Immunology Quiz Questions

Front 1

The function of plasma cells is

Back 1

Synthesis and excretion of soluble antibodies

Front 2

Congenital Thymic Hypoplasia is also known as

Back 2

DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 3

A functional T-cell is activated through a minimum of two signals. One of these is ___and the other is ____

Back 3

T-cell receptor (TCR) recognition of MHC-I or MHC-II, CD28 on the T-cellrecognition of CD80 or CD86 on the APC.

Front 4

Natural Killer Lymphocytes destroy _____ infected cells by _________.

Back 4

Viral, Cytotoxic reactions

Front 5

Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid organ?

A. Spleen

B. Blood

C. Thymus

D. Lymph nodes

Back 5

Thymus

Front 6

Negative selection in the medulla of the thymus is the process where:

Back 6

T-cells that have a high degree of reactivity against self antigens areremoved.

Front 7

All of the following are functions of T-cells except:

A. Mediation of delayed hypersensitivity reactions

B. Regulation of the immune response

C. Mediation of cytolytic reactions

D. Synthesis of antibodies

Back 7

D. Synthesis of antibodies

Front 8

Cell surface markers on lymphocytes are designated as CD with a number andsometimes a sign such as CD8+. CD stands for:

Back 8

Cluster of Differentiation

Front 9

Older individuals can become more immunologically challenged because of:

Back 9

involution of the thymus and reduction in the production of naive T-cells

Front 10

When mature lymphocytes leave the thymus they will be

Back 10

Either CD4+ or CD8+ and CD3+

Front 11

A single band of an isolated immunoglobulin can be referred to as any of the followingexcept:

Back 11

Multiple myeloma

Front 12

When observing an immunoelectrophoresis pattern (IEP) an abnormality can be detected

Back 12

the antibody trough

Front 13

The most important application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) on a urine specimenwould be to determine:

Back 13

Bence-Jones protein

Front 14

On a serum electrophoresis plate, immunoglobulins IgM and IgG willbe present in whichfraction?

Back 14

Gamma

Front 15

A polyclonal gammopathy pattern on a serum protein electrophoresis scan wouldappear as:

Back 15

An increased gamma fraction and increased concentrations of two ormore immunoglobulins

Front 16

The primary use if immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) is:

Back 16

characterization of monoclonal immunoglobulins

Front 17

Formation of a precipitin arc between a well containing a test specimen and a troughcontaining antiserum indicates:

Back 17

the presence of a protein specific to that antiserum.

Front 18

Separation of proteins in an agarose gel by electrophoresis is determined primarily by:

Back 18

charge of the proteins

Front 19

An automated capillary electrophoresis technique to immunotype a monoclonal band isreferred to as:

Back 19

Immuno subtraction

Front 20

An advantage of enzyme immunoassay (EIA) compared with radioimmunoassay (RIA) is:

Back 20

No radioactive waste

Front 21

A major problem with interpreting IFA slides for antinuclear antibodies is:

Back 21

Background fluorescence

Front 22

As compared to fluorescent immunoassays, chemiluminescent immunoassays: (3 things)

Back 22

-Do not require a primary excitation light source -Have excellent sensitivity and specificity

-Do not require an enzyme to generate a signal

Front 23

For an enzyme to be used in an EIA, it must meet all of the following criteria (3 things)

Back 23

- Extreme specificity

-High amount of stability

-No alteration by inhibitor with the system

Front 24

When the amount of color that develops in an EIA reaction is inversely proportional tothe amount of analyte present the reaction would be:

Back 24

Competitive enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

Front 25

The sample antigen binds to an antibody fixed onto a solid phase; a second antibody,labeled with a chemiluminescent label, binds to the antigen-antibody complex on thesolid phase. This is an example of a _____ .

Back 25

Sandwich immunoassay

Front 26

The acronym ELISA stands for

Back 26

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

Front 27

A technique used to tag genes and chromosomes with a fluorescent dye has theacronym:

Back 27

FISH

Front 28

A potential interference with EIA methods would be:

Back 28

Heterophile antibodies

Front 29

In an EMIT assay the signal produced from the reporter enzyme is proportional to theamount of analyte present. The reduction in signal generated when there is absence ofanalyte present is due to

Back 29

Steric hindrance caused by antibody bound to analyte (hapten) attachedto the enzyme

Front 30

The optimum method to measure the serum concentration of C3 would be:

Back 30

Nephelometry

Front 31

Nephelometry can be used to assay all of the following except:

Back 31

IgD

Front 32

In a flow cytometer the forward scatter measures

Back 32

Cell Size

Front 33

In most cases, monoclonal cryoglobulins are:

Back 33

IgM & IgG

Front 34

In a flow cytometer, cells are coaxed into a single stream by:

Back 34

a laminar flow chamber and sheath fluid

Front 35

Cryoglobulins (3 characteristics)

Back 35

-precipitate when chilled to 4 degrees C for 7 days

-redissolve when warmed to 37 degrees C

-can be evaluated with double di usion or IEF

Front 36

The CD4/CD8 ratio is best determined by:

Back 36

Flow cytometry

Front 37

Cryoglobulin determination is useful in the di erential diagnosis of:

Back 37

Raynaud's phenomenom

Front 38

Flow cytometry can be used for all of the following except:

Back 38

ELISA

Front 39

In nephelometric analysis:

Back 39

scattered light is directly proportional to the number of insolublemacromolecules

Front 40

The gold standard to which all other molecular methods are compared is:

Back 40

DNA sequencing

Front 41

All the following are true in regard to the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) except:

-oligonucleotides act as a template.

- the target sequence to be amplified can be unknown.

-it amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences.

-two short DNA primers are used.

Back 41

The target sequence to be amplified can be unknown.

Front 42

In the Western blot procedure the purpose for blocking the membrane prevents:

Back 42

the primary antibody from sticking to the membrane

Front 43

Which procedure would be best for detecting mRNA is a specimen:

Back 43

Northern blot

Front 44

Which amplification technique is the least susceptible to amplicon contamination:

Back 44

Real-time PCR

Front 45

DNA polymerase catalyzes:

Back 45

Primer extension

Front 46

In PCR the genetic material which is formed is:

Back 46

Amplicon

Front 47

Arrange the following steps in the enzymatic process of the PCR cycle in the correctchronologic order:

1. Primer annealing

2. DNA denaturation

3. Extension of the primed DNA sequence

Back 47

2,1,3

Front 48

The enzyme reverse transcriptase converts:

Back 48

mRNA to DNA

Front 49

After 30 cycles in a PCR reaction the number of copies of target DNA would be at least:

Back 49

10,000,000

Front 50

Another term for adaptive immunity is:

Back 50

Acquired immunity

Front 51

The first line of defense against an infectious pathogen is:

Back 51

Unbroken skin or mucous membranes

Front 52

Toll-like receptors are found on the surface of all cells except:

Back 52

Lymphocytes

Front 53

Acquired immunity can result from all except:

Back 53

Genetic inheritance

Front 54

Humoral components of the adaptive immune system include

Back 54

Antibodies

Front 55

A specific component of the adaptive immune system formed in response to antigenicstimulation is:

Back 55

Immunoglobulin

Front 56

The type of adaptive immunity resulting from vaccination would be:

Back 56

Active artificial

Front 57

The transfer of antibodies to the fetus from the mother during the last 3 months ofpregnancy is an example of

Back 57

Passive natural immunity

Front 58

Which of the following is not a role for the immune system:

Back 58

Production of antigens

Front 59

Which of the following is not part of the innate immune system

Back 59

Humoral-mediated immunity

Front 60

Which is the only immunoglobulin class capable of crossing the placental barrier to providepassive natural immune protection for the infant?

Back 60

IgG

Front 61

Which immunoglobulin is predominately present in secretions such as tears, saliva, andintestinal fluid?

Back 61

Dimeric IgA

Front 62

Which of the list of immunoglobulins below are listed by half-life from longest to shortest?

Back 62

IgG, IgA, IgE

Front 63

The portion of the surface of a large molecular weight protein that can be recognized by anantibody is the:

Back 63

Epitope

Front 64

Antibody response from exposure and then re-exposure to a foreign antigen takes place, inorder, in the following phases

Back 64

Lag, Log, Plateau, Decline, Anamnestic

Front 65

Haptens are

Back 65

A low molecular weight substance which must be attached to a large molecular weightprotein to stimulate an immunogenic response.

Front 66

A young girl was stung by a bee and had a severe reaction. She had to be treated withepinephrine in the ER to counteract the large amounts of histamine released during thereaction. If immunoglobulins were measured in this child, which one would be expected tobe significantly increased?

Back 66

IgE

Front 67

Light chain subtypes in immunoglobulins are:

Back 67

Kappa and Lambda

Front 68

The strongest bond between antigen and antibody results from:

Back 68

Goodness of fit

Front 69

Monoclonal antibodies have all of the following characteristics (4):

Back 69

-They have multiple clinical and laboratory applications

-They are designed to bind to a specific antigen ---They are cloned from a single cell.

-They DO NOT occur frequently in nature

Front 70

The stages of phagocytosis in correct order are:

Back 70

Chemotaxis, Adhesion, Engulfment, Phagosome, Digestion

Front 71

A whole body systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) plus a severe infectionis called:

Back 71

Sepsis

Front 72

Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating foreign particles with serum proteins is called:

Back 72

Opsonization

Front 73

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome and Chronic Granulomatous Disease are examples of:

Back 73

Congenital Neutrophil Abnormalities

Front 74

A major role for the Monocyte- Macrophage cell system is:

Back 74

Phagocytosis

Front 75

Which of the following is true of mature neutrophils? In regards to cell division

Back 75

They do not divide.

Front 76

Which cell reacts with the larval stage of some helminth paracytes?

Back 76

Eosinophils

Front 77

The movement of granulocytic cells from the circulation to tissues is called:

Back 77

Diapedesis

Front 78

The primary phagocytic cells in humans are:

Back 78

Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils

Front 79

The sequence of blood cell development in the embryo and fetus is:

Back 79

Yolk-sac, liver-spleen, bone marrow

Front 80

In the clinical laboratory the most common evaluation of complement is done my

Back 80

measuring C3 and C4

Front 81

Which interleukin has the capacity to induce activation of almost all clones of cytotoxiccells?

Back 81

IL-2

Front 82

The results of the complement cascade can include the following except:

Back 82

Formation of antigen-antibody complexes

Front 83

Complement is characterized by all of the following except:

Back 83

Complement proteins circulate in the blood as active enzymes

Front 84

Which complement pathway would be triggered by antigen-antibody interaction?

Back 84

Classic pathway

Front 85

Which of the following is most representative of C-reactive protein (CRP)?

Back 85

Its levels parallel the course of inflammatory response

Front 86

All three complement pathways converge at the conversion of _____ .

Back 86

C3 to C3a and C3b

Front 87

Cytokines produced by leukocytes that act on other leukocytes are called:

Back 87

Interleukins

Front 88

The alternative complement pathway is activated by

Back 88

Bacterial exotoxins

Front 89

Interferons are:

Back 89

mediators of the early innate immune response to viral infections

Front 90

All of the following methods can be used to enhance agglutination of IgG antibodiesexcept:

Back 90

Decreasing the pH of the reaction mixture

Front 91

A serial dilution for a test is prepared as follows. The initial sample is diluted 1:2 toprepare tube 1. Then serial dilutions of 1:2 are prepared for 8 tubes total. When thetest is performed on the patient's specimen tubes 1 through 5 are read as positive andtubes 6,7, and 8 are read as negative. These results indicate:

Back 91

The patient is positive at a titer of 1:32

Front 92

A serological test requires inactivation of complement as part of the procedure. Thebest method to initially inactivate complement in the patient's serum specimen wouldbe:

Back 92

Heat the serum to 56 degrees for 30 minutes

Front 93

A 10 year old girl is seen in the ER for fever and a very red sore throat. The physiciansuspects strep throat and has a specimen collected for an antistreptolysin-O antibodytiter (ASO). After a two week course of antibiotics a second convalescent specimen iscollected and the ASO titer is performed on both the acute and convalescentspecimens. The results were: acute specimen: ASO positive 1:2, convalescentspecimen: ASO positive 1:16. These results mean:

Back 93

The antibody titer is increasing as would be expected in the immuneresponse to a strep infection

Front 94

Prozoning can occur when there is an ______ causing a false _____ result.

Back 94

excess antibody, negative

Front 95

Defines agglutination?

Back 95

visible formation of the aggregation of latex bound insoluble antigenswith soluble antibodies

Front 96

Anti-human globulin (AHG) is used to:

Back 96

form cross-links between antibodies bound to the surface of erythrocytes

Front 97

Which antibody type is most e cient at agglutination?

Back 97

IgM

Front 98

Which of the following conditions could cause false agglutination?

Back 98

Abnormally high level of immunolgobulins

Front 99

The lattice hypothesis states that an optimal reaction occurs between antigen andantibody when:

Back 99

antigen and antibody are present in approximately equal proportions

Front 100

Pathogens adapted for biologic warfare include all of the following except?

Chickenpox

Smallpox

Q fever

Anthrax

Back 100

Chickenpox

Front 101

Immunization of smallpox by using cowpox scabs was discovered by:

Back 101

Edward Jenner

Front 102

Which vaccine is e ective in reducing cancer?

Back 102

HPV

Front 103

The first host response after a vaccination is:

Back 103

the innate immune response

Front 104

Vaccines can be divided into _____ .

Back 104

live attenuated and nonreplicating

Front 105

CDC category A agents include all of the following except:

Back 105

CMV

Front 106

To meet FDA requirements a vaccine must:

Back 106

-Produce protective immunity with minimal adverse effects

- Be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurableresponse.

- Have a stable shelf life.

Front 107

The World Health Organization (WHO) identifies candidates each year for influenzavaccines. This is necessary because of ____ .

Back 107

Antigenic drift

Front 108

The incidence of ____ has been reduced by more than 99% in populations who havebeen vaccinated.

Back 108

Polio

Front 109

.. There are no available vaccines for preventing congenital _____ disease.

Back 109

CMV

Front 110

Coccidioidomycosis is also known as any of the following (3)

Back 110

-Desert fever

-San Joaquin fever

- Valley fever

Front 111

Which immunoglobulin is first produced in a patient after exposure to an infectiousagent?

Back 111

IgM

Front 112

Aspergillosis is:

Back 112

an opportunistic infection

Front 113

Histoplasmosis is caused by a:

Back 113

Fungus

Front 114

Gardeners who handle peat moss can be susceptible to:

Back 114

Sporotrichosis

Front 115

For an infection to develop in the host, the organism must initially:

Back 115

Penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier

Front 116

The acronym TORCH stands for:

Back 116

Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, CMV, Herpes

Front 117

High levels of circulating ____ may cause hypersensitivity reactions in helminth andcestode infections.

Back 117

IgE

Front 118

All of the following are fungal diseases except:

- Histoplasmosis

- Toxoplasmosis

-Coccidioidomycosis

-Aspergillosis

Back 118

Toxoplasmosis

Front 119

Varicella-zoster virus can cause:

Back 119

Chikenpox or Shingles

Front 120

Clinical laboratory personnel need to have demonstrable immunity to:

Back 120

Rubella and Hepatitis B

Front 121

The CDC Bloodborne Pathogen Standard and the OSHA Occupational Exposure Standardmandate:

Back 121

Education and training of all health care workers in standardprecautions

Front 122

Which of the organizations are important for issuing and enforcingpersonnel safety standards for clinical lab personnel?

Back 122

- The Joint Commission (TJC)

- Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

- College of Americal Pathologists (CAP)

Front 123

A serum specimen is required for a test. The phlebotomist collects an anti-coagulated(EDTA) tube instead. This is an example of:

Back 123

Pre-analytical error

Front 124

A test is advertised as having a sensitivity of 96.3%. This means: 10 out of 10 points

Back 124

96.3% who have the disease will test positive compared to the total numberof patients who have the disease

Front 125

An example of post-analytical error would be:

Back 125

An incorrect result phoned to a physician

Front 126

Which of these is incorrect - An external proficiency testing specimen should always be:

-Run through the entire testing process

-Integrated into a routine testing run

-Always run in duplicate to assure valid comparison with other labs

-Handled as closely a possible like a patient speicmen

Back 126

Always run in duplicate to assure valid comparison with other labs

Front 127

A quality control program with peer comparisons allows laboratories to determine allexcept:

Back 127

Sensitivity

Front 128

Work surfaces are best decontaminated with:

Back 128

A 1:10 dilution of household bleach

Front 129

The reference range for a test is determined by analyzing a large population of helathyvolunteers. Analysis of the data shows a bell-shaped Gaussian distribution. Calculationof the reference range should include ____ of the results.

Back 129

95%