• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/78

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

78 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
most common cause of bloody diarrhea in the US
campylobactor
water/hemorrhagic diarrhea + abdominal pain (also known as pseudo-appendicitis)
campylobactor
most common pneumonia in HIV patients
pneumococcus
bronchial breath sounds, pathogenic for what?
pathogenic for pneumonia
treatment for mucormyocosis of the nose
amphotericin B + surgical debridement
treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
doxycycline
what is streptococcus bovis endocarditis associated with and what test must you order?
associated with colorectal cancer so get a colonoscopy
what tesing panel should you get with a patient newly diagnosed with HIV?
VDRL, PPD, Hep A/B serology, toxoplasmosis anti-body
what makes up an adequate sputum stain?
>25 PMNs with <25 epithelials
HIV + pneumonia = what bug?
pneumocystis carinii
cystic fibrosis + pneumonia = what bug?
pseudomonas
neonate + pneumonia = what bug??
GBS or E coli
what side-effect does rifampin have?
turns bodily fluids orange
ethambutol has what side effect?
optic neuritis
side effects of INH
peripheral neuritis, hepatitis
most common causes of sinusitis
s. pneumonia, H. influenza, M. catarrhalis
most common cause of nursing home pneumonia
strep pneumo
most common pneumonias for 18-45 years
mycoplasma, chlamydia pneumonia, S. pneumo
most common pneumonias for 40-65 years
S. pneumo, H. influenza, anaerobes, viruses, mycoplasma
most common pneumonias for 65+
S. pneumo, anaerobes, viral, H. influenza, gram+ rods
diagnosis and treatment for Enterobius vermicularis
scotch tape test, treat with albendazole or mebendazole
treatment for disseminated histoplasmosis in HIV patients
IV amphotericin B followed by lifelong itraconazole
abrupt onset fever with altered mental status in areas controlled by the temporal lobe... what must you rule out?
HSV encephalitis
treatment for elevated ammonia
neostigmine or lactulose
treatment for ticks
remove ASAP with tweezers; decreased risk if attached <24 hours
treatment for asymptomatic bacturia in pregnancy
amoxicillin or nitrofurontoin or oral cephalosporins
rice consumption + vomiting = what bug?
Bacillus cereus
CD4 count below what level requires mycobacterium prophylaxis? which drugs are recommended?
CD4 count below 50/microL, use azithromycin or clindamycin
treatment for CNS cryptococcal meningitis
IV amphotericin B + oral flucytosine
treatment for pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
TMP-SMX or pentamidine
most common cause of septic arthritis and treatment
staph aureus; diagnose via aspiration and treat with drainage and antibiotics
what is secondary syphilis?
diffuse macularpapular rash involving the palms and soles with generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, arthritis, iritis, hepatitis, meningitis, osetitis
most common cause of UTI
E coli
most common bug to cause UTI with alkaline urine
proteus
treatment for chlamydia
azithromycin
treatment for gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
what two common causes of gastritis have pre-formed toxins and hence their rapid onset?
staph and bacillus cereus
what bacteria is likely implicated when food poisoning follows a salad with mayo?
staph
what is the treatment for a febrile neutropenia?
medical emergency that requires immediate ceftazidime or cefepime
antibiotics indicated for cat bites
empiric Augmentin x 5 days
presentation difference between CMV and mono
CMV presents similar to mono without the sore throat and lymphadenopathy
what bacteria is likely present in a patient on chronic steroids with acid-fast bacteria on culture?
nocordia asteroides
most common cause of malignant otitis externa
pseudomonas aeurginosa
bacteria involved when a patient presents with cutaneous and visceral angioma-like blood vessel growths
Bartonella
bright red, firm, friable exophytic nodules on an HIV patient are what?
bacillary angiomatosis
what causes cat scratch fever and how does it present?
look for bacterial angiomatosis; presents with subacute lymphadenopathy
grey/leathery membrane covering tonsils/oropharynx
diptheria
what causes death related to diptheria?
cardio toxicity
what would you see on microscopy with diptheria?
non-motile, gram(+) bacilli
most common cause of cellulitis in DMII and burn victims
pseudomonas
well-circumscribed lesions with "volcano" appearance in HIV patient on the deep oral mucosa
HSV esophagitis
substernal burning + odynophagia + oral ulcerations with intracellular inclusions = ??
CMV esophagitis
honey-colored rash with crusting
impetigo
treatment for impetigo
dicloxacillin
treatment for pregnant woman with Lyme disease
oral amoxicillin
most common cause of pneumonia in patients with neurological disease
mostly anaerobes from aspiration
treatment for rhinocerebral mucormycosis
surgical debridement and high dose amphotericin B
dangerous side-effect of high-dose amphotericin B
nephrotoxicity
first line treatment for pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
TMP-SMX
what is the dangerous risk with aminoglycoside antibiotic treatment and how do you monitor for it?
risk of acute tubular necrosis renal failure; monitor BUN/Creatinine
most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis
staph aureus, for both IVDA and non-IVDA ABE
valve most commonly affected by IVDA-induced bacterial endocarditis
tricuspid valve
when are prophylactic antibiotics indicated for patients with mitral valve prolapse?
no prophylactic antibiotics indicated for dental/GU/GI/bronchoscopy procedures unless there is a history of valve repair surgery
name the different HIV risks at different CD4 counts
CD4 <500 = bacterial pneumonia,TB, Kaposi's sarcoma, Herpes Zoster

CD4 <200 = PCP, AIDS dementia

CD4 <100 = cryptococcal meningitis, candida esophagitis, cerebral toxoplasmosis

CD4 <50 = lymphoma, CMV, retinitis, mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
contraindications to influenza vaccination
egg allergy, sick with fever, mercury allergy, history of Guillain-Barre syndrome
common source of hemorrhagic E coli
undercooked ground beef
HIV + CD4<50 + odynophagia = ??
candida esophagitis
how do you diagnose esophagitis?
via EGD
treatment for candida esophagitis
oral fluconazole
most common cause of osteomyelitis after a nail-puncture wound
pseudomonas
HIV-positive + CD4<50 + fever + RUQ pain + fatigue + weight loss = ??
mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
what drugs increase the risk of ototoxicity when use concomitantly with aminoglycosides? at what time is this of high risk?
loop diuretics; after 2 weeks of antibiotics therapy
what are Koplik spots and what do they indicate?
erythematous maculopapular rash that starts on head and spreads caudally; measles
what is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
fatal neurological complication of measles that occurs years after the infection
what are common causes of fever of unknown origin?
infection, malignancy, collagen vascular disease, granulomatous disorders
what do you see on blood gas with early bacterial sepsis?
respiratory alkalosis
are gram (-) or (+) more likely to initiate a primary immune response and why?
gram (-), due to their lipopolysaccharide (LPS) cell wall
prophylactic treatment for cat bite
augmentin or 2nd generation cephalosporin