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256 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Clinical importance:

Enterococci
UTI
Endocarditis
Clinical importance:

Group A Strep
gram+

Cellulitis
Pharyngitis
Clinical importance:

Group B Strep
gram+
neonatal sepsis
Clinical importance:

Viridans strep
gram+

endocarditis
dental caries
abscess
Clinical importance:

Strep pneumo
gram+ diplococci

CAP
meningitis
bacteremia/septic shock
Clinical importance:

Staph aureus
gram+

furunculosis (boils)
cellulitis
abscess
endocarditis
bacteremia
Clinical importance:

coag-negative staphylococcus
gram+

infection of prosthetic devices
bacteremia
Clinical importance:

E.coli
gram-

UTI
bacteremia/septic shock
hemorrhagic colitis
Clinical importance:

Klebsiella
gram-

UTI
pneumonia
bacteremia
Clinical importance:

Enterobacter/citrobacter
gram-

UTI
pneumonia
bacteremia
Clinical importance:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
gram-

UTI
pneumonia
bacteremia
Clinical importance:

Neisseria meningitidis
gram-

meningitis
bacteremia/sepsis
Clinical importance:

H.flu
gram-

respiratory tract infections
bacterial conjunctivitis
otitis media
most common organism(s) in bacterial conjunctivitis
Strep pneumo
Staph aureus
H.flu
Clinical importance:

Clostridium spp.
anaerobe

intestinal disease
tetanus
botulism
abscess
abdominal sepsis
Clinical importance:

Bacteroidies (e.g. fragilis)
anaerobe

abscess
abdominal sepsis
soft tissue infections
common bacterial pathogens:

burns
Staph aureus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
common bacterial pathogens:

throat
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep, =Strep throat)
common bacterial pathogens:

skin infections
Staph aureus
common bacterial pathogens:

otitis media
Strep pneumo

H.flu
Moraxella
common bacterial pathogens:

Pneumonia
Strep pneumo

H.flu
common bacterial pathogens:

endocarditis
Staph aureus
Enterococcus faecalis
Viridans strep
common bacterial pathogens:

GI tract
Salmonella enterica
H. pylori
E.coli
Shigella dystentariae
C.diff
common bacterial pathogens:

UTI
Enterococcus

E.coli
common bacterial pathogens:

Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staph aureus
Strep pyogenes
general mechanism of tetracycline antibiotics
protein synthesis inhibitors

bacteriostatic
RULE OF THUMB COVERAGE:

Tetracyclines
Strep pneumo (minocycline also covers Group A&B)
(minocycline covers Staph aureus)
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

E.coli
H.flu
Neisseria
Moraxella
H.pylori
Brucella
Legionella
Vibro
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

Listeria monocytogenes
Clostridium (NOT difficile)
(does NOT cover B.frag)

ATYPICALS:
Rickettsiae (typhus, Rocky Mtn Fever)
Chlamydiophilia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Clinical uses for tetracyclines
Acne
Chlamydia
Rickettsial infections (Rocky Mtn Fever, typhus)
Lyme Disease
Atypical pneumonias (Mycoplasma pneumoiae & Chlamydia pneumoniae)
H. pylori
traveler's diarrhea
anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
Which tetracycline antibiotic can be used in renal failure?
doxycycline (all others have prolonged t1/2 in renal failure)
tetracycline antibiotics administration
food decreases absorption (but GI upset may require it)
milk decreases absorption (avoid @ admin time, +/-2hrs)

calcium, magnesium & iron containing products chelate & reduce absorption, separate from admin time by 2 hrs

take with full glass of water & do not lie down for 30 minutes (to avoid esophageal ulceration)
tetracycline antibiotics:

adverse effects?
N/V/D
hypersensitivity
esophageal ulceration
photosensitivity
vestibular toxicity (tinnitus, dizziness, only with minocycline & reverses upon d/c)


tooth discoloration & enamel hypoplasia
depressed bone growth
renal dysfunction

NOT FOR USE IN PREGNANT OR LACTATING WOMEN OR CHILDREN UNDER 8 (b/c teeth & depressed skeletal growth)
Tygacil

dosing?
tigecycline (a glycylcycline, structurally related to minocycline)

100mg LD
50mg Q12H

NOTE: prolonged post-antibiotic effect!
tigecycline should not be used empirically for nosocomial pneumonia because...?
it is not active against Pseudomonas
tigecycline & UTI's
should not be used, poor urinary drug concentration
tigecycline metabolism & elimination
largely hepatic, ok to use in renal failure, no adjustment

note that clearance is inhibited in hepatic failure

tigecycline does NOT affect P450 pathways
tigecycline MOA
protein synthesis inhibitor

bacteriostatic
RULE OF THUMB COVERAGE:

tigecycline
RULE OF THUMB: "Everything except Pseudomonas"

Strep
Staph
MRSA
Enterococcus
Bacillus anthracis
...and most other gram+

E.coli
H.flu
Klebsiella
Neisseria
Moraxella
Serratia
Acinetobacter
(covers Enterobacteriaceae with ESBL's!)
(does NOT cover Pseudomonas or Proteus)

anaerobes/B.frag

ATYPICALS:
Chlamydophila spp.
Mycloplasma pneumoniae

NOTE: tigecycline is effective against most resistance mechanism, except multidrug efflux pumps (although it is effective against normal efflux pumps)
tigecycline admin
IV

food does not affect pharmacokinetics, but even though tigecycline is IV, food may increase tolerability

PAE
adverse effects of tigecycline
N/V/D (~45%)
prolonged aPTT
photosensitivity

tooth discoloration
depressed bone growth

PREGNANCY CATEGORY D! Like tetracyclines, should not be used in pregnant/lactating women or in children under 8
tigecycline:

clinical uses
only approved for complicated skin infections (e.g. MRSA) and complicated intraabdominal in resistant to other options (e.g. MRSA)
Most commonly isolated Enterococcus? DOC?
E. faecalis (80-85%)

Ampicillin +/- gentamicin
DOC:

Staph aureus (MSSA)

alternatives?
Nafcillin

cefazolin
Septra
clindamycin
vancomycin
DOC:

Moraxella catarrhalis
Septra


Augmentin
doxycycline
2nd or 3rd Generation Cephalosporin
erythromycin
DOC:

Chlamydia spp.
doxycycline

azithromycin
erythromycin
aminoglycosides MOA
inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

bactericidal

requires oxygen-dependent transport system, so ineffective against anaerobes

PAE
aminoglycoside elimination
renal
aminoglycoside spectrum
GRAM POSITIVE:
not preferred agents
weakly active against Staph & Strep
may be used in combination with cell-wall inhibitors like beta lactams or vancomycin against Staph & Strep because it exhibits synergy; use AG @ low doses

GRAM NEGATIVE: (good coverage)
E.coli
Klebsiella
H.flu
Pseudomonas

NO ANAEROBES (require oxygen-dependent transport into bacteria)

ATYPICALS:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (amikacin & streptomycin)
side effects of Aminoglycosides
nephrotoxicity (usually reversible)
neuromuscular blockade (when neuromuscular transmission is already compromised, such as in myasthenia gravis; reversed by IV calcium gluconate)
ototoxicity (both vestibular and auditory, both usually reversible)
risk factors for Aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity
prolonged duration of therapy
increased age
pre-existing renal insufficiency
concurrent use of other nephrotoxins
volume depletion
clinical uses of aminoglycosides
- empiric therapy of complicated gram-negative infections (septicemia, complicated UTI, nosocomial respiratory tract infections, osteomyelitis, complicated intra-abdominal)

- in combination with other abx (usually beta-lactams) for resistant SPACE organisms: Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, Enterobacter

- surgical prophylaxis for GI or GU tract
DOC:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

alternatives?
antipseudomonal penicillin +/- aminoglycoside or quinolone
ceftazidime +/- aminoglycoside or quinolone

quinolone +/- aminoglycoside
imipenem +/- aminoglycoside

(most active agents include AG's, imipenem, meropenem, ceftazidime, cefepime, aztreonam, extended spectrum penicillins)

MONOTHERAPY IS SUFFICIENT FOR MOST PSEUDOMONAS
AECB
Acute Exacerbations of Chronic Bronchitis
Macrolide spectrum
Strep
Staph

E.coli
H.flu
Moraxella
Neisseria
H.pylori

ATYPICALS
Legionella
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
telithromycin
ketolide macrolide

better coverage than other macrolides

less susceptible to resistance mechanisms
the only macrolide available in IV formulation
azithromycin
Erythromycin is now rarely recomoneded above otehr macrolides. Why?
more frequent GI side effects
QT prolongation

(note: QT prolongation still occurs with other macrolides, but not as much)
Macrolides & CYP enzymes
many drug interactions involving CYP 3A enzymes

the only macrolide that doesn't have this problem is azithromycin
fatal interaction involving a macrolide
clarithromycin + colchicine

clarithromycin is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor
strong CYP3A4 inhibitors increase serum levels of colchicine

dose reductions for colchicine are recommended if concurrently administered
clinical use of macrolides
upper respiratory tract infections

treatment & prevention of MAC (mycobacterium avium complex) clarithromycin & azithromycin

chlamydia (azithromycin)

note: erythromycin used mostly ophthalmically now
chloramphenicol MOA
protein synthesis inhibitor
chloramphenicol class
amphenicols
chloramphenicol spectrum
Strep
Staph
Enterococcus

E.coli
H.flu
Moraxella
Neisseria
Proteus
Salmonella
Shigella
Stenotrophomonas

ANAEROBES/B.frag

ATYPICALS:
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Listeria
chloramphenicol adverse effects
N/V/D
hypersensitivity
mental status changes
fever
headache

serious blood dyscrasias
gray syndrome
gray syndrome
a serious side effect associated with chloramphenicol:

myocardial depression
circulatory collapse
cyanosis
acidosis
abdominal distension
coma
death
chloramphenicol drug interactions
inhibits CYP 2C9 & 3A4

caution with substrates
quinupristin/dalfopristin:

class
MOA
brand name
streptogramin

inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

Synercid
quinupristin/dalfopristin:

clinical use
complicated skin & skin structure infections caused by Strep pyogenes, Staph aureus

Sometimes used for MRSA bacteremia when resistant to vanco
quinupristin/dalfopristin:

side effects
COMMON:
hyperbilirubinemia
arthralgia/myalgia

LESS COMMON:
headache
rash
N/V/D
quinupristin/dalfopristin:

spectrum
Strep
Staph
MRSA
Enterococcus

Moraxella

Legionella
peri-operative antibiotic treatment usually begins ________ before surgery, and continues no longer than ________ after surgery
within 1 hour before

24 hours after
antibiotic of choice for surgical prophylaxis
generally 1st or 2nd gen Cephalosporin (cefazolin, cefuroxime)

penicillin-allergic patients: vancomycin

bowel surgeries: cefotetan (because of anaerobic coverage)
empiric therapy:

outpatient skin/soft-tissue infection (cellulitis)
if NON-purulent, treat with beta-lactam (e.g. cephalexin)

otherwise:

clindamycin
OR
Bactrim DS
OR
doxycycline
OR
minocycline
OR
linezolid

Duration of therapy: 5 to 10 days
empiric therapy:

inpatient skin/soft-tissue infection
(MRSA risk compared to outpatient)

vancomycin
OR
linezolid IV or PO
OR
daptomycin
OR
televancin
OR
clindamycin

Duration of therapy: 7 to 14 days
definition: uncomplicated UTI
not associated with structural or neurologic abnormalities that may interfere with the normal flow of urine
definition: complicated UTI
generally results from an obstruction/abnormality or neurologic deficit of the bladder
cystitis
lower urinary tract infection
pyelonephritis
upper urinary tract infection
synonym for upper UTI
pyelonephritis
synonym for lower UTI
cystitis
typical symptoms of lower UTI
dysuria
urgency
frequency
burning
nocturia
suprapubic heaviness
hematuria

fever is UNCOMMON
typical symptoms of upper UTI
flank pain
abdominal pain
fever
N/V
costovertebral angle pain
malaise
acute, uncomplicated cystitis in females:

pathogens?
treatment?
E. coli
S. saprophyticus
Enterococcus

SMX/TMP DS BID (3 days)
OR
Cipro 250 mg BID (3 days)
OR
levofloxacin 250 mg QD (3 days)
OR
nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID (5 days)
OR
fosfomycin x 1 (3g in water)
acute, uncomplicated cystitis:

prophylaxis?
if 3+ episodes in 1 year:

SMX/TMP SS daily
OR
macrodantin 50 mg daily
OR
1 SMX/TMP post-coitus
acute, uncomplicated cystitis in pregnancy
duration: 7 days

if pregnant women are not treated for 7 days, it can lead to premature birth or pyelonephritis

in pregnant women, AVOID QUINOLONES (cartilage toxicity & arthropathies) and AVOID TETRACYCLINES (teratogenic)
SMX/TMP is Category D in the 3rd term, otherwise category C
moxifloxacin dosing in cystitis
DO NOT use moxifloxacin for UTI (does not reach high levels in urine)

also, do not use gemifloxacin (poor to limited activity against normal UTI pathogens)
which 2 drugs should NOT be used in UTIs (that may be mistakenly prescribed because of their drug class)
MOXIFLOXACIN: does not reach high levels in urine

GEMIFLOXACIN: poor to limited activity against normal UTI pathogens
ciprofloxacin vs. moxifloxacin vs. levofloxacin

which of these FQ's should NOT be used in UTI's?
moxifloxacin:

does not reach high levels in urine

(also do not use gemifloxacin; limited activity against normal UTI pathogens)
ciprofloxacin vs. moxifloxacin vs. levofloxacin

which of the FQ's is/are considered "respiratory" fluoroquinolone(s)?
moxifloxacin + levofloxacin

because they are effective against:
Strep pneumo
H. flu
M. catarrhalis
intracellular atypical pathogens

gemifloxacin and gatifloxacin are also considered respiratory FQ's

Cipro is NOT a respiratory FQ because of limited activity against gram+ bugs, such as Strep pneumo
ciprofloxacin vs. moxifloxacin vs. levofloxacin

which of these FQ's has/have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
ciprofloxacin + levofloxacin
acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis pathogens & treatment
E. coli, Enterococcus, P. mirabilis, Klebsiella pneumo, Pseudomonas

FQ for 5 to 7 days
- cipro 500 mg BID
- levo 750 mg daily
- ofloxacin 400 mg BID

IF SEVERELY ILL, OR HOSPITAL-ACQUIRED (10-14 days):
FQ
or
ampicillin + gentamicin
or
piperacillin-tazobactam
or
ceftriaxone
complicated UTI pathogens & treatment
E. coli, Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter, Serratia, Klebsiella, Staph

treat x7 days if there is symptom relief, 10-14 with delayed response

ampicillin + gentamicin
OR
piperacillin-tazobactam
OR
ticarcillin-clavulanic acid
OR
ceftriaxone or cefotaxime (+/- FQ)

IF ESBL's PRESENT:
doripenem or imipenem or meropenem
2 weeks
when would an uncomplicated UTI require longer duration of therapy?
(longer than 3-5 days)

men
pregnancy
elderly
diabetics
children
phenazopyridine class
azo dye & urinary analgesic
phenazopyridine dose & administration
200 mg TID (prescription)
100 mg TID (OTC)

take with food to minimize stomach upset

use no longer than 2 days (b/c symptom masking)

may cause orange/red discoloration of body fluids

avoid in CrCl < 50 mL/min
Signs of acute otitis media in children
rapid onset
middle ear effusion
fever
middle ear inflammation
tugging or rubbing ears
crying
Acute Otitis Media:

observation period
48-72 hrs
used to assess clinical improvement without antibiotics

Children <6 months: NO observation period, always give abx when AOM is suspected, even if diagnosis is uncertain.

Children 6 mos - 2 yrs: use observation period, unless there is certain diagnosis (of BACTERIAL otitis media) or illness is severe

Children 2 years and over: use observation period, unless illness is severe
Acute Otitis Media:

how do you treat pain in children?
acetaminophen
or
ibuprofen

>5 years: can use topical benzocaine (Auralgan, Americaine otic)
Acute Otitis Media:

primary treatment in children
amoxicillin
90 mg/kg/day (divided Q12 or Q8)

the higher dose will cover most Strep pneumoniae
Acute Otitis Media:

When would you not use the standard treatment?
More severe cases, or cases where amoxicillin doesn't work:
Augmentin high dose (90 mg/kg/day of amoxicillin)
or
cefdinir (Omnicef)
cefpodoxime (Vantin)
cefprozil
cefuroxime (Ceftin)

In patients who have had anaphylaxis to penicillins:
azithromycin
clarithromycin (Biaxin)
erythromycin-sulfisoxazole (Eryzole, Pediazole)
sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
clindamycin
Which of the Acute Otitis Media medications can be given for children who cannot tolerate oral medication?
ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
50 mg/kg (max 1000 mg/day)
IV or IM

x3 days
Prevnar
Prevnar 13 is the Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)
now given to all children 2-23 months

primarily for preventing pneumococcal meningitis and pneumonia, but also reduces otitis media

children receive 4 doses at ages:
2 months
4 months
6 months
12 - 15 months
(Pneumovax is the adult vaccine)
When is Pneumovax recommended for children?
Prevnar 13 is the children's pneumococcal vaccine, given to all children ages 2-23 months.

Pneumovax is only given to children >24 months who are at increased risk for pneumococcal vaccine due to factors such as:
sickle cell hemoglobinopathies
HIV
immunocompromising conditions
Infective Endocarditis is determined by __________?

Infective Endocarditis treatment is based on _________?
the Modified Duke Criteria

AHA Guidelines
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to Viridans strep?
Pen G (12-18 MU IV, divided Q4H)
+
gentamicin 1 mg/kg (IV Q8H)
(both x2 weeks)

OR

Pen G 12-18 MU (IV, divided Q4H)
(x 4 weeks)

OR

ceftriaxone 2 g IV (daily)
(x 4 weeks)
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to Streptococcus bovis?
SAME AS Viridans strep TREATMENT!

Pen G (12-18 MU IV, divided Q4H)
+
gentamicin 1 mg/kg (IV Q8H)
(both x2 weeks)

OR

Pen G 12-18 MU (IV, divided Q4H)
(x 4 weeks)

OR

ceftriaxone 2 g IV (daily)
(x 4 weeks)
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to sensitive Enterococci
(sensitive to PCN, gentamicin, vancomycin)

Pen G 18-30 MU IV (divided Q4H)
(x 4-6 weeks)

OR

ampicillin 12 g/day IV (divided Q4H)
+
gentamicin 1 mg/kg IV (Q8H)
(both x 4-6 weeks)
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to Enterococci that is resistant to gentamicin
PenG 24 MU IV (divided Q4H)
(x 4-6 weeks)

OR

ampicillin 12 g/day IV (divided Q4h)
+
streptomycin 7.5 mg/kg IV or IM Q12H
(both x 4-6 weeks)
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to Enterococci that is resistant to PenG/ampicillin
vancomycin 15 mg/kg Q12H
+
gentamicin 1 mg/kg IV Q8H
(both x 6 weeks)
PRIMARY DRUG REGIMEN FOR:

Infective Endocarditis due to Enterococcus faecium species that is resistant to penicillin, vancomycin, gentamicin
linezolid 600mg PO/IV Q12H
(x 8 or more weeks)

OR

quinupristin/dalfopristin 22.5 mg/kg/day (div. Q8)
(x 8 or more weeks)
When using gentamicin for synergy in the treatment of Infective Endocarditis, what are the goal peak and trough levels?
gentamicin peak levels:
do not need to exceed 4 mcg/mL (~3 mcg/mL is sufficient)

gentamicin trough levels:
< 1 mcg/mL
Do not use _______________ dosing for aminoglycosides when treating Infective Endocarditis.
extended-interval dosing
Do not use extended-interval dosing for aminoglycosides when treating _______________.
Infective Endocarditis
Do not use extended-interval dosing for _________________ when treating Infective Endocarditis.
aminoglycosides
Why/when is prophylaxis for dental procedures recommended?
When the following cardiac conditions are present (which are associated with highest risk of Infective Endocarditis):
- prosthetic cardiac valves
- previous endocarditis
- congenital heart disease
- palliative shunts and conduits
- any other prosthetic device in the heart
- cardiac transplant pt's who develop valvulopathy
- mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/or thickened valve leaflets
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- acquired valvular dysfunction

Non-cardiac reasons:
- total joint replacement in the last 2 years
oral prophylaxis in dental procedures?
(for prevention of endocarditis or total joint replacement in last 2 years)

amoxicillin 2 g (adults)
amoxicillin 50 mg/kg (children)
prophylaxis for dental procedures in patients unable to take oral medication?
(for prevention of endocarditis or total joint replacement in last 2 years)

ADULTS:
ampicillin 2 g IV/IM
OR
cefazolin or ceftriaxone 1 g IV/IM

CHILDREN:
ampicillin 50 mg/kg IV/IM
OR
cefazolin or ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IV/IM
prophylaxis for dental procedures in patients allergic to penicillins?
(for prevention of endocarditis or total joint replacement in last 2 years)

ADULTS:
cephalexin or cefadroxil 2g
OR
clindamycin 600 mg
OR
azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg

CHILDREN:
cephalexin or cefadroxil 50 mg/kg
OR
clindamycin 20 mg/kg
OR
azithromycin or clarithromycin 15 mg/kg

(NOTE: cephalosporins should not be used in pt's allergic to penicillins whose allergy was anaphylaxis, angioedema or urticaria)
prophylaxis for dental procedures in patients allergic to penicillins AND unable to take oral medications?
(for prevention of endocarditis or total joint replacement in last 2 years)

ADULTS:
cefazolin 1g IM/IV
OR
ceftriaxone 1g IM/IV
OR
clindamycin 600 mg IM/IV

CHILDREN:
cefazolin 50 mg/kg IM/IV
OR
ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IM/IV
OR
clindamycin 20 mg/kg IM/IV
classic triad of meningitis?

other sx of meningitis?
fever
nuchal rigidity
altered mental status

OTHER SX:
chills
vomiting
photophobia
severe headache
lumbar puncture in meningitis
mandatory for all suspected bacterial meningitis, helps differentiate between bacterial & viral; cultures & sensitivities
T or F:
A gram stain for meningitis is usually rapid and sensitive.
True.

A gram stain for bacterial meningitis (from lumbar puncture) is a rapid and sensitive method of diagnosis for bacterial meningitis; decreased sensitivity in patients with recent antibiotic therapy.
general rule of thumb for antibiotic dosing for bacterial meningitis
maximize dosing (for optimal penetration of the CNS)
most likely organisms for bacterial meningitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenza
Listeria monocytogenes
EMPIRIC THERAPY:

acute bacterial meningitis
CEFOTAXIME 2 g IV (Q4-6)

CEFTRIAXONE 2 g IV (Q12)

MEROPENEM 2 g IV (Q8) - an alternative to the 3rd generation cephalosporins

+ dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg IV Q6H x 2-4 days)

+ vancomycin 30-45 mg/kg/day (divided doses)
(high dose is needed to penetrate CSF)

(give dexamethasone 15-20 minutes prior to, or concomitantly with 1st dose of abx)

Add AMPICILLIN 2g IV (Q4) if:
- age < 1 month, or
- >50 years, or
- impaired immunity, or
- suspected Listeria
EMPIRIC THERAPY:

acute bacterial meningitis
with severe PCN allergy
CHLORAMPHENICOL 4,000 - 6,000 mg per day (in 4 doses)
+
VANCOMYCIN 30-45 mg/kg/day (divided doses)
+/-
SMX/TMP 5 mg/kg IV Q6

chloramphenicol + vancomycin will provide adequate coverage for Neisseria and Strep pneumo. SMX/TMP can be added for suspected Listeria
Rickettsia species are carried by ___________.
ticks, fleas, lice
TREATMENT:

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
(a Rickettsial disease)

doxycycline 100mg BID PO/IV
x 7 days
TREATMENT:

Lyme disease
(a Rickettsial disease)

doxycycline 100mg BID PO
or
amoxicillin 500mg TID PO (x 14-21 days)
TREATMENT:

typhus
(a Rickettsial disease)

doxycycline 100mg BID PO/IV
x 7 days
TREATMENT:

ehrlichiosis
(a Rickettsial disease)

doxycycline 100mg BID PO/IV
x 7-14 days
TREATMENT:

tularemia
(a Rickettsial disease)

gentamicin
or
tobramycin

(5 mg/kg/day div. Q8 IV
x 7-14 days)
Systemic fungal infections usually don't occur unless __________________.
the immune system is weakened

(however, Candidemia is the 4th most common nosocomial bloodstream infection in the U.S. with mortality rates up to 30%)
Aspergillus
fungal spp.
Candida
fungal spp.
Crytococcosis
fungal spp.
Coccidiodomycosis
fungal spp.
Histoplasmosis spp.
fungal spp.
Candida infections can generally be treated with ____________.
fluconazole
fluconazole-resistant Candida spp?
some, such as Candida krusei, cannot be treated with fluconazole

other spp, such as C. glabrata, require higher doses of fluconazole to be effective (although resistant strains of this species also exist)
amphotericin B
MOA
amphotericin B binds to ergosterol altering cell membrane permeability in susceptible fungi and causing cell death
Amphocin
amphotericin B desoxycholate (conventional amphotericin)

the most nephrotoxic amphotericin formulation

Infusion-related reaction comparison:
Amphotec > Amphocin > Abelcet > AmBisome

pre-medication for infusion reactions (given 30-60 minutes prior to infusion):
- APAP or NSAID
- diphenhydramine IV and/or hydrocortisone IV
- meperidine IV for reducing the duration of rigors
- saline boluses to reduce the nephrotoxicity
Abelcet
amphotericin B lipid complex

infusion-related reactions:
Amphotec > Amphocin > Abelcet > AmBisome

pre-medication for infusion reactions (given 30-60 minutes prior to infusion):
- APAP or NSAID
- diphenhydramine IV and/or hydrocortisone IV
- meperidine IV for reducing the duration of rigors
- saline boluses to reduce the nephrotoxicity
AmBisome
liposomal amphotericin B
(a lipid formulation of amphotericin B)

the most expensive formulation of amphotericin B

can cause back/chest pain with 1st dose

infusion-related reactions:
Amphotec > Amphocin > Abelcet > AmBisome

pre-medication for infusion reactions (given 30-60 minutes prior to infusion):
- APAP or NSAID
- diphenhydramine IV and/or hydrocortisone IV
- meperidine IV for reducing the duration of rigors
- saline boluses to reduce the nephrotoxicity
Amphotec
amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate complex
(a lipid formulation of amph B)

the worst for infsion-related reactions

infusion-related reactions:
Amphotec > Amphocin > Abelcet > AmBisome

pre-medication for infusion reactions (given 30-60 minutes prior to infusion):
- APAP or NSAID
- diphenhydramine IV and/or hydrocortisone IV
- meperidine IV for reducing the duration of rigors
- saline boluses to reduce the nephrotoxicity
T or F:
amphotericin B is compatible with D5W
true

amphotericin B formulations are compatible with D5W
the most nephrotoxic formulation of amphotericin B
Amphocin
(amphotericin B desoxycholate)
the most expensive formulation of amphotericin B
AmBisome
(liposomal amphotericin B)
which formulation of amphotericin B can cause back/chest pain with the 1st dose?
AmBisome
(liposomal amphotericin B)
the formulation of amphotericin B most likely to cause infusion related reactions
Amphotec
(amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate complex)
adverse effects of amphotericin B
hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia
nephrotoxicity, hypotension
fever, headache, malaise, rigors, N/V
tachypnea, normocytic anemia, normochromic anemia, others

infusion-related reactions (Amphotec is the worst): fever, chills, hypotension, nausea, etc.)
infusion reactions from amphotericin B
Amphotec > Amphocin > Abelcet > AmBisome

fever, chills, hypotension, nausea

PRE-MEDICATION:
APAP or NSAIDs
diphenhydramine 25mg IV and/or hydrocortisone 50-100 mg IV
meperidine 25-50 mg IV for reducing duration of rigors
saline boluses 500-1000 mL to reduce nephrotoxicity
risk of nephrotoxicity with amphotericin B will be increased when?
when used with other nephrotoxic agents such as cyclosporine, aminoglycosides, flucytosine, cisplatin and others

nephrotoxic effects are additive

may enhance digoxin toxicity due to hypokalemia
amphotericin B & electrolytes
amph B may enhance digoxin toxicity due to hypokalemia

use caution with any agent that decreases potassium and magnesium, since amphotericin decreases both of these
Ancobon MOA
Ancobon = flucytosine (5-FC is another synonym)

antifungal

penetrates fungal cells and is converted to fluorouracil which competes with uracil, interfering with fungal RNA and protein synthesis
5-FC
flucytosine

(antifungal)
Ancobon
flucytosine

(antifungal)
Ancobon monotherapy
(flucytosine)

avoid monotherapy due to rapid resistance development in most fungal strains

increased effects (including adverse effects) when combined with Amphotericin B; may be used for synergy with Amph B for certain fungal infections (Cryptococcus)
Ancoban adverse effects
(flucytosine)

dose-related bone marrow suppression, many CNS effects, pancytopenia, aplastic anemia
hepatitis, increased bilirubin, increased SCr, increased BUN
hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

adverse effects may be worsened when combined with Amphotericin B
Sporanox
- generic
- class
- dosing/administration
itraconazole (azole antifungal)

PO

200 - 400 mg QD-BID

due to differences in bioavailability, oral capsules and oral solution CANNOT be used interchangeably

capsule form has low bioavailability on an empty stomach, take with food and requires gastric acidity for absorption

oral solution is more bioavailable than caps, take on an empty stomach
azole antifungals:
MOA
decrease ergosterol synthesis and inhibit cell membrane formation
azole antifungals:
adverse effects
N/V/D
rash
hypertriglyceridemia, hypokalemia, HTN, edema
increased LFTs
azole antifungals:

Warnings & Contraindications
ITRACONAZOLE (Sporanox) BBW:
heart failure or hx of heart failure: capsules should not be administered for the treatment of onychomycosis in patients with HF
concurrent administration with:
- cisapride
- dofetilide
- pimozide
- quinidine

KETOCONAZOLE (Xolegel, Kuric, Nizoral) BBW:
concurrent admin with cisapride (fatal ventricular arrhythmias)
has been associated with hepatotoxicity

FLUCONAZOLE (Diflucan) BBW:
concomitant use with cisapride
Diflucan dosing
(fluconazole, azole antifungal)

100 - 400 mg QD

PO/IV

PO:IV conversion - 1:1
VFEND
- dosing
- admin
(voriconazole, azole antifungal)

PO: 100 - 300 mg Q12
IV: 6 mg/kg Q12 x doses, then 4 mg/kg Q12

take 1 hour before or 1 hour after meals (empty stomach)
VFEND adverse effects
(voriconazole, azole antifungal)

visual changes (~20!) - dose-related, include blurred vision, photophobia, altered color perception, altered visual acuity, photosensitivity
increased SCr
hallucinations
correct Mg, Ca & K before initiating therapy
VFEND contraindications
(voriconazole, azole antifungal)

CI with many 3A4 substrates (rifampin, rifabutin, ergot alkaloids, long-acting barbiturates, carbamazepine, pimozide, quinidine, cisapride, efavirenz, St. John's wort)
VFEND monitoring
(voriconazole, azole antifungal)

LFT's, electrolytes, visual function

Caution driving at night! Avoid direct sunlight
which azole antifungal is generally considered more active against a variety of fungal infections?
voriconazole (VFEND)

more active against:
- Aspergillus
- C. glabrata
- C. krusei
- Fusarium spp.

...compared to itraconazole & fluconazole
Noxafil
- dosing
- admin
(posaconazole, azole antifungal)

40 mg/mL suspension in a 4 oz bottle
shake well before use

MUST BE TAKEN WITH A FULL MEAL
Noxafil adverse effects
(posaconazole, azole antifungal)

N/V/D, headache, rash
increased LFTs
hypokalemia
QT prolongation

correct K, Ca, Mg before initiating therapy
Noxafil contraindications
(posaconazole, azole antifungal)

concurrent administration with ergot alkaloids, pimozide, cisapride, quinidine or sirolimus
Noxafil monitoring
(posaconazole, azole antifungal)

LFTs, renal fxn
electrolytes (correct Ca, Mg, K before starting)
visual fxn (though not as bad as voriconazole)
azole antifungals:
drug interactions
ALL are 3A4 INHIBITORS:
- itraconazole is a MAJOR inhibitor of 3A4
- ketoconazole is also a strong inhibitor of 1A2, 2C9, 3A4; and a moderate inhibitor of 2C19 and 2D6
- fluconazole is a moderate inhibitor of 3A4, and a strong inhibitor of 2C9 & 2C19
- voriconazole is a strong inhibitor of 3A4 and a moderate inhibitor of 2C9
- posaconazole is a strong inhibitor of 3A4

itraconazole & ketoconazole have pH-dependent absorption: more basic pH decreases absorption, avoid use with antacids, H2 blockers & PPIs

voriconazole concentrations can increase dangerously when given with CYP inhibiting drugs, and with small dose increases (1st order kinetics)
concurrent use of voriconazole is CI with:
alfuzosin, barbiturates, carbamazepine, cisapride, darunavir, dofetilide, ergot derivatives, lopinavir, nilotinib, pimozide, quinidine, ranolazine, rifampin, rifabutin, ritonavir, St. John's wort, thioridazine & others
VFEND drug interactions
voriconazole concentrations can increase dangerously when given with CYP inhibiting drugs, and with small dose increases (1st order kinetics)
concurrent use of voriconazole is CI with:
alfuzosin, barbiturates, carbamazepine, cisapride, darunavir, dofetilide, ergot derivatives, lopinavir, nilotinib, pimozide, quinidine, ranolazine, rifampin, rifabutin, ritonavir, St. John's wort, thioridazine & others
drug of choice for Aspergillus infections
voriconazole (VFEND)

Aspergillus (invasive pulmonary disease):
voriconazole 6 mg/kg IV Q12 on day 1, then 4 mg/kg IV Q12 or 200 mg PO Q12

VFEND is also notable for drug interactions & visual changes

alternative therapies:
- liposomal Amphotericin B (AmBisome)
- Amphotericin B lipid complex (Abelcet)
- caspofungin (Cancidas)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
- posaconazole (Noxafil)
- itraconazole (Sporanox)
echinocandins
MOA
(antifungal class)

inhibit synthesis of Beta(1,3)-D-glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall
Cancidas
- dosing
- admin
caspofungin (echinocandin antifungal)

LD: 70 mg IV day 1, then 50 mg daily

do not mix with dextrose-containing solutions

increase dose to 70 mg IV daily when used in combination with rifampin or other strong enzyme inducers
Cancidas monitoring
(caspofungin, echinocandin antifungal)

LFTs
Cancidas adverse effects
(caspofungin, echinocandin antifungal)

increased LFT's, peripheral edema, decreased hemoglobin & hematocrit
N/V, headache, rash, fever
hypokalemia, tachycardia
increased SCr

rare: anaphylaxis

caution use with cyclosporine due to hepatotoxicity
caution in hepatic impairment
Mycamine
- dosing
- admininstration
micafungin, echinocandin antifungal

CANDIDEMIA DOSING:
100 mg IV daily

ESOPHAGEAL CANDIDIASIS DOSING:
150 mg IV daily, over 60 minutes
Mycamine adverse effects
micafungin, echinocandin antifungal

increased LFTs, bone marrow suppression
fever, headache, N/V/D
hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia

rare: anaphylaxis
Mycamine monitoring
micafungin, echinocandin antifungal

LFTs
minor 3A4 interactions
Eraxis dosing
anidulafungin, echinocandin antifungal

ESOPHAGEAL CANDIDIASIS DOSING:
100 mg IV day 1, then 50 mg daily

CANDIDEMIA:
200 mg IV day 1, then 100 mg IV daily
Eraxis adverse effects
anidulfungin (echinocandin antifungal)

increased LFTs
diarrhea
hypokalemia

rare: anaphylaxis
Eraxis monitoring
anidulafungin, echinocandin antifungal

LFTs
T or F:
echinocandin antifungals are usually dosed Q12
False

echinocandin antifungals:
- caspofungin (Cancidas)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
- anidulafungin (Eraxis)

all 3 agents are usually dosed once daily
echinocandin drug interactions
echinocandin antifungals:
- caspofungin (Cancidas)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
- anidulafungin (Eraxis)

all 3 agents have very little drug interactions, although caspofungin dosing may need to be increased when used in combination with rifampin or other strong enzyme inducers
T or F:
echinocandin antifungals do not require adjustment in renal impairment
True

echinocandin antifungals:
- caspofungin (Cancidas)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
- anidulafungin (Eraxis)
TREATMENT:

Candida albicans
(bloodstream infection)

fluconazole (Diflucan)
OR
caspofungin (Cancidas)
OR
micafungin (Mycamine)
OR
anidulafungin (Eraxis)

treatment duration: 2 weeks AFTER the last positive blood culture
TREATMENT:

oral candidiasis
(thrush)

NON-AIDS PATIENTS:
clotrimazole troches 10mg 5x/day
OR
nystatin suspension or 1-2 pastilles 4x/day
OR
fluconazole 100-200 mg daily PO

AIDS PATIENTS:
fluconazole 100-200 mg daily PO
OR
itraconazole oral solution 200 mg PO daily
OR
posaconazole 100 mg BID x1, then 100 mg daily
OR
echinocandins
OR
amphotericin B 0.3 mg/kg IV daily

(treatment duration: 7-14 days)
TREATMENT:

esophageal candidiasis
fluconazole 200-400 mg/day IV/PO
OR
itraconazole oral solution 200 mg PO daily
OR
voriconazole 200 mg Q12 IV/PO
OR
posaconazole 400 mg BID x3days, then 400 mg daily PO (refractory cases)
OR
caspofungin 50 mg daily IV
OR
micafungin 150 mg IV daily
OR
anidulafungin 100 mg IV day 1, then 50 mg daily
OR
amphotericin B 0.3-0.7 mg/kg daily

(treatment duration: 14-21 days)
dermatophytoses
superficial mycotic (fungal) infections of the skin
Superficial mycotic infections of the skin are called ___________.
dermatophytoses (mycotic = fungal)
risk factors for fungal skin infection
prolonged exposure to sweaty clothes
infrequent bathing
many skin folds
sedentary lifestyle
confinement to bed
diagnosis of dermatophytoses
(i.e. fungal skin infections)

history & physical
direct microscopic exam of a specimen after the addition of potassium hydroxide
treatment of dermatophytoses
(i.e. fungal skin infections)

topical agents are 1st line
oral therapy when the infection is extensive or severe or when treating tinea capitis (scalp/hair follicle infection) or onychomycosis

keep infected area clean & dry & limit exposure to infected reservoir
% of women who have at least one vaginal candida infection

% of women who will have recurrent vaginal candida infections
75%

<5%
vaginal "yeast infection":
- causative agent
- predisposing factors
usually caused by Candida albicans

predisposing factors are broad-spectrum antibiotic use, oral contraceptives (particularly with high estrogen), poorly controlled diabetes, pregnancy, chronic use of steroids, obesity
vaginal candidiasis:
signs & symptoms
intense pruritis
thick, curd-like (white) vaginal discharge
soreness
vulvar pain, swelling and irritiation

(itching is universal, discharge may or may not be present)
T or F:
Itching and vaginal discharge are present in most cases of vaginal candidiasis, but not all.
False.

itching is universal
discharge may or may not be present
diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis
confirmed by a wet preparation of vaginal secretions using a 10% potassium hydroxide solution showing budding yeast and pseudohyphae
TREATMENT:

vaginal candidiasis
topical azoles are typicially used
- usually do not have systemic side effects
- may have local side effects such as burning or irritation
- all equally effective (except nystatin, less effective, technically a polyene antifungal not azole) and have >80% curative rate
- only topical azole therapies, applied for 7 days, are recommended in pregnancy
- 7 days also recommended in severe infection
- 7-14 days recommended in recurrent infection (>4 episodes per year)

not usually required to treat partner because it's not usually acquired through sexual contact, but do treat partner if infections are recurrent

in patients with diabetes or HIV, pt should see their doc because it may be a sign of uncontrolled disease

do not recommend self-treatment unless a first infection has been diagnosed by the PCP
which topical agents are generally used to treat vaginal candidiasis?
butoconazole (Femstat-3, Gynazole-1)
clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin-7, Mycelex-7)
miconazole (Monistat-3, Monistat-7, Monistat-1)
nystatin (Mycostatin)
terconazole (Terazol, Zazole)
tioconazole (Vagistat-1)
fluconazole (Diflucan - only oral)
Femstat-3
butaconazole 2% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 3 days
Gynazole-1
butaconazole 2% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 1 day
Gyne-Lotrimin-7
clotrimazole 1% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 7 days
Mycelex-7
clotrimazole 1% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 7 days
clotrimazole 100 mg vaginal tabs
FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
daily for 7 days
OR
two tabs daily for 3 days
clotrimazole 500 mg vaginal tabs
FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
one tab once
Monistat-7
miconazole 2% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 7 days
Monistat-3
miconazole 200 mg vaginal suppository

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
1 suppository daily x 3 days
Monistat-7
miconazole 100 mg vaginal suppository

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
1 suppository daily for 7 days
Monistat-1
miconazole 1200 mg vaginal suppository

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
1 suppository once
Mycostatin
nystatin 100,000 unit vaginal tab

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
1 tab intravaginally daily x 14 days
Vagistat-1
tioconazole 6.5% vaginal ointment

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 1
Terazol
terconazole 0.4% OR 0.8% vaginal cream

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 7 days (0.4%)
x 3 days (0.8%)
Zazole
terconazole 80 mg vaginal suppository

FOR VAGINAL CANDIDIASIS:
x 3 days
Diflucan for Vaginal Candidiasis
fluconazole oral tab

150 mg PO x 1
patient counseling for vaginal azole antifungal treatment of vaginal candidiasis
insert applicator, suppository or tab at night before bed; complete entire course of treatment

creams/ointments/suppositories are oil-based medications that can weaken latex condoms & diaphragms; avoid sexual intercourse

use protective pad if desired

if you get your menstrual cycle during treatment, continue treatment

medical care is warranted if sx persist/recur within 2 months after using an OTC product
antibiotic suspensions & refrigeration
all need shaking

most should be refrigerated,
but NOT:
- azithromycin
- clarithromycin
- clindamycin
- voriconazole (antifungal)
antibiotics & C. diff
clindamycin is the worst

however, should instruct patients to report C. diff sx with any abx, including watery diarrhea several times a day, possibly with mild abdominal cramping

these symptoms can occur during treatment or weeks after treatment is completed; instruct pt not to treat these sx with anti-diarrheal medication

yogurt & probiotics may help prevent C. diff, but instruct pt's to take separately from abx (by a few hours)
COUNSELING:

Zovirax
acyclovir (antiviral)

works best when taken at the first sign of outbreak, within the first day

most common side effect is nausea (3%)
headache can also occur

with or without food, usually 2-5 times daily as directed, intervals should be evenly spaced

drink plenty of fluids while taking Zovirax

for the cream: side effects include dry/cracked lips, burning, stinging, flaky skin; report to doctor or pharmacist if they persist or worsen
COUNSELING:

amoxicillin products
with meal or snack, usually every 8-12 hours

see doc right away if you develop a rash

suspensions should be refrigerated (especially Augmentin)
COUNSELING:

Zithromax
azithromycin

nausea or abdominal discomfort is the most common side effect

extended-release suspension should be taken on an empty stomach (1 hour before or 2 hours after food)

tablets & immediate release suspensions can be taken with or without food

DO NOT refrigerate suspensions
COUNSELING:

Biaxin
clarithromycin

common adverse effects: diarrhea, nausea, abnormal or metallic taste

Biaxin XL tablets should be taken with food

tablets & oral suspension can be with or without food, and can be taken with milk

DO NOT refrigerate suspension
COUNSELING:

Cipro
ciprofloxacin

common adverse effects: nausea, diarrhea, rash, dizziness. Rarely, seizures (fluoroquinolones should be avoided in pt's with seizure history)

can make skin sensitive to sun, burn more easily; avoid sun & use sunscreen

rare cases of tendon swelling/rupture; if you notic pain, swelling or inflammation in Achilles, shoulder, hand or other sites, stop med & see doc right away; uncommon but occurs more frequently in pt's >60, or those who have had transplants and use steroid meds

NOT a 1st choice med for pt's under 18 because of bone & joint problems; however, sometimes used on a short-term basis

Do not use if you take tizanidine (Zanaflex)
COUNSELING:

Levaquin
levofloxacin

same as for Cipro

tabs can be taken with or without food; suspension is on an empty stomach

maintain adequate hydration to avoid crystalluria

INR may increase if on warfarin

may lower blood sugar if you use hypoglycemic meds

lower dose for kidney disease

2 hours before or 4-6 hours after antacids, vitamins, Mg, Ca or Zn supplements, dairy products, bismuth subsalicylate or sucralfate or didanosine (Videx)
COUNSELING:

Doryx
doxycycline

common adverse effects: N/V/D, headache

skin can get sensitive to sun, burn more easily

drink plenty of fluids

take 2 hours before, or 4-6 hours after taking antacids, vitamins, Mg, Ca, iron, Zn, dairy products, bismuth subsalicylate, sucralfate, didanosine (Videx)

tell your doc immediately if you get severe stomach pain, yellowing of eyes/skin, vision changes, mental/mood changes
COUNSELING:

erythromycin
typical dosing is 400 mg Q6

chew tab thoroughly before swallowing, take with or without food

nausea is very common, especially when taken on an empty stomach; take with food or milk

cramping & diarrhea may also occur
COUNSELING:

Pediazole
erythromycin + sulfisoxazole suspension

same counseling as for erythromycin
also: refrigerate solution
COUNSELING:

Diflucan
fluconazole

headache, nausea, abdominal pain

if taking more than 1 dose, counsel on possible hepatotoxicity or serious skin rash issues

contact your doc right away if you have dark urine, pale stools, feel more tired than usual, or signs of jaundice; these may indicate liver damage

should be seen right away for rash

kidney dz requires lower dose

FOR KETOCONAZOLE or ITRACONAZOLE:
same as above, do not use with antacids (2 hour separation), stop PPIs or H2-blockers because these meds will decrease the absorption of the antifungal
COUNSELING:

Cleocin
clindamycin

common adverse effects: diarrhea (>10%), nausea, abdominal pain, abnormal taste

C. diff possible, even if you have finished the med; do not self-treat with anti-diarrheal meds, see doc right away

take with or without food, 3-4 times daily

take with full glass of water

DO NOT refrigerate liquid suspension
COUNSELING:

Flagyl
metronidazole

generally 250-500 mg TID-QID

common adverse effects: nausea (12%), occasional headache, loss of appetite

do not drink alcohol with this, and for at least 1-2 days after! (disulfiram-like reaction)

take with food or water or milk to help prevent stomach upset
COUNSELING:

Tamiflu
oseltamivir

start within 2 days of sx onset
adult treatment: 75 mg BID x 5 days
prophylaxis: 75 mg daily x 10 days
children (1-12): 30-75 mg BID x 5 days for treatment based on weight, prophylaxis is QD x 10 days

common adverse effects: N/V; take with or without food, stomach upset may be less if you take with food/snack/milk

let doc know if you have had the NASAL flu vaccine within the last 2 weeks

may occasionally cause severe rash, contact doc in case of rash

people with flu may be at increased risk of confusion/self-injury shortly after taking this med & should be closely monitored; contact doc immediately in cases of abnormal behavior
COUNSELING:

Macrodantin
nitrofurantoin macrocrystals

take with food; do not use Mg antacids while taking this med

take at evenly spaced intervals

nausea, headache may occur

may turn urine dark yellow or brown; usually a harmless, temporary effect; however, dark urine may also indicate rare liver problems or anemia, see doc if dark urine is accompanied by persistent N/V, stomach pain, yellow eyes/skin, tiredness, fast/pounding heartbeat

tell doc if you get eye pain, vision changes, mental/mood changes, severe or persistent headaches, new signs of infection, bruising/bleeding

may rarely cause fatal lung problems; see doc if you get persistent cough, chest pain, SOB, joint/muscle pain, blue/purple skin

may cause C. diff
COUNSELING:

Macrobid
nitrofurantoin monohydrate macrocrystals

take with food; do not use Mg antacids while taking this med

take at evenly spaced intervals

nausea, headache may occur

may turn urine dark yellow or brown; usually a harmless, temporary effect; however, dark urine may also indicate rare liver problems or anemia, see doc if dark urine is accompanied by persistent N/V, stomach pain, yellow eyes/skin, tiredness, fast/pounding heartbeat

tell doc if you get eye pain, vision changes, mental/mood changes, severe or persistent headaches, new signs of infection, bruising/bleeding

may rarely cause fatal lung problems; see doc if you get persistent cough, chest pain, SOB, joint/muscle pain, blue/purple skin

may cause C. diff
COUNSELING:

Bactrim
sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (a.k.a Septra)

nausea, rash

take with full glass of water to prevent crystalluria

take with food or milk

DO NOT refrigerate suspension; shake prior to use

skin sun-sensitivity, burn more easily

see doc if you get a rash
COUNSELING:

Lamisil
terbinafine

with or without food

may take several months after finishing the course to see full effects, takes time for healthy nails to grow

diarrhea, stomach upset, temporary change/loss of taste

tell doc immediately if you get new signs of infection (fever, chills, etc.) or vision changes

rarely causes serious (possibly fatal) liver disease; tell doc immediately if you get persistent nausea, loss of appetite, severe stomach pain, dark urine, yellow eyes/skin, pale stools
COUNSELING:

Valtrex
valacyclovir

if used daily with safer sex practices, can lower the chances of passing herpes to your partner
- do not have sexual contact w/ partner during outreak
- use condom

does not cure herpes infections

with or without food

start as soon as possible after sx start

headache, N/V, dizziness (all usually mild)

store suspension in refrigerator up to 28 days; store tabs at room temp

kidney failure & nervous system problems are rare; tell doc if you get aggressive behavior, unsteady mvmt, shakiness, confusion, speech problems, hallucinations, seizures, coma; dose adjust in kidney impairment
COUNSELING:

VFEND
voriconazole

eyesight changes, rash, N/V/D, headache, chills, fever
avoid driving at night; avoid driving at all if you have vision changes

avoid sunlight, may burn more easily

tablets contain lactose

take on empty stomach (at least 1 hour before or 1 hour after meals)

do not use if you are pregnant, breastfeeding, or may become pregnant

call doc right away if you have dark urine, feel more tired than usual, skin/eyes yellow, or if you have rash or difficulty breathing
Most appropriate therapy for CAP:

a. Zithromax 500 mg PO x 1, then 250 mg PO QD days 2-5
b. Avelox 400 mg IV QD x 5-7 days
c. Levaquin 500 mg PO x 1, then 250 mg PO QD x 5-7 days
d. Ceftin 500 mg PO Q12 x 5-7 days
e. Bactrim 1 DS tab PO Q12 x 5-7 days
A

Levaquin (levofloxacin) or Avelox (moxifloxacin), both respiratory fluoroquinolones, would be more appropriate if the patient was at risk for drug-resistant S. pneumo (>65 y.o., immunosuppressed, comorbidities such as HF, DM, renal/liver dys, or use of abx within the past 3 months)

Ceftin (cefuroxime) would be more appropriate in patients at risk for drug-resistant S. pneumo as described above, and would be used IN COMBINATION with a macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin)

B, C or D (in combination) would also be preferred options in inpatients
In a pt who is admitted to the hospital with CAP, which of the following is the best treatment option?

a. Cipro 500 mg PO QD
b. Rocephin 1 g IV daily
c. Rocephin 1 g IV daily + Zithromax 500 mg IV daily
d. vancomycin 1 g IV Q12 + imipenem 500 mg Q6
e. gemifloxacin 320 mg PO daily + clarithromycin 500 mg PO Q12
C: ceftriaxone + azithromycin

Inpatient treatments would be:
- respiratory FQ (includes gemifloxacin, but NOT ciprofloxacin) alone
OR
- beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ampicillin-sulbactam) PLUS macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin or erythromycin)

option A is not a respiratory FQ and would not be used for CAP
option B is not combined with a macrolide
option D is overkill
option E is overkill (because the respiratory FQ gemifloxacin could be used alone)
A pt is admitted to the hospital with CAP, and while in the hospital she develops a Pseudomonal infection in her lungs as well. Which of the following abx would be an appropriate choice of coverage for Pseudomonas?

a. ampicillin
b. Cubicin
c. Invanz
d. Doribax
e. Tygacil
D

Doribax (doripenem) covers pseudomonas

remember that Invanz (ertapenem) is the only carbapenem that does NOT cover Pseudomonas
Which of the following is true regarding linezolid?

a. it is in a new class called cyclic lipopeptides
b. it is a weak MAO inhibitor and should be avoided with serotonergic agents
c. it is a combination product containing quinupristin and dalfopristin
d. it needs to be dose adjusted in patients with renal impairment
e. it is not effective for treating infections in the lungs
B: it is a weak MAO inhibitor and should be avoided with serotonergic agents

it is in a new class called oxazolidinone abx

it does NOT need to be dose adjusted in renal impairment

it IS effective in the lungs
Which of the following is correct regarding anidulafungin?

a. this medication should be taken with meals for best absorption
b. this medication can cause an increase in liver transaminases
c. this medication is not effective for the treatment of candidemia
d. this medication needs to be dose adjusted in renal impairment
e. the brand name is Epistaxis
B: anidulafungin (Eraxis) can cause an increase in liver transaminases

it can be taken with or without food

it IS effective against candidemia

is DOES NOT need to be dose adjusted in renal impairment
Which of the following is the best treatment option for a sulfa-allergic female patient with a UTI caused by E. coli, which is shown to be sensitive to everything when cultured?

a. Bactrim SS 1 tab PO BID x 3 days
b. Bactrim DS 1 tab PO BID x 3 days
c. nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO BID x 3 days
d. nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO BID x 5 days
e. phenazopyridine 200 mg TID x 2 days
D

nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO BID x 5 days
which of the following statements regarding the IV formulation of Bactrim is/are correct?

a. Bactrim IV should be protected from light
b. Bactrim IV should be refrigerated
c. Bactrim IV is compatible with NS
d. A and B
e. A and C
A: Bactrim IV should be protected from light

(Bactrim IV should be stored at room temp)
(Bactrim IV should be diluted with D5W)
What is the best treatment for a patient with a gonorrheal STD infection?

a. Levaquin 750 mg PO x 1
b. Doryx 100 mg PO BID x 7 days
c. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x 1
d. Flagyl 2 g PO x 1
e. Rocephin 250 mg IM x1 PLUS azithromycin 1 g PO x 1
E:

ceftriaxone 250 mg IM
+
azithromycin 1 g PO x 1
which of the following is true regarding Valtrex?

a. Valtrex is a prodrug of acyclovir and can be used as suppressive therapy in patients with herpes simplex virus
b. Valtrex is a prodrug of penciclovir and should not be used as a suppressive therapy in patients with herpes simplex virus
c. Valtrex should only be used for herpes zoster virus
d. Valtrex needs to be taken with a fatty meal for best absorption
e. Valtrex is contraindicated in patients with a CrCl < 30 mL/min
A
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding INH?

a. INH should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal on an empty stomach
b. INH is a potent enzyme inducer
c. INH is contraindicated in gout
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
A:
INH (isoniazid) should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal on an empty stomach

INH is a major enzyme INHIBITOR
INH doesn't affect uric acid levels
which of the following medications will prevent peripheral neuropathies in patients taking INH?

a. pyrazinamide
b. pyridoxine
e. pyridium
d. pyridostigmine
e. pyrimethamine
B:
pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
a patient taking amphotericin B is at risk for which electrolyte abnormalities?

a. hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
b. hyponatremia and hypokalemia
c. hypernatremia and hyperkalemia
d. hypokalemia and hypernatremia
e. hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
E:
hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
A patient comes into your clinic. She is 5 months pregnant and has a UTI. She is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following regimens would be the best choice for her?

a. Bactrim DS tab BID x 3 days
b. Cipro ER 500 mg PO daily x 7days
c. nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO BID x 7 days
d. cefpodoxime 100 mg PO Q12 x 7 days
e. do not treat since she is pregnant
C:
nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO BID x 7 days

(remember to treat UTIs in pregnancy for 7 days)
(remember to avoid FQ's during pregnancy)
(remember to avoid Bactrim during the 3rd trimester; although she is not in her 3rd trimester, option A was only for 3 days)
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding VFEND?
a. VFEND can cause visual changes and patients should be instructed not to operate heavy machinery while taking the medication
b. VFEND must be taken on an empty stomach
c. VFEND oral tablets should not be used in patients with poor renal function
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
D: (A & B)
VFEND can cause visual changes and patients should not operate heavy machinery, and VFEND must be taken on an empty stomach

(the IV vehicle for VFEND may accumlate in pt's with CrCl <50, so oral dosing is recommended in these patients after the initial loading dose because the oral tabs are ok in renal impairment)
Which of the following antibiotics do NOT require dose adjustment in renal impairment?

a. gentamicin
b. clarithromycin
c. cefixime
d. tigecycline
e. daptomycin
D:
tigecycline does not require renal adjustment
Which of the following antibiotics should be refrigerated?

a. Cipro
b. Keflex
c. Levaquin
d. Septra
e. Zithromax
B: Keflex (oral suspension)