under cloudy skies. It is common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies and somewhat less frequent east of the Appalachians; can often be quite dense and extend to high altitudes.
Define ice fog.
Ice fog occurs in cold weather when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals. Conditions favorable for its formation are the same as for radiation fog except for cold temperature, usually -25°F or colder. It occurs mostly in the Arctic regions, but is not unknown in middle latitudes during the cold season. Ice fog can be quite blinding to someone flying into the sun.
What is precipitation-induced fog?
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. Precipitation-induced fog can become quite dense and continue for an extended period of time. This fog may extend over large areas, completely suspending air operations. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow-moving cold fronts and with stationary fronts.
Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers?
Other examples of common IFR producers are low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstructions to vision, and precipitation. Fog and low stratus restrict navigation by visual reference more often than all other weather phenomena.
What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing? (AIM 7-1 -2)
The primary source of preflight weather briefings is an individual briefing obtained from a briefer at the AFSS/FSS.
What are some examples of other sources of weather information? (AIM 7-1 -2)
a. Telephone information Briefing Service (TIBS) (AFSS)
b. Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB)
c. Telephone Access to TWEB (TEL-TWEB)
d. Weather and aeronautical information from numerous pnvate industries sources
e. The Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS)
What pertinent information should a weather briefing include? (AIM 7-1-4)
a. Adverse conditions
b. VFR flight not recommended
c. Synopsis
d. Current conditions
e. Enroute forecast
f. Destination forecast
g. Winds aloft
h. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)
i. ATC delay
What is “EFAS”? (AIM 7-1-5)
Enroute Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is a service specifically designed to provide enroute aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route of flight, and altitude. EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot-reported weather information (PIREPs). EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet above ground level to 17,500 feet MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz. It is also known as “Flight Watch.” Discrete EFAS frequencies have been established to ensure communications coverage from 18,000 through 45,000 feet MSL, serving in each specific ARTCC area. These discrete frequencies may be used below 18,000 feet when coverage permits reliable communication.
What is “HIWAS”? (AIM 7-1-10)
Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HI WAS) is a continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs. HI WAS is an additional source of hazardous weather information which makes this data available on a continuous basis.
What is a METAR?
The aviation routine weather report (METAR) is the weather observer’s interpretation of the weather conditions at a given site and time. It is used by the aviation community and the National Weather Service (NWS) to determine the flying category (VFR. MVFR. or IFR) of the airport, as well as produce the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
Describe several types of Automated Surface Observations now available.
ASOS—Automated Surface Observing System; the primary U.S. surface weather observing system; up to 993 systems installed throughout the U.S., providing minute-by-minute observations, METARs and other aviation weather information; transmitted over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID. An ASOS/AWOS report without human intervention will contain only that weather data capable of being reported automatically. The modifier for this METAR report is “AUTO.” When an observer augments or backs-up an ASOS/AWOS site, the “AUTO” modifier disappears.
AWOS— Automated Weather Observation System, installed by the FAA at selected airports around the country. This system consists of automated reports of ceiling/sky conditions, visibility, temperature, dew point, wind direction/speeds/gusts, altimeter setting, and if certain conditions are met, automated remarks containing density altitude, variable visibility and variable wind direction. Automated observations are broadcast on ground-to-air radio and made available on a telephone answering device.
What are PIREPs (UA), and where are they usually found?
An abbreviation for “pilot weather reports.” A report of meteorological phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight. Required elements for all PIREPs are type of report, location, time, flight level, aircraft type, and at least one weather element encountered. All altitude references are MSL unless otherwise noted. Distance for visibility is in SM; all other distances are in NM. Time is in UTC.
What are Radar Weather Reports (SDs)?
General areas of precipitation, including rain, snow, and thunderstorms, can be observed by radar. The radar weather report (SD) includes the type, intensity, and location of the echo top of the precipitation. All heights are reported above MSL. Radar stations report each hour at H+35. SDs should be used along with METARS, satellite photos, and forecasts when planning a flight, to help in thunderstorm area avoidance. But once airborne, depend on Flight Watch, which has the capability to display current radar images airborne radar, or visual sighting, to evade individual storms.
Note: Many meteorologists are now using Radar Observation Reports, or ROBs, in place of the SD. These provide the same information and are readily available from most weather stations.
What are Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)?
An Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions within a 5-SM radius from the center of an airport’s runway complex during a 24-hour time period. The TAFs use the same weather code found in METAR weather reports
What is an Aviation Area Forecast (FA)?
A forecast of visual meteorological conditions (VMC), clouds, and general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. Must be used along with inflight weather advisories to determine forecast enroute weather and to interpolate conditions at airports where no TAFs are issued, in order to understand the complete weather picture. FAs are issued 3 times a day by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC) for each of the 6 areas in the contiguous 48 states.
What are In-flight Aviation Weather Advisories
(WST, WS, WA)?
Forecasts that advise enroute aircraft of development of potentially hazardous weather. All heights are referenced MSL, except in the case of ceilings (CIG) which indicates AGL. The advisories are of three types: convective SIGMET (WST), SIGMET (WS), and AIRMET (WA).
What is a convective SIGMET?
A convective SIGMET (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. It may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central (C) and Western (W) United States (convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast, which is valid for up to 2 hours.
a. Severe thunderstorm due to:
• Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
• Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter
• Tornadoes
b. Embedded thunderstorms
c. A line of thunderstorms
d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40 percent or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.
What is a SIGMET (WS)?
A SIGMET (WS) advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. SIGMET5 are issued for the six areas corresponding to the FA areas. The maximum forecast period is four hours. In the conterminous United States, SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur:
a. Severe icing not associated with a thunderstorm.
b. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms.
c. Dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface or in-flight visibili ties to below 3 miles.
d. Volcanic ash.
What is an AIRMET (WA)?
Advisories of significant weather phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs, intended for use by all pilots in the preflight and enroute phase of flight to enhance safety. AIRMET bulletins are issued every 6 hours beginning at 0145 UTC during Central Daylight Time and at 0245 UTC during Central Standard Time. Each AIRMET includes an outlook for conditions expected after the AIRMET valid period, and contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.
What is a TWEB?
NWS offices prepare transcribed enroute weather broadcast (TWEB) text products for the contiguous U.S., including synopsis and forecast for more than 200 routes and local vicinities. TWEB products are valid for 12 hours and are issued 4 times a day at 0200Z, 0800Z. 1400Z. and 2000Z in a variety of sources (TIBS. PATWAS, and more). A TWEB route forecast or vicinity forecast will not be issued if the TAF for that airport has not been issued.
A TWEB route forecast is for a 50-NM wide corridor along a line connecting the end points of the route. A TWEB local vicinity forecast covers an area with a radius of 50 NM. The forecasts describe sustained surface winds (25 knots or greater), visibility, weather and obscuration to vision, sky conditions (coverage and ceiling/cloud heights), mountain obscurement, and nonconvective low-level wind shear.
What is a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?
Winds and temperatures aloft are forecast for specific locations in the contiguous U.S. and also for a network of locations in Alaska and Hawaii. Forecasts are made twice daily based on OOZ and 12Z data for use during specific time intervals.
What valuable information can be determined from a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?
Most favorable altitude —based on winds and direction of flight.
Areas of possible icing—by noting air temperatures of +2°C to -20°C.
Temperature inversions.
Turbulence—by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes.
What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?
A Center Weather Advisory (CWA) is an aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. This is not a flight plan- fling product; instead it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance, and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours from that time. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond that period, a statement will be included in the CWA.
What is a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A Convective Outlook (AC) describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours. Describes areas in which there is high, moderate, or slight risk of severe thunderstorms as well as areas of general (non-severe) thunderstorms. The times of issuance for Day 1 Convective Outlook are 06001 13001 1630Z. 2000Z, and OIOOZ. The initial Day 2 issuance is at
0830Z during standard time and 0730Z during daylight time, updated at 1730Z. The AC is a flight planning tool used to avoid thunderstorms.
Give some examples of current weather charts, which are used in flight planning and available at the FSS or
NWSO.
a. Surface Analysis Chart
b. Weather Depiction Chart
c. Radar Summary Chart
d. Significant Weather Prognostic Chart
e. Winds and Temperatures Aloft Chart
f. Composite Moisture Stability Chart
g. Convective Outlook Chart
h. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart
i. Volcanic Ash Forecast Transport and Dispersion Chart
What is a Surface Analysis Chart?
The Surface Analysis Chart is a computer-prepared chart that covers the contiguous 48 states and adjacent areas. The chart is transmitted every three hours. The surface analysis chart provides a ready means of locating pressure systems and fronts. It also gives an overview of winds, temperatures and dew point temperatures at chart time. When using the chart, keep in mind that weather moves and conditions change. Using the surface analysis chart in conjunction with other information gives a more complete weather picture.
What information does a Weather Depiction Chart provide?
This chart is computer-generated (with frontal analysis by an observer) from METAR reports, and gives a broad overview of the observed flying category conditions at the valid time of the chart. It begins at OlZ each day, is transmitted at 3-hours intervals, and is valid at the time of the plotted data. Observations reported by both manual and automated observation locations provide the following data: total sky cover, cloud height, weather and obstructions to visibility, visibility. The weather depiction chart is an ideal place to begin preparing for a weather briefing and flight planning. From this chart, one can get a “bird’s-eye-view” of areas of favorable and adverse weather conditions for chart time.
Define the terms: IFR, MVFR and VFR.
1FR. (Instrument Flight Rules)—Ceilings less than 1,000 feet andJor visibilities less than 3 miles
MVFR. (Marginal VFR)—Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet inclusive and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive
VFR: (Visual Flight Rules)—No ceiling, or ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles
What are Radar Summary Charts?
This chart is a computer-generated graphical display of a collection of automated radar weather reports (SDs, or ROBs), displaying areas of precipitation as well as information about type, intensity, configuration, coverage, echo top, and cell movement of precipitation. Severe weather watches are plotted if they are in effect when the chart is valid. It is available hourly with a valid time 35 minutes past each hour.
This chart aids in preflight planning by identifying general areas and movement of precipitation and/or thunderstorms. It displays drops or ice particles of precipitation size only; it does not display clouds and fog. Therefore, since the absence of echoes does not guarantee clear weather, and cloud tops will most likely be higher than the tops of the precipitation echoes detected by radar, the radar summary chart must be used in conjunction with other charts, reports, and forecasts for best effectiveness.
What are Significant Weather Prognostic charts?
Called “progs,” these charts portray forecasts of selected weather conditions at specified valid times (12, 24, 36, and 48 hour progs). made from a comprehensive set of observed weather conditions. The observed conditions are extended forward in time and become forecasts by considering atmospheric and environmental processes. Forecast information for the surface to 24,000 feet is provided by the low-level significant weather prog chart. Forecast information from above 24,000 to 60,000 feet is provided by the high-level significant weather prog chart.
Describe a U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather
Prog chart.
It is a ‘Day One” forecast of significant weather for the conterminous U.S. for the layer from surface to FL240 (400 mb). The chart is composed of four panels with two forecast periods, 12 hours and 24 hours, which are issued four times a day at OOZ, 06Z, 12Z, and I 8Z. The two lower panels depict the 12- and 24-hour surface progs and the two upper panels depict the 12- and 24-hour significant weather progs. Covered are forecast positions and characteristics of pressure systems, fronts, and precipitation. Much insight on the “big weather picture” can be gained by evaluating the individual fields of pressure patterns, fronts, precipitation, weather flying categories, freezing levels, and turbulence displayed on the chart.
Describe a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather
Prog chart.
The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog is also a “Day One” forecast of significant weather. Information provided pertains to the layer from above 24,000 to 60,000 feet (FL250—FL600) and covers a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere and a limited portion of the Southern Hemisphere. The area covered by the prog is divided into sections with each section covering a part of the forecast area. Each prog chart is issued four times a day (OOZ, 06Z, 12Z, and 18Z).
What information may be obtained from the U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog charts?
The high-level significant weather prog is used to get an overview of selected flying weather conditions above 24.000 feet. Conditions routinely appearing on the chart are:
a. jet streams
b. cumulonjmbus clouds
c. turbulence
d. tropopause heights
e. surface fronts
f. significant tropical storm complexes including tropical cyclones
g. squall lines
h. volcanic eruption sites
i. sandstorms and dust storms
What is a Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft chart (FD)?
This is a computer-generated chart depicting both observed and forecast winds and temperatures aloft, prepared for eight levels on eight separate panels. The levels are 6.000, 9.000, 12.000, 18,000, 24,000, 30,000, 34,000 and 39.000 feet MSL. They are available daily as 12 hour progs valid at I 200Z and 0000Z. These charts are typically used to determine winds at a proposed altitude or to select the best altitude for a proposed flight. Temperatures also can be determined from the forecast charts. Interpolation must be used to determine winds and temperatures at a level between charts and data when the time period is other than the valid time of the chart.
What is a Composite Moisture Stability chart?
This is a computer-generated chart composed of four panels that depict stability, precipitable water, freezing level, and average relative humidity conditions, with information obtained from analysis of upper-air observation data. It is available twice daily with valid times of OOZ and I 2Z. This chart is used to identify the distribution of moisture. stability, and freezing level properties of the atmosphere. These properties and their association with weather systems provide important insights into existing and forecast weather conditions as well as possible aviation weather hazards.
What is a Convective Outlook chart?
This chart depicts areas forecast to have thunderstorms, and is presented in two panels. The left-hand panel is the Day I Convective Outlook, and the right-hand panel is the Day 2 Convective Outlook. “Day I” outlines areas in the continental U.S where thunderstorms are forecasted during that period. It is issued five times daily (0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and OIOOZ) and all issuances are valid until 12Z the following day. The outlook issued qualifies the level of risk (i.e., SLGT, MDT, HIGH) as well as the areas of general thunderstorms. The Day 2 Convective Outlook contains the same information as the Day 1 chart, and is issued twice a day (0830Z and I 730Z) in a period from 1 2Z the following day to 1 2Z the next day.
What are Constant Pressure Analysis charts?
Any surface of equal pressure in the atmosphere is a constant pressure surface. A Constant Pressure Analysis chart is an upper air weather map where all information depicted is at the specified pressure of the chart. From these charts, a pilot can approximate the observed air temperature, wind, and ternperature/dewpoint spread along a proposed route. They also depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft by the height contour patterns resembling isobars on a surface map. Twice daily, six computer prepared constant pressure charts are transmitted by facsimile for six pressure levels:
850mb 5,000 ft
700mb 10,000 ft
500mb 18,000 ft
300mb 30,000 ft
250mb 34,000 ft
200mb 39,000 ft
What significance do height contour lines have on a Constant Pressure chart?
Heights of the specified pressure for each station are analyzed through the use of solid lines called contours to give a height pattern. The contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft in the same manner as isobars on the surface chart. Also, closely- spaced contours mean strong winds, as do closely-spaced isobars.
What significance do isotherms have on a Constant Pressure chart?
Isotherms (dashed lines) drawn at 5°C-intervals show horizontal temperature variations at chart altitude. By inspecting isotherms, you can determine if your flight will be toward colder or warmer air. Subfreezing temperatures and a temperature/dewpoint spread of 5°C or less suggest possible icing.
What is the significance of the isotach lines on a Constant Pressure chart?
lsotachs are lines of constant wind speed analyzed on the 300. 250. and 200 mb charts; they separate higher wind speeds from lower wind speeds and are used to map wind speed variations over a surface. lsotachs are drawn at 20-knot intervals and begin at 10 knots. Isotach gradients identify the magnitude of wind speed variations. Strong gradients are closely spaced isotachs and identify large wind speed variations. Weak gradients are loosely spaced isotachs and identify small wind speed variations. Zones of very strong winds are highlighted by hatches.
What is a Volcanic Ash Forecast Transport and
Dispersion chart?
The VAFTAD chart presents the relative concentrations of ash following a volcanic eruption for three layers of the atmosphere in addition to a composite of ash concentration through the atmosphere. Atmospheric layers depicted are: surface to flight level (FL) 200, surface to FL550 (composite), FL200 to FL350, and FL350 to FL550. The chart focuses on hazards to aircraft flight operations caused by a volcanic eruption with an emphasis on the ash cloud location in time and space. It uses forecast data to determine the location of ash concentrations over 6-hour and 12-hour intervals, with valid times beginning 6, 12, 24. and 36 hours following a volcanic eruption.
Do the regulations require an operative pitot heater or alternate static source for IFR flight? (14 CFR §91.205)
No
What is the function of the “Kollsman” window on the altimeter?
It adjusts the barometric scale and the altimeter pointers The range of the scale is from 28.00'' to 31.00'' Hg, or 948 to 1,050 millibars
What is the definition of a “standard-rate turn”?
A turn in which an aircraft changes its direction at a rate of 3degrees per second for low or medium speed aircraft. For high-speed aircraft the standard rate turn is 1-1/2degrees per second
If a thunderstorm forms along your route of flight, what distance should you maintain while attempting to fly around that thunderstorm?
20NM
When considering potential alternate airports, must an airport have an instrument approach to be legal as an alternate? (14 CFR §91.169)
An airport without an instrument approach can be used as an alternate providing; the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR
Not all airports can be used as alternate airports. Why?
(FAA-H-8261 -1)
An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if the airport NAVAID
is unmonitored, or if it does not have weather reporting capabilities.
Discuss 14 CFR §91.3, “ResponsibIlity and
Authority of PlC.” (14 CFR §91.3)
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft.
What are the right-of-way rules pertaining to IFR flights?
(14 CFR §91.113)
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is under IFR or VFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace? (AIM 5-3-3)
You must report:
a. Any loss in controlled airspace of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low- frequency navigation receiver capability.
b. GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers.
c. Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability.
d. Impairment of air/ground communication capability.
e. Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate under IFR.
How can your IFR clearance be obtained? (AIM 5-1-8)
a. At airports with an ATC tower in operation, clearances may be
received from either ground control or a specific clearance delivery
frequency when available.
b. At airports without a tower or FSS on the field, or in an outlying
area: ov1o
• Clearances may be received over the radio through a RCO
(remote communication outlet) or, in some cases, over the
telephone.
• In some areas, a clearance delivery frequency is available that
is usable at different airports within a particular geographic
area, for example, Class B airspace.
• If the above methods are not available, your clearance can be
obtained from ARTCC once you are airborne, provided you
remain VFR in Class E airspace.
The procedure may vary due to geographical features, weather
conditions, and the complexity of the ATC system. To determine
the most effective means of receiving an IFR clearance, pilots
should ask the nearest FSS for the most appropriate means of
obtaining their IFR clearance.
What does “cleared as filed” mean? (AIM 5-2-4)
ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of
flight as filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the filed route can be
approved with little or no revision.
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR
clearance? (AIM 5-2-4)
C learance Limit (destination airport or fix)
R oute (initial heading)
A Ititude (initial altitude)
F requency (departure)
T ransponder (squawk code)

Note: ATC procedures now require the controller to state the DP
name, the current number and the DP transition name after the phrase “Cleared to (destination) airport” and prior to the phrase, “then as filed,” for ALL departure clearances when the DP or DP transition is to be flown.
What does “clearance void time” mean? (AIM 5-2-5)
When operating from an airport without a tower, a pilot may receive a clearance containing a provision that if the flight has not departed by a specific time, the clearance is void.
A pilot who does not depart prior to the clearance void time must advise ATC as soon as possible of his/her intentions. ATC will normally notify the pilot of the time allotted to notify ATC. This time cannot exceed 30 minutes.
What is the purpose of the term “hold for release” when included in an IFR clearance? (AIM 5-2-5)
ATC may issue “hold for release” instructions in a clearance to delay an aircraft’s departure for traffic management reasons (weather, traffic volume, etc.). A pilot may not depart utilizing that IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are received from ATC.
What minimums are necessary for IFR takeoff under
14 CFR Part 91? Under 121, 125, 129, or 135?
(14 CFR §91.175)
For 14 CFR Part 91, none. For aircraft operated under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, 129. or 135, if takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97 for a particular airport, the following minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR for aircraft operating under those parts:
a. For aircraft having two engines or less—
I statute mile visibility.
b. For aircraft having more than two engines—
1/2 statute mile visibility.
What is considered “good operating practice” in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
If an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed for that airport, use the minimums for that approach for takeoff. If no approach procedure is available, basic VFR minimums are recommended (1,000 feet and 3 miles).
What are DPs and why are they necessary? (AIM 5-2-7)
Departure procedures are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure. The primary reason they are established is to provide obstacle clearance protection. Also, at busier airports, they increase efficiency and reduce communication and departure delays. Pilots operating under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night. during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.
What are the two types of DPs? (AIM 5-2-7)
a. ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures)—printed either textually or graphically, provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC.
b. SIDs (Standard Instrument Departures)—always printed graphically. Standard Instrument Departures are air traffic control (ATC) procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are pnmanly designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot1 controller workload. ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID.
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure? (AIM 5-2-7)
Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all published departures is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway (flying runway heading or reciprocal) at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile, unless required to level off by a crossing restriction. A greater climb gradient may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to achieve an ATC crossing restriction.
Where are DPs located? (AIM 5-2-7)
DPs will be listed by airport in “IFR Take-Off Minimums and
Departure Procedures,” Section C of the Terminal Procedures
Publications (TPPs).
Must you accept a DP if assigned one? (AIM 5-2-7)
No. Pilots of civil aircraft operating from locations where SIDs are established may expect ATC clearances containing a SID. Use of a DP requires pilot possession of the textual description or graphic depiction of the approved current DP, as appropriate. RNAV SIDs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to charted procedure. ATC must be immediately advised if the pilot does not possess the assigned SID, or the aircraft is not capable of flying the SID. Notification may be accomplished by filing “NO SID” in the remarks section of the filed flight plan or by the less desirable method of verbally advising
ATC.
How does a pilot determine if an airport has a DP or nonstandard takeoff minimums? (AIM 5-2-7)
A large “T” in a black triangle printed at the bottom of the approach chart in the notes area signifies the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums andlor a DP has been prescribed. The appropriate section in the front of TPP should be consulted.
When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 feet per nautical mile, what significance Should this have to the pilot? (AIM 5-2-7)
If an aircraft may turn in any direction from a runway, and remain clear of obstacles, that runway passes what is called diverse departure criteria and no ODP will be published. A SID may be published if needed for air traffic control purposes. However, if an obstacle penetrates what is called the 40: 1 Slope obstacle identification surface, then the procedure designer chooses whether to:
a. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient; or
b. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the obstacle(s); or
c. Design and publish a specific departure route; or
d. A combination or all of the above.
A climb gradient of 300 feet per nautical mile at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what rate of climb?
Ground speed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient = feet per minute; therefore,
(100 x 300) / 60 = 498 feet per minute
What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
(AIM 4-4-9)
When ATC has not used the term “At Pilot’s Discretion” nor imposed any climb or descent restrictions, pilots should initiate climb or descent promptly on acknowledgement of the clearance. Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to I ,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached.
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? (14 CFR §91.171)
a. A VOR Test Signal (VOT) check; ±4°
b. A ground checkpoint; ±4°
c. An airborne checkpoint; ±6°
d. A dual VOR check; within 4° of each other
e. Select a radial over a known ground point; ±6°
A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only the technician performing the test can make an entry in the logbook.
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
(14 CFR §91.171)
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.
Where can a pilot find the location of airborne
checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations? (AIM 1-1-4)
Locations of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the AJFD. They are also depicted on the AIG voice communication panels of the NOS IFR area chart, and IFR enroute low-altitude chart.
What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT? (FAA-H-8083-15)
Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees with TO/FROM indication showing FROM or the OBS should read 180 degrees with the TO/FROM indication showing TO.
Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required? (AIM 4-1-19)
In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with Mode C transponders when operating:
a. At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding that airspace below 2,500 feet AOL;
b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL;
c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL:
d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding that airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AOL;
e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ.
What are the following transponder codes?
(AIM 4-1-19, 6-2-2, 6-3-4, and 6-4-2)
1200 VFR
7700 Emergency
7600 Communications Emergency
7500 Hijacking in progress
Discuss transponder operation in the event of a two-way
communications failure. (AIM 6-4-2)
If an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder experiences a loss of two-way radio capability, the pilot should adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3. Code 7600.
Note: The pilot should understand that the aircraft might not he in an area of radar coverage.
Would an incorrect altimeter setting have an effect on the Mode C altitude information transmitted by your transponder? (AIM 4-1-19)
No. While an incorrect altimeter setting has no effect on the Mode C altitude information transmitted by your transponder (transponders are preset at 29.92), it would cause you to fly at an actual altitude different from your assigned altitude.
When a controller indicates that an altitude readout is invalid, the pilot should initiate a check to verify that the aircraft altimeter is set.
Where can a pilot find information concerning facilities available for a particular airport? (AIM 9-1 -4)
In the Airport/Facility Directory; it contains information concerning services available, communication data, navigational facilities, special notices, etc. The AIFD is reissued in its entirety every 56 days.
What do the following acronyms stand for?
(AIM 2-1-1, 2-1-2, and 2-1-3)
ALS Approach Light System
VASI Visual Approach Slope
Indicator
PAPI Precision Approach Path
Indicator
REIL Runway End Identifier Lights
What color are runway edge lights? (AIM 2-1-4)
The runway edge lights are white—except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.
What colors and color combinations are Standard airport rotating beacons? (AIM 2-1-8)
Lighted Land Airport White/Green
Lighted Water Airport White/Yellow
Military Airport 2 White/Green
What does the operation of a rotating beacon at an airport within Class D airspace during daylight
hours mean? (AIM 2-1-8)
In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.
Where would information concerning runway lengths, widths and weight bearing capacities be found?
The Airport/Facility Directory has this information.
What are runway touchdown zone markings? (AIM 2-3-3)
Touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and ase coded to provide distance information in 500-foot increments. These markings consist of groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline. Normally, the standard glide slope angle of 3 degrees, if flown to the surface, will ensure touchdown within this zone.
What is the purpose of runway aiming point markings?
The aiming point markings serve as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft. These two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe, located on each side of the runway centerline, and approximately I ,000 feet from the landing threshold. The pilot can estimate a visual glide path that will intersect the marking ensuring a landing within the 3,000-foot touchdown zone.
How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?
The touchdown zone is the first 3,000 feet of the runway beginning at the threshold. The area is used for determination of Touchdown Zone Elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches.
Define MEA
Minimum Enroute Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
Define MOCA
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meet obstacle clearance requirements. It also ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.
Define MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude; the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA.
Define MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude; the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.
Define MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude; the maximum altitude usable for a route segment that ensures signal reception without interference from another signal on the same frequency.
Define OROCA
Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude; this provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in nonmountainous terrain areas and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude might not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigational aids, Air Traffic Control radar, or communications coverage.
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations? (14 CFR §91.177)
Minimum altitudes are:
a. Mountainous terrain—at least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.
b. Other than mountainous terrain—at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.
What cruising altitudes shall be maintained while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E)? In uncontrolled airspace (Class G)?
(14CFR91.179)
IFR flights within controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E) shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. In uncontrolled airspace (Class G), altitude is selected based on the magnetic course flown:
Below 18,000 feet MSL:
0 to 179° odd thousand MSL
180 to 359° even thousand MSL
18,000 feet up to but not including 29,000 feet MSL:
0 to 179° odd flight levels
180 to 359° even flight levels
What procedures are applicable concerning courses to be flown when operating IFR? (14 CFR §91.181)
Except when maneuvering an aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic, or the maneuvering of an aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path (both before and during climb and descent), the following applies:
a. Maintain the centerline of a federal airway
b. Maintain a direct route between navigational aids or fixes defining the route.
On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points? (AIM 5-3-2)
Along direct routes, reports are required of all IFR flights over each øoint used to define the route of flight.
What reports should be made to ATC at all times without a specific request? (AIM 5-3-3)
The pilot must report:
a. When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level for a newly assigned altitude or flight level.
b. When an altitude change will be made if operating on a clearance specifying VFR-On-Top.
c. When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
d. When approach has been missed (request clearance for specific action; i.e., to alternate airport, another approach, etc.).
e. Change in the average true speed (at cruising altitude) when it varies by 5 percent or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight plan.
f. The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point that the pilot is cleared to.
g. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
h. Any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low-frequency navigation receiver capability, GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communications capability.
i. Any information relating to the safety of flight.
j. Upon encountering weather or hazardous conditions
not forecast.
What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact? (AIM 5-3-3)
a. When leaving final approach fix inbound on the final (nonprecision) approach, or when leaving the outer marker (or fix used in lieu of the outer marker) inbound on final (precision) approach.
b. A corrected estimate at anytime it becomes apparent that an estimate as previously submitted is in error in excess of 3 minutes.
What items of information should be included in eve
position report? (AIM 5-3-2)
a. Identification
b. Position
c. Time
d. Altitude or flight level
e. Type of flight plan (not required in IFR position reports made
directly to ARTCCs or approach control)
f. ETA and name of next reporting point
g. The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight, and
h. Pertinent remarks
Are you required to report unforecast weather encountered en route? (AIM 5-3-3)
Yes; pilots encountering weather conditions which have not been
forecast, or hazardous conditions which have been forecast, are
expected to forward a report of such weather to ATC.
Explain the terms “maintain” and “cruise” as they
pertain to an IFR altitude assignment. (AIM 4-4-3)
Maintain — Self-explanatory: maintain last altitude assigned.
Cruise—Used instead of “maintain” to assign a block of arspace
to a pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude
specified in the cruise clearance. The pilot may level off at
any intermediate altitude, and climb/descent may be made at the
discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts a descent, and
verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he may not return
to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.
When will ATC issue a “cruise clearance”?
ATC will usually issue a cruise clearance when:
a. Conditions permit a pilot to proceed to, descend, make an approach and land at an airport that is either within/below/outside controlled airspace and without a standard instrument approach procedure.
b. Conditions such as bad weather or turbulence call for more flexibility for the pilot to avoid weather turbulence.
A cruise clearance can be used in conjunction with an airport clearance limit when it is to allow the pilot the capability to proceed to the destination airport, descend and land in accordance with applicable regulations.
Why would a pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A pilot on an IFR flight plan operating in VFR weather conditions, may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. For reaSons such as turbulence, more favorable winds aloft, etc., the pilot has the flexibility to select an altitude or flight level of his/her choice (subject to any ATC restrictions). Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel their IFR flight plan or operate VFR-On-Top may request a climb to VFR-On-Top.
Is a VFR-On-Top clearance a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? (AIM 4-4-7)
A VFR-On-Top clearance is an IFR clearance.
Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances? (AIM 4-4-7)
Class A airspace.
What operational procedures must pilots On IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?
(AIM 4-4-7)
They must:
a. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude
b. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria
c. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight: i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc.
What is a “clearance limit” and when is it received?
A traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize flight to the airport of intended landing. Under certain conditions, at some locations, a short-range clearance procedure is used, whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area, and pilots are advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the center controller.
What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?
An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold at a fix where the pattern is not charted will include the following information:
a. Direction of holding from the fix, in reference to the eight cardinal compass points (i.e. N, NE, E, SE, etc.).
b. Holding fix (the fix may be omitted if included at the beginning of the transmission as the clearance limit).
c. Radial. course, bearing, airway or route on which the aircraft is to hold.
d. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used (leg length will be specified in minutes on pilot request or if the controller considers it necessary).

e. Direction of turns, if holding pattern is nonstandard (left turns), the pilot requests direction of turns, or the controller considers it necessary to state direction of turns.
f. Time to expect further clearance and any pertinent additional delay information.
What are the maximum airspeeds permitted for aircraft while holding? (AIM 5-3-7)
MHA-6,000ft 200KIAS
6,001 — 14,000 ft 230 KIAS
14,001 — and above 265 KIAS

Note: Holding patterns at all altitudes may be restricted to a maximum speed of 175 KIAS. Holding patterns from 6,001 to 14,000 feet may be restricted to a maximum airspeed of 210 KIAS. These nonstandard patterns will be depicted by an icon.
What is a nonstandard versus a standard
holding pattern? (AIM 5-3-7)
In a standard pattern, all turns are to the right. In a nonstandard pattern, all turns are to the left.
Describe the procedure for crosswind correction in a holding pattern. (AIM 5-3-7)
Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments.
What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed?
(AIM 5-3-7)
Start a speed reduction when 3 minutes or less from the fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of the change.
Why is it important for the pilot to receive an EFC time with initial holding instructions? (AIM 5-3-7)
In case of lost communications, the pilot will know when to depart the holding pattern.
Describe the different recommended entry methods for holding. (AIM 5-3-7)
The three types of entry are:
a. Parallel
b. Teardrop
c. Direct
What is the leg length for a standard holding pattern’
(AIM 5-3-7)
The standard leg length is:
a. 1 minute inbound at or below 14,000 feet MSL, and
b. 1 1/2 minutes inbound above 14,000 feet MSL.
If assigned a DME hold, what procedures should be utilized? (AIM 5-3-7)
The same entry and holding procedures apply to DME holding, except distances (nautical miles) are used instead of time values. The outbound course of the DME holding pattern is called the outbound leg of the pattern. The length of the outbound leg will be specified by the controller, and the end of this leg is determined by the DME readout.
When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding
pattern begin? (AIM 5-3-7)
Outbound leg timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound is completed.
What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen? (14 CFR §91.211)
a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL, the minimum flight crew must use oxygen after 30 minutes.
b. Above 14,000 MSL up to and including 15,000 MSL, the minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen.
c. Above 15,000 MSL, each passenger must be provided with supplemental oxygen and the minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen.
When may the pilot-in-command of an aircraft deviate from an ATC clearance? (14 CFR §91.123)
Except in an emergency, no person may, in an area in which air traffic control is exercised, operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction.
If an emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom? (14 CFR §91.123)
Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR and IFR conditions, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection? (14 CFR §91.185)
In VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR, or if VFR is encountered after the failure, each pilot shall Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
In IFR conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are not within range, each pilot shall Continue the flight according to the following:
a. Route:
Assigned by route assigned in last ATC clearance
Vectored go direct from point of radio failure to fix,
route, airway in vector clearance
Expected by route that ATC has advised may be expected
Filed by the route filed in flight plan
b. Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown):
Minimum minimum altitude for IFR operations
Expected altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect
in a further clearance
Assigned altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC
clearance
c. Leave clearance limit:
• When the clearance limit is a fix from which the approach
begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
• If the clearance limit is not a fix from which the approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if none has been received. upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or decent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
What does Single-Pilot Resource Management refer to?
Single-Pilot Resource Management (SR14) refers to the effective use of all available resources: human resources, hardware, and information. Human resources include all other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely. These groups include, but are not limited to: dispatchers, weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. SRM is similar to Crew Resource Management (CRM) procedures.
What angular deviation from a VOR Course is
represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
Full scale deflection = 10 deg; therefore, half-scale deflection = 5 deg
What is reverse sensing?
Reverse sensing is when the VOR needle indicates the reverse of normal operation. This occurs when the aircraft is headed toward the station with a FROM indication or when the aircraft is headed away from the station with a TO indication. Also, unless the aircraft has reverse sensing capability and it is in use, when flying inbound on the back course or outbound on the front course of an ILS. reverse sensing will occur.
What is the procedure for determining an intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?
a. Turn to a heading to parallel the desired course, in the same direction as the course to be flown.
b. Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are located.
c. Double the difference to determine the interception angle, which will not be less than 20° nor greater than 90°.
d. Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course.
e. Turn to the interception heading.
f. Hold this heading constant until the CDI centers, which indicates the aircraft is on course. (With practice in judging the varying rates of closure with the course centerline, you learn to lead the turn to prevent overshooting the course.)
g. Turn to the MH corresponding to the selected course, and follow tracking procedures inbound or outbound.
Note: Steps a. through c. may be omitted if you turn directly to intercept the course without initially turning to parallel the desired course.
What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation? (AIM 1-1-3)
VOR navigation is accurate to ± 1°.
How do you find an ADF relative bearing?
A relative bearing is the angular relationship between the aircraft heading and the station, measured clockwise from the nose. The bearing is read directly on the ADF dial, measured clockwise from zero.
How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing?
A magnetic bearing is the direction of an imaginary line from the aircraft to the station or the station to the aircraft referenced to magnetic north. To determine, use this formula:
MH + RB = MB
(Magnetic heading + relative bearing = magnetic bearing)
If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing to the station. The reciprocal of this number is the magnetic bearing from the station.
What is ADF homing?
ADF homing is flying the aircraft on any heading required to keep the ADF needle on zero until the station is reached.
What is ADF tracking?
ADF tracking is a procedure used to fly a straight geographic flight
path inbound to or from an NDB. A heading is established that will
maintain the desired track, compensating for wind drift.
You are tracking inbound to an NDB, your heading 6.0 equals your course and the ADF needle is now pointing
10 degrees to the left. What procedure will you use for
wind drift correction?
Turn 200 left When the needle is deflected 20° (deflection =
interception angle), track has been intercepted. The aircraft is on
track as long as the RB remains the same number of degrees as the
wind correction angle (WCA). Lead the interception to avoid
overshooting the track. Turn 10° toward the inbound course. You
are now inbound with a 10° left correction angle.
If a thunderstorm is inadvertently encountered, what
flight instrument and what procedure should be used
to maintain control of the aircraft?
Attitude Indicator—establish power for the recommended maneuvering
speed and attempt to maintain a constant attitude only. Do
not attempt to maintain a constant altitude.
What are the conditions needed for major structural
icing to form?
Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight:
a. The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or
cloud droplets, and
b. Temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft
must be 0°C or colder. Aerodynamics cooling can lower temperature
of an airfoil to 0°C even though the ambient temperature
is a few degrees warmer.
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
a. Move to an altitude with significantly colder temperatures
b. Move to an altitude with temperatures that are above freezing
c. Fly to an area clear of visible moisture; or
d. Change heading and fly to an area of known non-icing conditions.
Which type of precipitation will produce the most hazardous icing conditions?
Freezing rain produces the most hazardous icing conditions.
If icing is inadvertently encountered, how would your landing approach procedure be different?
The following guidelines may be used when flying an airplane
which has accumulated ice:
a. Maintain more power during the approach.
b. Maintain a higher airspeed.
c. Expect a higher stall speed.
d. Expect a longer landing roll.
e. A “no flaps” approach is recommended.
f. Maintain a consistently higher altitude than normal.
g. Avoid a missed approach (get it right the first time).
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz VHF band.
What are the normal usable distances for the various classes of VOR stations? (AIM 1-1-8)
H-VORs and L-VORs have a normal usable distance of 40 nautical miles below 18,000 feet. T-VORs are short-range facilities which have a power output of approximately 50 watts and a usable distance of 25 nautical miles at 12,000 feet and below. T-VORS are used primarily for instrument approaches in terminal areas, on or adjacent to airports.
Terminal = 1,000 to 12.000 AGL 25 NM
Low-altitude = 1,000 to 18,000 AGL 40 NM
High-altitude = 1,000 to 14,500 AGL 40 NM
High-altitude = 14,500 to 18,000 AGL 100 NM
High-altitude = 18,000 to 45.000 AGL 130 NM
High-altitude = 45,000 to 60,000 AGL 100 NM
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station? (AIM 1-1-7 and 1-1-12)
The DME component is operative; the VOR component is inoperative. It is important to recognize which identifier is retained for the operative facility. A single coded identifier with a repeat interval every 30 seconds indicates DME is operative. If no identification is received, the facility has been taken off the air for tune-up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
Will all VOR stations have capability for providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?
No, aircraft receiving equipment ensures reception of azimuth and distance information from a common source only when designated as VOR/DME. VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME stations.
For IFR operations off established airways the “Route of Flight" portion of an IFR flight plan Should list VOR navigational aids which are no further than what distance from each other? (AIM 5-1 -8)
Below 18,000 feet MSL, use aids not more than 80 NM apart.
Between 14,500 feet MSL and 17,999 feet MSL in the
conterminous U.S., H (high altitude service volume) facilities not
more than 200 NM apart may be used.
Within what frequency range do NDBS normally operate?
NDBs operate within the low- to medium-frequency band— 190 to 535 kHz.
When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with an ILS marker beacon, what is it called?
It is called a compass locator.
There are four types of NDB facilities in use. What are they and what are their effective ranges?
HH facilities: 2,000 watts 75 NM
H facilities: 50 to 1,999 watts 50 NM
MH facilities: less than 50 watts 25 NM
ILS compass locator: less than 25 watts 15 NM
What limitations apply when using an NDB for navigation?
Radio beacons are subject to disturbances that may result in erroneous bearing information. Disturbances result from factors such as lightning, precipitation static, etc. At night, radio beacons are vulnerable to interference from distant stations.
What operational procedure should be used when navigation or approaches are conducted using an NDB?
Since ADF receivers do not incorporate signal flags to warn a pilot when erroneous bearing information is being displayed, the pilot should continuously monitor the NDBs coded identification.
What is an HSI?
The horizontal situation indicator is a combination of two instruments, a vertical heading indicator and a VORIILS indicator. The aircraft heading is displayed under the upper lubber line. A course indicating arrow shows the course selected (head) and the reciprocal (tail). The course deviation bar operates with a VORJLOC navigation receiver to indicate left or right deviations for the course selected. The fixed aircraft symbol and course deviation bar display the aircraft relative to the selected course as though you were above the aircraft looking down. The triangular-shaped pointer is the TO-FROM indicator. The glide slope deviation pointer indicates the relation of the aircraft to the glide slope.
What is an RMI?
The radio magnetic indicator consists of a rotating compass card, a double-barred bearing indicator, and a single-barred bearing indicator. The compass card, actuated by the compass system, rotates as the aircraft turns. The bearing pointers display ADF or VOR magnetic bearings to the selected station. In most installations, the double-barred bearing indicator gives the magnetic bearing to the VOR or VORTAC and the single-barred indicator is an ADF needle which gives the magnetic bearing to the selected low-frequency facility.
The tail of the double-barred indicator tells you the radial you are on, and the tail of the single-barred indicator tells you your magnetic bearing from a low-frequency station.
What is DME?
DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. In the operation of DME, paired pulses at a specific spacing are sent out from the aircraft and are received at the ground station. The ground station then transmits paired pulses back to the aircraft at the same pulse spacing but on a different frequency. The time required for the round trip of this signal exchange is measured in the airborne DME unit and is translated into distance and ground speed. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of- sight altitude. DME operates on frequencies in the UHF spectrum between 960 MHz to 1215 MHz. Distance information is slant- range distance, not horizontal.
When is DME equipment required? (14 CFR §91.205)
If VOR navigational equipment is required for flight at and above FL240, the aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment. If the DME should fail at and above FL240, the pilot-in-command shall notify ATC immediately, and then may continue operations to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or equipment replacement can be done.
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how tar from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate? (FAA-H-8083-1 5)
Slant range error will be at a minimum if the aircraft is one or more miles from the facility for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
What is RNAV?
Area Navigation (RNAV) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot. RNAV equipment can compute the airplane position, actual track and ground speed and then provide meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical equipment will provide the pilot with distance, time, bearing and crosstrack error relative to the selected “TO” or “active” waypoint and the selected route. Several distinctly different navigational systems with different navigational performance characteristics are capable of providing area navigational functions. Present day RNAV includes INS, LORAN, VORJDME, and GPS systems.
What is LORAN?
LORAN is an abbreviation for Long Range Navigation. It is an
electronic navigation system by which hyperbolic lines of position
are determined by measuring the difference in the time of reception
of synchronized pulse signals from two fixed transmitters. A
LORAN receiver is basically an onboard computer capable of determining
an aircraft’s position based on the measurement of time-
difference receipt of these different signals. LORAN receivers also
have computer memory capable of storing information and useful
programs such as airport locations, navigational aids, etc., and programs
such as estimated time to station, ground speed, true airspeed,
bearing to nearest airport, etc.
Give a brief description of GPS.
Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based radio
navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to
determine precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver
tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurement
that is then used to determine the user location.
What are the three functional elements of GPS?
a. The space element consists of 24 Navstar satellites (called a
“constellation”). The satellites are in six orbital planes (with
four in each plane) at about 11 ,000 miles above the earth. At
least five satellites are in view at all times.
b. The con trol element consists of a network of ground-based
GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of
satellite positions and their clocks. In its present form, it has
five monitoring stations, three ground antennas, and a master
control station.
c. The user element consists of antennas and receiver_processors
onboard the aircraft that provide positioning velocity, and precise
timing to the user.
Is an alternate means of navigation appropriate to the route of flight required if using GPS navigation equipment under IFR?
Yes. Aircraft using OPS navigation equipment under IFR must be equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight. Active monitoring of alternative navigation equipment is not required if the GPS receiver uses RAIM for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost.
Note: Aircraft equipped with a WAAS receiver may use WAAS as a primary means of navigation. No additional equipment is required.
What is the purpose of “RAIM”? (AIM 1-1-19)
The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least one satellite, in addition to those required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect an integrity anomaly.
If RAIM capability is lost while conducting IFR enroute or approach operations, can you continue flight using GPS information? (AIM 1-1-19)
No. Without RAIM capability, the GPS may no longer be providing the required accuracy. The pilot should select another type of navigation system until RAIM is restored.
Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information?
Civilian pilots may obtain GPS RAIM availability information for nonprecision approach procedures by specifically requesting GPS aeronautical information from an Automated Flight Service Station during preflight briefings. FAA briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, unless a specific time frame is requested by the pilot.
Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?
No, for the following reasons:
a. RAIM capability—VFR GPS receivers and all handheld units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error, cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers.
b. Database currency—In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.
c. Antenna location—In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. In IFR installations, care is exercised to ensure that an adequate clear view is provided for the antenna to see satellites. If an alternate location is used, some portion of the aircraft may block the view of the antenna, causing a greater opportunity to lose navigation.
Note: VFR and handheld GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.
What are the designated altitudes for the airways in the VOR and LJMF Airway System?
The VOR and L/MF Airway System consists of airways designated from 1,200 feet above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. These airways are depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
What are the lateral limits of low altitude federal airways?
Each federal airway includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 NM each side of the centerline.
How are federal airways depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts?
Except in Alaska and coastal North Carolina, the VOR airways are predicated solely on VOR or VORTAC navigation aids; they are depicted in blue on aeronautical charts (black on Enroute Low Altitude Charts), and are identified by a “V” (Victor) followed by an airway number. A segment of an airway which is common to two or more routes carries the numbers of all the airways which coincide for that segment.
What is a “changeover point”?
It is a point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigational facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigational guidance should occur.
What is a mileage breakdown point?
Occasionally an “x” will appear at a separated segment of an airway that is not an intersection. The “x” is a mileage breakdown or computer navigation fix and indicates a course change.
What is a “waypoint”?
It is a predetermined geographical position used for route/jnstp (1
ment approach definition, progress reports, published VFR routes,
visual reporting points or points for transitioning andlor circumnavigating
controlled and/or special use airspace. A waypoint is
defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude
coordinates.
Are the courses depicted on an Enroute Low Altitude
Chart magnetic or true courses?
They are magnetic courses.
Describe the climb procedure when approaching
a fix beyond which a higher MEA exists. (14 CFR 91.177)
A pilot may begin a climb to the new MEA at the fix.
Describe the climb procedure when approaching
a fix at which a MCA exists.
A pilot should initiate a climb so the MCA is reached by the time
the intersection is crossed. An MCA will be charted when a higher
MEA route segment is approached. The MCA is usually indicated
when you are approaching steeply rising terrain, and obstacle
clearance and/or signal reception is compromised.
VHF/UHF and LF/MF route data will be depicted in
what specific colors on Enroute Low Altitude Charts?
VHF/UHF Black
LFIMF Brown
What is Class A airspace?
Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
What is Class B airspace?
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enpianements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some resemble an upside-down wedding cake), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is “clear of clouds.”
What is Class C airspace?
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enpianements Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.
What is Class D airspace?
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the
airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have
an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D
airspace area is individually tailored, and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will usually be designed to contain
those procedures.
When a control tower, located at an airport within Class
D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens
to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?
During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area
rules, or a combination of Class E rules to 700 feet AGL and Class
G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the AJFD for
specifics.
What is Class E (controlled) airspace?
Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class
D, and it is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace
extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitiide
to the overlying controlled airspace. When designated as a
surface area, the airspace will be configured to contain all instrument
procedures. Also in this class are federal airways, airspace
beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL used to transition to or
from the terminal or enroute environment, enroute domestic, and
offshore airspace areas designated below 18,000 feet MSL. Unless
designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500
feet MSL over the United States, including that airspace overlying
the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous
states and Alaska, up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL,
and the airspace above FL600.
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated
in conjunction with an airport with an approved lAP?
(14 CFR §71.71)
700 feet AGL.
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with a federal airway? (14 CFR §71.71)
1,200 feet AGL.
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL, up to but not including what altitude? (AIM 3-2-6)
Except for 18,000 feet MSL, Class E airspace has no defined vertical limit; rather, it extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL and extends up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, overlying the 48 contiguous states including the waters within 12 miles from the coast of the contiguous states.
What is Class G airspace? (AIM 3-3-1)
Class 6 airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace.
What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace?
Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to but not including the overlying controlled airspace, or 14,500 MSL, or where Class E airspace begins, whichever occurs first.
Define Prohibited Area
For security or other reasons, aircraft flight
is prohibited.
Define Restricted Area
Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft,
flights must have permission from the Controlling agency, if
VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Define Military Operations Area
MOAs consist of airspace of defined
vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating
certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Permission is
not required for VFR flights, but extreme caution should be exercised.
IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Define Warning Area
Airspace of defined dimensions extending from
3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S. containing
activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. A
warning area may be located over domestic or international waters
or both. Permission is not required but a flight plan is advised.
Define Alert Area
Depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating
pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training
or an unusual type of aerial activity. No permission is required,
but VFR flights should exercise extreme caution. IFR flights will
be cleared through or vectored around it.
Define Controlled Firing Areas
CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. These activities are suspended immediately
when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate
an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.
Define National Security Area
Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR §99.7.
Define Temporary Flight Restrictions
TFRs are established to protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence of low flying aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard. A NOTAM designating the area within which TFRs apply and specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition will be issued.
Where can information on special use airspace be found?
The chart legend contains information on special use airspace such as times of use, altitudes, and the controlling agency.
What is a STAR?
A Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR) is an ATC-coded IFR arrival route established for use by arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain airports. Its purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between enroute and instrument approach procedures. Reference the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) for the availability of STARs.
If ATC issues your flight a STAR, must you accept it?
You are not required to accept a STAR, but if you do, you must be in possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to the charted procedure. Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing “NO STAR” in the remarks section of the flight plan, or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC.
When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if “cleared for the approach”?
Upon receipt of an approach clearance while on an unpublished route or being radar vectored, a pilot will comply with the minimum altitude for IFR and maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or TAP, at which time published altitudes apply.
Define the terms:
Initial approach segment
Intermediate approach segment
Final approach segment
Missed approach segment
An instrument approach procedure may have as many as four separate segments depending upon how the approach procedure is structured.
The initial approach segment is that segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix, or the point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course.
The intermediate approach segment is between the intermecljate fix or point and the final approach fix.
The final approach segment is between the final approach fix
or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point.
The missed approach segment is between the missed approach
point or the point of arrival at decision height, and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.
What are standard IFR separation minimums?
When radar is employed in the separation of aircraft at the same altitude, a minimum of 3 miles separation is provided between aircraft operating within 40 miles of the radar antenna site, and 5 miles between aircraft operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site. These minima may be increased or decreased in certain specific situations.
What is a Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?
MVA is the lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or i-route segment. It may he used for radar vectoring only upon the controller’s determination
that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to the controllers and not to the pilots.
How does a pilot navigate between the enroute phase and the initial approach segment?
In this case navigation is accomplished by feeder routes or radar vectors. Feeder routes are depicted on approach procedure charts to designate routes for aircraft to proceed from the enroute structure to the initial approach fix. All routes will include a minimum altitude, course, and distance.
What procedure is to be used when the clearance “cleared for the visual” is issued?
A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate air traffic control facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater.
Visual approaches are an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in visual meteorological conditions. Cloud clearance requirements of 14 CFR §91.155 are not applicable.
Describe the term “contact approach.”
An approach in which an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an air traffic control authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least I mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those condjtjos may deviate from the instrument approach procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground Visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.
When is a procedure turn not required?
a. The symbol “NoPT” is depicted.
b. “Radar Vectoring” is provided.
c. A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn.
d. Conducting a timed approach.
e. The procedure turn is not authorized (absence of procedure turn barb on plan view).
What are standard procedure turn limitations?
a. Turn on the depicted side.
b. Adhere to depicted minimum altitudes.
c. Complete the maneuver within the distance specified in the
profile view.
d. Maneuver at a maximum speed not greater than 200 knots (lAS).
What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is
specified in lieu of a procedure turn?
A holding pattern, in lieu of a procedure turn, may be specified for
course reversal in some procedures: the holding pattern is established
over an intermediate fix or final approach fix. The holding
pattern distance or time specified in the profile view must be observed.
Maximum holding airspeed limitations apply, as set forth
for all holding patterns. The holding pattern maneuver is completed
when the aircraft is established on the inbound course after
executing the appropriate entry. If cleared for the approach prior to
returning to the holding fix, and the aircraft is at the prescribed
altitude, additional circuits of the holding pattern are not necessary
nor expected by ATC. If pilots elect to make additional circuits to
lose altitude or to become better established on course, it is their
responsibility to so advise ATC upon receipt of their approach
clearance.
What is a precision approach (PA)?
A precision approach (PA) is an instrument approach that is based
on a navigation system that provides course and glidepath deviation information meeting the precision standards of ICAO Annex
10. For example, PAR, ILS, and GLS are precision approaches.
What are the basic components of a standard ILS?
Guidance information localizer, glide slope
Range information marker beacons, DME
Visual information approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights
Describe both visual and aural indications that a pilot would receive when crossing the outer, middle, and inner markers of a standard ILS.
Outer Marker
blue light
dull tone
slow speed

Middle Marker
amber light
medium tone
medium speed

Inner Marker
white light
high tone
high speed
What are the distances from the landing threshold of the
outer, middle, and inner markers?
Outer marker 4 to 7 miles from threshold
Middle marker 3.500 feet from threshold
Inner marker between middle marker and threshold
When is the inner marker used?
Ordinarily, there are two marker beacons associated with an ILS, the outer marker (OM) and middle marker (MM). Locations with a Category 11 ILS also have an inner marker (IM).
To maintain glide slope and desired airspeed on an
ILS approach, how are power and pitch Used?
When on the final segment of an ILS final approach, change pitch
to control glide path, and change power to control airspeed
While flying a 3° glide slope, which conditions should
the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude and
altitude when encountering a windshear situation where
a tailwind shears to a calm or headwind?
Pitch attitude Increase
Required thrust Reduced, then increased
Vertical speed Decreases, then increases
Airspeed Increases, then decreases
Reaction Reduce power initially, then increase
While flying a 3° glide slope, which conditions should
the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude, and
altitude when encountering a windshear situation where
a headwind shears to a calm or tailwind?
Pitch attitude Decrease
Required thrust Increased, then reduced
Vertical speed Increases
Airspeed Decreases, then increases
Reaction Increased power, then a
decrease in power
Localizers operate within what frequency range?
Localizers operate on odd tenths within the 108.10 to
111.95 MHz band.
Where is the localizer/transmitter antenna installation
located in relation to the runway?
The antenna is located at the far end of the approach runway.
Where is the glide slope antenna located and what is its normal usable range?
The glide slope transmitter is located between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway), and offset 250 feet to 650 feet from it. The glide slope is normally usable to a distance of 10 NM.
What range does a standard localizer have?
The localizer signal provides course guidance throughout the descent
path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna site.
What is the angular width of a localizer signal?
The localizer signal is adjusted to provide an angular width of between 3° to 6°, as necessary to provide a linear width of 700 feet at the runway approach threshold.
What is the normal glide slope angle for a standard ILS?
The glide path projection angle is normally 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation.
What is the sensitivity of a CDI tuned to a localizer
signal compared with a CDI tuned to a VOR?
Full left or full right deflection occurs at approximately 2.5° from the centerline of a localizer course, which is 4 times greater than
when tuned to a VOR, where full-scale deflection equals 10° from the centerline.
Define the term “decision height” (DH).
With respect to the operation of an aircraft, decision height means the height at which a decision must be made, during an ILS, MLS, or PAR instrument approach to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach.
When flying an instrument approach procedure, when
can the pilot descend below the MDA or DH?
(14 CFR §91.175)
a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent
to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal
rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in
the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
c. When at least one of the following visual references for the in tended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
• The approach light system, (except that the pilot may not
descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation
using the ALS as a reference unless the red terminating
bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and
identifiable)
• The threshold
• The threshold markings
• The threshold lights
• REIL
• VAST
• The touchdown zone markings
• The touchdown zone lights
• The runway and runway markings
• The runway lights
What are the legal substitutes for an ILS outer marker
and middle marker? (14 CFA §91.175)
Outer marker: Compass locator, PAR, ASR or the DME, VOR and
NDB fixes authorized in the instrument approach procedure.
Middle marker: Compass locators or PAR are the only legal substitutions.
If the middle marker is out of service for a particular ILS procedure, will the minimums change, and if so, how much?
For Part 91 operators, there is no longer an increase in DH when the middle marker is inoperative.
What are PAR and ASR approaches?
A PAR approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides highly accurate navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to the pilot (precision approach). An ASR approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only (nonprecision approach).
What is a “no-gyro” approach?
A “no-gyro” approach is a radar approachlvector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions “Turn right/left,” or “Stop turn,” as appropriate.
What rate of turn is recommended during execution of a “no-gyro” approach procedure?
On a no-gyro approach, all turns should be standard rate until on final; then one-half standard rate on final approach.
If conducting an ASR approach, are the minimums expressed as DH or MDA?
An ASR approach is a nonprecision approach with no glide slope provided; minimums are depicted as MDA.
What is the definition of the term
"Nonprecision approach”?
A nonprecjsjon approach (NPA) is an instrument approach based
on a navigation system that provides Course deviation information but no glidepath deviation information Such as VOR, NDB and LNAV.
Name the types of nonprecjsjon approach procedures
available.
The types of nonprecision approaches available are VOR,
TACAN, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF.
Define MDA.
The Minimum Descent Altitude is the lowest altitude, expressed in
feet above MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach
or during circle-to-land maneuvering, in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided.
Define VDP.
Visual Descent Point—a VDP is a defined point on the final approach
course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure
from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown
point may be commenced, provided the approach threshold
of that runway, or approach lights or other markings identifiable
with the approach end of that runway, are clearly visible to the pilot.
Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should fly the approach
procedure as though no VDP had been provided.
What is a “VDA”?
On nonprecision approaches, Vertical Descent Angle (VDA)
describes a computed path from the final approach fix (FAF) and
altitude to the runway threshold at the published Threshold Crossing
Height (TCH). The optimum descent angle is 3.00 degrees and,
whenever possible, the approach will be designed to accommodate
this angle. It provides the means for the pilot to establish a stabilized approach descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the TCH. Pilots can use the published angle and estimatedl actual ground-speed to find a target rate of descent from a table published in the back of the TPP. The FAA will eventually publish VDAs on all nonprecision approaches.
Will standard instrument approach procedures always have a Final Approach Fix (FAF)?
No. When the FAF is not indicated in the profile view, the MAP is based on station passage when the facility is on the airport or a specified distance (e.g., VORIDME or OPS procedures).
If no FAF is published, where does the final approach segment begin on a nonprecision approach?
The final approach segment begins where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.
Certain conditions are required for an instrument approach procedure to have “straight-in” minimums published. What are they? (AIM 5-4-20)
Straight-in minimums are shown on the lAP when the final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment (15 degrees for GPS lAPs) and a normal descent can be made from the IFR altitude shown on the lAP to the runway surface.
What is a stepdown fix?
A stepdown fix permits additional descent within a segment of an instrument approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown.
What does a VASI system provide?
A VASI system provides visual descent guidance during an approach to a runway; safe obstruction clearance within ±100 of extended runway centerline up to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Two-bar VASI installations normally provide a 30 visual glide path.
What are the major differences between SDF and LDA approaches?
In an SDF approach procedure, the SDF course may or may not be aligned with the runway; usable off-course indications are limited to 35° either side of course centerline. The SDF signal emitted is fixed at either 6° or 12°.
In the LDA approach procedure the LDA course is of comparable utility and accuracy to a standard localizer. An LDA course is usually not aligned with the runway; however, straight-in minimums may be published where the angle between the centerline and course does not exceed 300. If the angle exceeds 30°, only circling minimums are published.
What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach? (14 CFR §91.175)
No regulation states that you cannot attempt an approach. if operating under Part 91 regulations. But if you reach MDA or DH and decide to descend to land, flight visibility must be at least equal to that published.
What regulations require use of specified procedures by all pilots approaching for landing under IFR?
(14 CFR Part 97)
Specified procedures are required by 14 (ZFR Part 97.
What are several types of GPS approach procedures in use?
a. GPS overlay of pre-existing nonprecision approaches.
b. VORJDME based RNAV approaches.
c. Stand-alone RNAV (GPS) approaches.
d. RNAV (GPS) approaches with vertical guidance APV).
e. RNAV (GPS) precision approaches (WAAS and LAAS).
What is the GPS overlay program?
The GPS Approach Overlay Program is an authorization for pilots to use GPS avionics under IFR for flying designated nonprecision instrument approach procedures, except LOC, LDA, and SDF procedures. These procedures are now identified by the name of the procedure and “or GPS” (e.g., VOR!DME or OPS RWY 15). Only approaches contained in the current onboard navigation database are authorized.
What is a GPS stand-alone approach?
A GPS stand-alone approach consists of a sequence of waypoints defining the point-to-point track to be flown coded into the database, including the initial approach, intermediate, final approach, missed approach, missed approach turning, and missed approach holding waypoints. All waypoints, except a missed approach way- point at the runway threshold, will be named with a five-letter alpha character name. Missed approach waypoints at the threshold will be assigned a database identifier. The sequence of waypoints appearing in the display should be identical to the waypoint sequence appearing on an associated approach chart.
What is a TAA with regard to GPS approaches?
Terminal Arrival Area is controlled airspace established in conjunction with the standard or modified RNAV approach configurations. It provides a seamless transition from the enroute structure to the terminal environment for arriving aircraft equipped with FMS and/or GPS navigational equipment. The TAA provides a NoPT for aircraft using the approach and has three standard areas:
straight-in, left base, and right base. The arc boundaries of the three areas are published portions of the approach and allow aircraft to transition from the en route structure direct to the nearest IAF.
When flying a GPS approach, is it necessary to monitor
ground-based NAVAIDs as a backup to the GPS
equipment?
Many of the original overlay approaches have been replaced with
stand-alone procedures specifically designed for use by GPS systems.
The title of the remaining GPS overlay procedures has been
revised on the approach chart to “or GPS” (e.g., VOR or GPS
RWY 24). Therefore, all the approaches that can be used by GPS
now contain “GPS” in the title (e.g., “VOR or GPS RWY 24,”
“GPS RWY 24,” or “RNAV (GPS) RWY 24”). During these GPS
approaches, underlying ground-bas NAVAIDs are not required
to be operational and associated aircraft avionics need not be
installed, operational, turned on or monitored (monitoring of the
underlying approach is suggested when equipment is available
and functional). Existing overlay approaches may be requested
using the GPS title, such as “GPS RWY 24” for the VOR or GPS
RWY 24.
When can GPS be used in lieu of ADF or DME?
a. Determining the aircraft position over a DME fix. GPS satisfies
the 14 CFR §91.205 requirement for DME at and above 24,000
feet MSL (FL240).
b. Flying aDME arc.
c. Navigating to/from a NDB/compass locator.
d. Determining aircraft position over an NDB/compass locator.
e. Determining the aircraft position over a fix defined by a
NDB/compass locator bearing crossing a VOR/LOC course.
f. Holding over a NDB/compass locator.
What restrictions apply to the use of GPS as a substitute
for ADF and/or DME? (AIM 1-1-19)
Waypoints, fixes, intersections, and facility locations to be used for
these operations must be retrieved from the GPS airborne database.
The database must be current. If the required positions cannot be
retrieved from the airborne database, the substitution of GPS for ADF andlor DME is not authorized.
It flying a VOR/DME approach without operative DME onboard, could you use GPS info in lieu of DME info?
When using a facility as the active waypoint, the only acceptable
tablish the DME fix. If this facility is not in your airborne database, facility is the DME facility which is charted as the one used to esyou are not authorized to use a facility waypoint for this operation.
What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using GPS?
Any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than GPS that is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, and which the aircraft is equipped to fly. If the non-GPS approaches on which the pilot must rely require DME or ADF, the aircraft must be equipped with DME or ADF avionics as appropriate.
What is “WAAS”?
Wide-area augmentation system (WAAS) is a satellite navigation system consisting of the equipment and software which augments the GPS Standard Positioning Service (SPS). The WAAS provides enhanced integrity, accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above GPS SPS. The differential correction function provides improved accuracy required for precision approach. Aircraft equipped with an approved WAAS receiver can use GPS as the primary navigation system from takeoff through a Category 1 precision approach.
What does “APV” mean?
Approach with Vertical Guidance is a new class of approach procedures that provides vertical guidance, but does not meet the ICAO Annex 10 requirements for precision approaches. These new procedures are defined in ICAO Annex 6, and include approaches such as the LNAV/VNAV procedures presently being flown with barometric vertical navigation (Baro-VNAV). These approaches provide vertical guidance, but do not meet the more stringent standards of a precision approach. Properly certified WAAS receivers will be able to tly these LNAV/VNAV procedures using a WAAS electronic glide path, which eliminates the errors that can be introduced by using barometric altimetry.
What does “LPV” mean?
Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance is a new type of
APV approach procedure, in addition to LNAVIVNAV, which
takes advantage of the lateral precision provided by WAAS. This
angular lateral precision, combined with an electronic glidepath
allows the use of TERPs approach criteria very similar to that used
for present precision approaches, with adjustments for the larger
vertical containment limit. The resulting approach procedure
minima may have decision altitudes as low as 250 feet height above
touchdown with visibility minimums as low as 1/2 mile, when the
terrain and airport infrastructure support the lowest minima. LPV
minima are published on the RNAV (GPS) approach charts.
What are circle-to-land approaches?
A circle-to-land approach is not technically an approach, but a maneuver
initiated by a pilot to align the aircraft with the runway for
landing when a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is
not possible or desirable. At tower-controlled airports, this maneuver
is made only after ATC authorization has been obtained and
the pilot has established required visual reference to the airport.
Why do certain airports have only circling minimums
published?
When either the normal rate of descent or the runway alignment
factor of 30 degrees (15 degrees for GPS lAPs) is exceeded,
a straight-in minimum is not published and a circling minimum
applies.
Can a pilot make a straight-in landing it using an
approach procedure having only circling minimums?
Yes; the fact that a straight-in minimum is not published does not
preclude pilots from landing straight-in, if they have the active runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal approach to landing. Under such conditions and when ATC has cleared them
for landing on that runway, pilots are not expected to circle, even
though only circling minimums are published.
If cleared for a “straight-in VOR-DME 34 approach,”
can a pilot circle to land, if needed?
Yes. A “straight-in approach” is an instrument approach wherein
final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure
turn. Such an approach is not necessarily completed with a
straight-in landing or made to straight-in minimums.
When can you begin your descent to the runway during
a circling approach? (14 CFR §91.175)
Three conditions are required before descent from the MDA
can occur:
a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent
to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal
rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in
the standard instrument approach being used.
c. At least one of the specific runway visual references for the intended
runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot.
While circling to land you lose visual contact with the
runway environment. At the time visual contact is lost,
your approximate position is a base leg at the circling
MDA. What procedure should be followed?
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument
approach, the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the
landing runway and continue the turn until established on the
missed approach course. Since the circling maneuver may be accomplished
in more than one direction, different patterns will be
required to become established on the prescribed missed approach
course, depending on the aircraft position at the time visual reference
is lost. Adherence to the procedure will ensure that an aircraft
will remain within the circling and missed approach obstacle clearance
areas.
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?
In all circling approaches, the circling minimum provides 300 feet of obstacle clearance within the circling approach area. The size of this area depends on the category in which the aircraft operates.
Category A 1.3-mile radius
Category B 1.5-mile radius
Category C 1.7-mile radius
Category D 2.3-mile radius
Category E 4.5-mile radius
How can a pilot determine the approach category minimums applicable to a particular aircraft?
Minimums are specified for various aircraft approach categories based on a speed of VREF, if specified, or if VF is not specified, 1.3 V0 at the maximum certificated gross landing weight.
What are the different aircraft approach categories?
(AIM 5-4-7)
Category A Speed less than 91 knots
Category B Speed 91 knots or more but
less than 121 knots
Category C Speed 121 knots or more but
less than 141 knots
Category D Speed 141 knots or more but
less than 166 knots
Category E Speed 166 knots or more
An aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 91 has a 1.3 times V0 speed 01100 KIAS, making Category B minimums applicable. If it becomes necessary to circle at a speed in excess of this category, what minimums should be used? (AIM 5-4-7)
An aircraft can only fit into one approach category. If it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of the speed range for each categofy the minimum for the next higher approach category should be used.
When must a pilot execute a missed approach?
a. Arrival at the missed approach point and the runway environment is not yet in sight;
b. Arrival at DH on the glide slope with the runway environment not yet in sight;
c. Anytime a pilot determines a safe landing is not possible;
d. When circling-to-land visual contact is lost; or
e. When instructed by ATC.
On a nonprecision approach procedure, how is the Missed Approach Point (MAP) determined?
In nonprecision procedures, the pilot determines the MAP by timing from FAF when the approach aid is well away from the airport,
by a fix or NAVAID when the navigation facility is located on the field, or by waypoints as defined by GPS or VORJDME RNAV.
If no final approach fix is depicted, how is the MAP determined?
The MAP is at the airport (NAVAID on airport).
Where is the MAP on a precision approach?
On a precision approach, the MAP is at the DA on glide slope.
Under what conditons are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not followed?
They are not followed when ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions
If, during the execution of an instrument approach procedure, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to full-scale needle deflection, what action is recommended?
Protected obstacle clearance areas for missed approach are predicated on the assumption that the missed approach is initiated at the decision height (DI-!) or at the missed approach point, and not lower than minimum descent altitude (MDA). Reasonable buffers are provided for normal maneuvers. However, no consideration is given to an abnormally early turn. Therefore when an early missed approach is executed, pilots should (unless otherwise cleared by ATC) fly the lAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH, before executing a turning maneuver.
What is a low approach?
A low approach (sometimes referred to as a low pass) is the go- around maneuver following an approach. Instead of landing or making a touch and go, a pilot may wish to go-around (low approach) in order to expedite a particular operation (a series of practice instrument approaches is an example). Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the low approach should be made straight ahead, with no turns or climb made until the pilot has made a thorough visual check for other aircraft in the area.
What does the phrase “Cleared for the Option” mean?
The “Cleared for the Option” procedure will permit an instructor, flight examiner or pilot the option to make a touch-and-go. low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. The pilot should make a request for this procedure passing the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.
Is it legal to land a civil aircraft if the actual visibility is below the minimums published on the approach chart?
(14 CFR §91.175)
No, 14 CFR Part 91 states that no pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the U.S., may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
When landing at an airport with an operating control tower following an IFR flight, must the pilot call FSS to close the flight plan? (AIM 5-1-14)
No, if operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan will automatically be closed upon landing.
You are operating on an IFR flight plan into an airport without an operating control tower, and have forgotten to close your flight plan after landing. Discuss the effect this will have on ATC. (AIM 5-1-14)
The airspace surrounding that airport cannot be released for use by other IFR aircraft until the status of your flight has been determined.
Is the reported ceiling a requirement for landing?
No. An aircraft may still be in and out of clouds when at DH or MDA, but have the runway environment in sight. Provided the visibility requirement is met, a descent for landing is authorized.
What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time? (14 CFR §61.51)
A pilot may log as instrument flight time only that time during which he/she operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments, under actual or simulated flight conditions.
When logging instrument time, what should be included in each entry? (14 CFR §61.51)
Each entry must include the place and type of each instrument approach completed, and the name of the safety pilot (if applicable).
What conditions must exist in order to log “actual” instrument flight time?
The FAA has never defined the term “actual” instrument time. 14 CFR Part 61 defines “instrument flight time” as that flight time when a person operates an aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. A reasonable guideline for determining when to log “actual instrument time” would be any flight time that is accumulated in IMC conditions with flight being conducted solely by reference to instruments. The definition of IMC is weather conditions below the VFR minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions. VFR minimums are found in 14 CFR §91.155.
What is the definition of “flight time”? (14 CFR Part 1)
Flight time means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
If a particular approach name has a letter “A” attached as a suffix (such as VOR DME A), what does this indicate?
A letter after the approach name indicates that the approach does not meet straight-in criteria and only circling minimums are available.
Do all standard instrument approach procedures have final approach fixes?
No, some nonprecision approaches may not have a final approach fix. These particular approaches usually have the NAVAID upon which the approach is based located on the airport.
With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?
When flying the full procedure, this is usually started upon completion of the procedure turn and when established on the final approach course inbound. When being radar-vectored to the final approach course, descent shall be accomplished when within the specified distance from the NAVAID and established on the inbound course.
What significance does a black triangle with a white “A” appearing in the Notes section of an approach chart, have to a pilot?
It indicates that nonstandard IFR alternate minimums exist for the airport. If an “NA” appears after the “A,” alternate minimums are not authorized. This information is found in the beginning of the TPP. Approved terminal weather observation and reporting facilities, or a general area weather report, must be available before an airport may serve as an alternate.
What is the Significance of the term “radar required” found on some approach charts?
A term displayed on charts and approach plates and included in FDC NOTAM5 to alert pilots that segments of either an instrument approach procedure or a route are not navigable because of either the absence or unusability of a NAVAID. The pilot can expect to be provided radar navigational guidance while transiting segments labeled with this term.