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118 Cards in this Set
- Front
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In order for a cytotoxic T cell to become armed TWO signals are required. Which of the following are those two signals?
1) B cell immunoglobulin class switching and expression of IgG2a antibody 2) Recognition by TCR of specific antigen associated with class I MHC 3) Exposure to cytokines (IL-2 and IFN-gamma) 4) TH2-cytokine production by CD4+ T helper cells 5) Macrophage activation by Toll Like Receptors |
2 and 3
2) Recognition by TCR of specific antigen associated with class I MHC 3) Exposure to cytokines (IL-2 and IFN-gamma) |
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Comparative Cervical Tuberculin test is done to distinguish between:
A) Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium bovis B) Mycobacterium avium and Brucella abortus C) Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium phlei D) Mycobacterium bovis and Pseudomonas mallei |
A
Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium bovis |
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A dog has developed Allergic Contact Dermitis due to exposure to flea-collars. The skin shows severe erythematous lesions with vesiculation. What might be the immunological cause for vesicle formation?
A) Activated B cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles. B) Activated T cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles. C) The chemical in the flea-collars kills epidermal cells creating vesicles. D) All of the above. |
B
Activated T cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles. |
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Diagnostic Immunology is largely based on the detection of antibodies. Why cell-mediated immunity (T cell response) is difficult to measure?
A) Because T-cell specific epitope has not been identified for many microbes and also because of MHC class I variation between individual animals. B) Because T-cell response is not so important than antibody response. C) Because there are so many different types of T-cells that makes diagnostic results difficult to interpret. D) All of the above. |
A
Because T-cell specific epitope has not been identified for many microbes and also because of MHC class I variation between individual animals. |
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Before performing an allograft organ transplantation, you need to cross-match the following antigens of donor and recipient in order to prevent graft rejection.
A) MHC Class I present on all nucleated cells B) MHC Class II present on APCs C) Blood group antigens present on erythrocytes D) All of the above. |
D
All of the above! |
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After a dog received a bone marrow transplant, it developed very severe cutaneous erythematous lesions on the face due to graft-verus-host disease (GVH). What happens in GVH?
A) It is a disease caused by an attack of transplanted lymphocytes on the cells of a histoincompatible and immunodeficient recipient. B) It is an autoimmune disease caused by an attack of host's antibodies and lymphocytes on the cells of the skin. C) It is a disease caused the adverse side effects of the drugs and immune-complex deposits in the skin. D) None of the above. |
A
It is a disease caused by an attack of transplanted lymphocytes on the cells of a histoincompatible and immunodeficient recipient. |
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In the above dog suffering from GVH disease (had a bone marrow transplant), what might be the treatment in addition to immunosuppressive and antibiotic therapy.
A) Use of anti-viral drug therapy and fluid maintenance. B) Use of monoclonal antibodies to IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha, and IL-4 and supportive therapy. C) Use of anti-toxin antibodies and bacterin vaccination. D) Hyposensitization therapy. |
B
Use of monoclonal antibodies to IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha and IL-4 and supportive therapy. |
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During pregnancy, the immunological destruction of the fetus and its trophoblast is prevented by the combined activities of many different immunosupprssive mechanisms. Some of the factors are:
A) alpha-Fetoprotein, IL-10, TGF-Beta, blocking antibodies and indoleamine dioxygenase (IDO) B) IL-10, T cells, B cells, eosinophil, cytokines. C) IFN-gamma, IL-2, IL-6 and chemokines. D) Blocking antibodies, tryptophan, NK cells and activated macrophages. |
A
alpha-Fetoprotein, IL-10, TGF-beta, blocking antibodies and indoleamine dioxygenase (IDO) |
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The three major cell types that participate in tumor cell destruction are:
A) Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils B) B cells, Neutrophils, and Macrophages C) Mast cells, Macrophages and T helper cells D) Natural killer cells, Cytotoxic T cells and Macrophages |
D
Natural killer cells, Cytotoxic T cells and Macrophages. |
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One of the successful treatments reported against certain tumors is:
A) To administer angiogenesis drugs and radiation therapy. B) To obtain tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes, grow them in the presence of IL-2 in vitro, and give them back to donor patient. C) To administer tumor-specific monoclonal antibodies conjugated to toxins and angiogenesis drugs. D) None of the above. |
B
To obtain tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes, grow them in the presence of IL-2 in vitro, and give them back to donor patients. |
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What is molecular mimicry?
A) Cross-reactions or sharing of epitopes between an infectious agent and an autoantigen. B) It is the exchange of immune cells between mother and fetus during pregnancy. C) It is the cross-reactions of blood group antigens between individuals. D) None of the above. |
B
It is the exchange of immune cells between mother and fetus during pregnancy. |
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Autoimmune disease may result from:
A) An aberrant response to a single specific antigen. B) A general defect in the regulation of B or T cell functions. C) An autograft that induces excessive macrophages, NK cells and T cell responses. D) A and B only. |
D (A and B only)
A: An aberrant response to a single specific antigen. B: A general defect in the regulation of B or T cell functions. |
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Insulin-dependent diabetes melitus results due to:
A) Eating too much sugar products during holidays B) Destruction of islet cells by eosinophils and mast cells. C) The development of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase enzyme in islet cells. D) Failure of control of intracellular bacterial multiplication b macrophages in pancrease. |
C
The development of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase enzyme in islet cells. |
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Equine recurrent uveitius (Periodic ophalmia) is the most common cause of blindness in equines. It is due to:
A) Development of autoantibodies to retinoid-binding protein. B) Cross-reactions of ocular tissues and either Leptospira interrogans, or Borrelia burgdorferi, or Onchocerca cervicalis. C) Adverse reactions to opthalmic drugs. D) A and B only. |
D (A and B only)
A: Development of autoantibodies to retinoid-binding protein. B: Cross-reactions of ocular tissues and either Leptospira interrogans, or Borrelia burgdorferi or Onchocerca cervicalis. |
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Pemphigus Vulgaris is the most severe form of autoimmune skin disease. It is due to autoantibody attack on a cell adhesion protein called desmoglein-3 that is digested by protease secreted by keratinocytes. Its histopathological location is:
A) Bullae develop in the subepidermis below the basement membrane. B) Bullae shows a separation of the skin cells in the suprabasal region of the lower epidermis. C) Bullae shows a separation of the skin cells in the dermis. D) None of the above. |
B.
Bullae shows a separation of the skin cells in the suprabasal region of the lower epidermis. |
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In adult dogs, Myasthenia Gravis results in muscle weakness due to:
A) Development of IgG autoantibodies that block the acetylcholine receptors and trigger complement-mediated damage. B) Muscle fiber degeneration, necrosis, and vacuolation as a result of oxidants released by macrophages and lymphocytes. C) Myositis induced by adverse reactions of drugs. D) None of the above. |
A.
Development of IgG autoantibodies that block the acetylcholine receptors and trigger complement-mediated damage. |
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In a dog suffering from Autoimmune Masticatory Myopathy, the myopathy is confined only to the muscles of mastication. Why?
A) Because of easy access to the protein antigen in the food that cross reacts to masticatory muscle antigen. B) Because of easy access of masticatory muscle to nerve toxins produced by food-born microbes. C) Because the masticatory muscles contain an isoform of myosin that is different from that found in the limb muscles. D) All of the above. |
C.
Because the masticatory muscles contain and isoform of myosin that is different from that found in the limb muscles. |
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In systemic lupus erythematosus, a key defect is:
A) Impaired clearance of apoptotic cells and generation of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA). B) Impaired phagocytosis of lupus organisms by macrophages and rapid multiplication of microbes. C) Impaired synthesis of many cytokines and antibodies. D) Excessive reaction of T cells to food allergen. |
A.
Impaired clearance of apoptotic cells and generation of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA). |
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In an animal suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, the erosion of articular cartilage and ligaments leading to the characteristic joint pathology is mainly due to:
A) Degradation by cytotoxic T cell, mast cell and eosinophils B) Degradation by metalloproteases release from chondrocytes and by proteases and free oxidants from neutrophils C) Degradation due to bacteria-induced inflammation and by toxins produced by bacteria D) All of the above. |
B.
Degredation by metalloproteases released from chondrocytes and by proteases and free oxidants from neutrophils. |
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In Chediak-Higashi syndrome, the neutrophils show abnormally large granules. This is due to:
A) A mutation in a gene (Lyst) that normally prevents granule membrane fusion B) A failure of neutrophils to degranulate. C) Excessive production of lytic enzymes and oxidative burst products. D) All of the above. |
A.
A mutation in a gene (Lyst) that normally prevents granule membrane fusion. |
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In canine leukocyte adhesion deficiency, an integrin receptor deficiency occurs as a result of mutation in the CD18 gene. IN the absence of integrin receptor, neutrophils:
A) Cannot bind to endothelial cells of blood vessels. B) Cannot respond to chemotaxins. C) Cannot ingest C3b-opsonized particles. D) All of the above. |
D
All of the above! |
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In a fowl with Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID), the following is/are true:
A) Foals fail to produce functional T or B cells B) The defect is in the DNA repair enzyme that cannot rejoin V, D, J genes during the formation of BCR and TCR. C) Foals cannot absorb maternal antibodies due to defect in the intestinal epithelial cells. D) A and B only |
D (A and B only)
A: Foals fail to produce functional T or B cells B: The defect is in the DNA repair enzyme that cannot rejoin V, D, J genes during the formation of BCR and TCR. |
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In many viral infections, secondary bacterial infections are common. Why?
A) Because of virus-induced immunosuppression. B) Because virus provides enzymes for bacterial multiplication. C) Because virus stimulates host cells to produce excessive amino acids, nucleotides, etc, required for bacterial multiplication. D) None of the above. |
A
Because of virus-induced immunosuppression. |
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LPS from degraded Salmonella can coat RBC and antibodies against LPS results in RBC destruction and anemia. This is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) Type 4 |
B
Type 2 |
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Macrophages perform numerous functions in the immune system linking the innate and adaptive immune responses, all of the following are examples of those functions EXCEPT!!
A) Produce IL-4 to induce B cell immunoglobulin class switching. B) Produce various cytokines that induce inflammation, pyrexia, lethargy, anorexia and other physiologic activities. C) Capable of repeated and sustained phagocytosis D) Remove dead, dying, damaged aging and foreign cells E) Process antigens in preparation for triggering acquired immune response. |
A
Produce IL-4 to induce B cell immunoglobulin class switching. |
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Corticosteroids are most commonly used immunosppressive and anti-inflammatory drugs in Veterinary medicine. Its main mode of action is:
A) To inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit. B) To stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkB-a which binds to NF-kappa beta, and so inhibits all NF-kappa beta mediated transcription, including cytokine synthesis. C) To stimulate the synthesis of Cytochrome P-450 from the liver which inhibits immune cells. D) None of the above. |
B
To stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkB-a, which binds to NF-kappa beta and so inhibits all NF-kappa beta mediated transcription, including cytokine synthesis. |
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The major immunosuppressive cytotoxic drugs such as cyclophosphamide, azathioprine and methotrexate are designed to:
A) Kill bacteria by suppressing their production of essential amino acids. B) Activate macrophages and NK cells to suppress tumor growth. C) Inhibit cell division by inhibiting DNA synthesis and activity. D) All of the above. |
C
Inhibit cell division by inhibiting DNA synthesis and activity. |
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The acquired immune system evolved:
A) After aliens visited our earth from the outer space. B) After the dinosaurs roamed the earth C) Only after the emergence of the jawless fishes or cyclostomes D) First in the sponges and jelly fish. |
C
Only after emergence of the jawless fishes or cyclostomes |
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Birds generate all antibody specificities they will need for the rest of their lives during:
A) A 5-day period, between 10-15 days of embyrogenesis at a period when there is clonal expansion of B cells in the bursa of fabricius. B) First infection with microbes and then there is only somatic utation in B cells in an ongoing process in subsequent infection C) Their first migration from home to distance places in search of food. D) None of the above. |
A
A 5-day period between 10-15 days of embryogenesis is at a period when there is clonal expansion of B cells in the bursa of fabricius |
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Most vaccines provide long-term protection by producing
A) Memory B and T cells B) Antibody titers C) High cytokine secretion D) Macrophage activation |
A
Memory B and T cell |
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True or False:
Hyposensitization therapy is effective in Allergic Contact Dermatitis. |
False!
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True or False:
Allografts made into immune-privileged sites are rejected easily. |
False!
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PABA antimetabolites. inhibit dihydropteroate synthase. bacteriostatic
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sulfonamides MOA
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True or False:
MHC alleles determine resistance or susceptibility to many disease. |
True!
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True or False:
In systemic lupus erythematosus, patients develop multiple organ-specific autoantibodies. |
True!
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True or False:
In general, severe nutritional deficiencies reduce B-cell function, but have little effect on T-cell functions. |
False!
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True or False:
Hereditary Parakeratosis in calves occurs due to reduced ability to absorb Zinc from the intestine which is an essential component of the thymic hormone, thymulin. |
True!
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True or False:
In dogs suffering from autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis, autoantibodies develop against thyroglobulin. |
True!
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True or False:
Mycophenolate mofetil, a synthetic compound that inhibits purine synthesis, is very effective in controlling many autoimmune diseases and prolongs allograft survival. |
True!
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True or False:
A very potent antimicrobial peptides are present in amphibian skin. |
True!
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Match the following:
Allergic Contact Dermatitis A) Delayed response on patch test B) Do not express conventional antigen receptors C) Feature of Vertebrates and Invertebrates |
A
Delayed response on Patch Test. |
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Match the following:
Autograft A) Mutation in common gamma chain of the IL-2R B) Grafting of animal's own skin to cover its burn. C) Boosts immune system |
B
Grafting of animal's own skin to cover its burn. |
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Match the following:
Natural Killer Cells A) Mutation in common gamma chain of the IL-2R B) Delayed response on patch test C) Do not express conventional antigen receptors |
C
Do not express conventional antigen receptors |
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Match the following:
Autoimmune disease A) Caused by an immune attack against an animal's own tissues B) Depletes all T cells C) Boosts immune system |
A
Caused by an immune attack against an animal's own tissues |
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Match the following:
LE cell A) Depletes all T cells B) Opsonized nuclei in phagocytes C) Feature of Vertebrates and Invertebrates |
B
Opsonized nuclei in phagocytes |
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Match the following:
Regular Moderate Exercise A) Boosts Immune system B) Delayed response on Patch Test C) Autoimmune skin basement membrane disease |
A
Boosts immune system |
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Match the following:
Canine X-linked SCID A) Depletes all T cells B) Caused by an immune attack against an animal's own tissues C) Mutation in common gamma chain of the IL-2R |
C
Mutation in common gamma chain of the IL-2R |
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Match the following:
Bullous pemphigoid A) Do not express conventional antigen receptors B) Autoimmune skin basement membrane disease C) Delayed response on patch test |
B
Autoimmune skin basement membrane disease |
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Match the Following:
Monoclonal antibody to CD3 A) Depletes all T cells B) Delayed response on patch test C) Boosts immune system |
A
Depletes all T cells |
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Match the following:
Innate immunity A) Boosts immune system B) Feature of Vertebrates and Invertebrates C) DO not express conventional antigen receptors |
B
Feature of Vertebrates and Invertebrates |
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BONUS QUESTION :)
We see red apples, green grass and blue sky. Did you ever wonder why this is? A) The red apple for example has red pigments on its surface and therefore what we see. B) The red apple absorbs all wavelengths (color) of white light except the wavelength that corresponds to red which is reflected and therefore what we see. C) The red apple reflects all wavelengths (colors) of white light except the wavelength that corresponds to red which is absorbed and therefore what we see. D) It is the cones in our eyes that make the apple appear red. |
B
The red apple absorbs all wavelengths (colors) of white light except the wavelength that corresponds to red which is reflected and therefore what we see. |
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One of the major differences between agglutination and precipitation reaction is:
A) Agglutination test uses soluble antigen whereas precipitation test uses particular antigen. B) Agglutination test uses particulate antigen whereas precipitation test uses soluble antigen. C) Agglutination does not require zone of equivalence whereas precipitation requires it. D) Precipitation does not require zone of equivalence whereas agglutination does. |
B.
Agglutination test uses particulate antigen whereas precipitation test uses soluble antigen. |
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Since agglutination is much more sensitive technique than precipitation, passive agglutination is used to convert a precipitating system to an agglutinating one. How is this done?
A) By chemically linking soluble antigen to inert particles such as erythrocytes, bacteria or latex beads. B) By chemically linking soluble antigen to antibodies. C) By chemically linking soluble antigen to Dendritic cells. D) By chemically linking soluble antigen to virus particles. |
A.
By chemically linking soluble antigen to inert particles such as erythrocytes, bacteria or latex beads. |
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A dog's antibody titer to canine distemper virus was 16 in a serological test. What does it mean?
A) A titer of 16 indicates 1:16 was the greatest dilution of that antiserum which showed a detectable reaction with antigen that is the End point. B) A titer of 16 indicates 1:16 was the least dilution of that antiserum which showed a reaction with antigen that is the End Point. C) A titer of 16 indicates 1:!6 was the ration of antiserum to virus that is the End Point. D) A titer of 16 indicates 1:16 was the ratio of virus to antiserum that is the End Point. |
A.
A titer of 16 indicates 1:16 was the greatest dilution of that antiserum which showed a detectable reaction with antigen that is the End Point. |
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The Coomb's test is used principally to detect antibodies against red blood cells which are at sub-agglutinating amounts or which are incapable of moderating agglutination. How is it perfomed?
A) It consists of the addiction of an antiserum obtained from same species to a suspension of RBC's suspected to have attached to their surface antibodies. B) It consists of the addition of Complement obtained from a heterologous species to a suspension of RBCs suspected to have attached to their surface antibodies. C) It consists of the addition of an antiglobulin antiserum produced in a heterologous species to a suspension of RBCs suspected to have attached to their surface antibodies. D) None of the above. |
C.
It consists of the addition of an antiglobulin antiserum produced in a heterologous species to a suspension of RBCs suspected to have attached to their surface antibodies. |
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The Coomb's test is used in the following clinical situations:
A) Blood group antigen incompatibility test. B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn. C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. D) All of the above. |
D.
All of the above! |
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Not all viruses can be used for hemagglutination or hemagglutination-nhibition (HI) test. Why?
A) Because small viruses produce soluble antigen whereas large viruses produce particulate antigen. B) Because only certain viruses have surface proteins known as hemagglutinins which bind to receptors on the RBCs of certain species and cause hemagglutination. C) Because some viruses are very infectious and only noninfectious viruses can be used for the above mentioned test. D) None of the above. |
B.
Because only certain viruses have surface proteins known as hemagglutinins which bind to receptors on the RBCs of certain species and cause hemagglutination. |
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In hemagglutination-inhibition (HI) test:
A) Antibodies directed against the viral hemagglutinins block the virus from binding to the RBC's and this inhibit the hemagglutination reaction. B) Viral hemagglutinins bind to surface of RBCs and block the antibody directed against the hemaggluinins from binding to virus. C) Antibodies directed against the RBCs block the virus from binding to the RBCs. D) None of the above. |
A.
Antibodies directed against the viral hemagglutinins block the virus from binding to the RBCs and thus inhibit the hemagglutination reaction. |
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What is seroconversion?
A) It is the absorption of maternal antibodies that is detected in the serum of a newborn animal. B) It is the separation of serum from the rest of the blood components. C) It is the development of detectable specific antibodies to microorganisms in the Serum as a result of infection or immunization. D) All of the above. |
C.
It is the development of detectable specific antibodies to microorganisms in the serum as a result of infection or immunization. |
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The following are true about the Seroconversion Period:
A) It is also called an antibody development period. B) It can be as short as 2 weeks or as long as 6 months. C) During this period, an infected animal can infect others. D) All of the above. |
D.
All of the above. |
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Plate/slide agglutination test is used for the detection of Mycoplasma gallisepticum in a poultry farm. If you get a positive test, what is your next step?
A) Destroy all the poultry flocks to eliminate the disease. B) It is only a basic screening test and would consult poultry pathologists to confirm before designating a flock as being infected. C) Recommend testing of all the chickens and destroy those chickens that react positive. D) It is known to give false-positives in some samples and would not worry about it. |
B.
It is only a basic screening test and would consult poultry pathologists to confirm before designating a flock as being infected. |
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Colostrum is a vital substance that contains many essential nutrients, vitamins, growth factors and antibodies which:
A) Support and provide immunity for the newborn during the first days of life. B) Increases weight gain and survival of the newborn C) Decreases the number of treatments for illness during the first 3 months after birth D) All of the above. |
D. All of the above!
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A newborn calf may be assumed to have adequate transfer of passive immunity, if the refractometer reading is:
A) Approximately 6 g/dL serum proteins which is equivalent to 1790 mg/dL of IgG B) Approximately 5 g/dL serum proteins which is equivalent to 890 mg/dL of IgG C) Approximately 4 g/dL serum proteins which is equivalent to approximately 400 mg/dL of IgG D) None of the above |
A.
Approximately 6 g/dL serum proteins which is equivalent to 1790 mg/dL of IgG |
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The basis of Zinc Sulfate turbidity test for measuring IgG concentration in newborn animals is:
A) Zinc Sulfate acts as a chemical antigen that cross-reacts with igG and precipitates B) Zinc Sulfate removes immunoglobulins and other serum proteins precipitate C) Zinc Sulfate removes water and as a result the globular protein (IgG) becomes insoluble and precipitates D) None of the above. |
C.
Zinc Sulfate removes water and as a result the globular protein (IgG) becomes insoluble and precipitates. |
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Immunofluorescence assay is a cytochemical procedure whereby antigen can be detected within tissues. The principle of the test is:
A) Based on the conjugation or coupling of antibody with a fluorescent dye. (Fluorochrome) B) When activated by UV light, the fluorochrome emits a visible light which is characteristic of the fluorochrome used. C) When activated by visible light, the fluorochrome emits a UB light which is characteristic of the fluorochrome used D) A and B only |
D. A and B only
A. based on the conjugation or coupling of antibody with a fluorescent dye (fluorochrome) B. When activated by UV light, the fluorochrome emits a visible light which is characteristic of the fluorochrome used. |
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A 2-month old kitten tests positive for GIV in a SNAP test. What is your opinion as a Veterinarian?
A) The kitten is definitely infected with the FIV virus and would advise euthanasia to prevent suffering. B) The SNAP test detects FIV virus and indicates that the kitten might be infected in utero. C) Maternally derived antibodies to FIV may be giving a false-positive result. D) All of the above E) None of the above |
C.
Maternally derived antibodies to FIV may be giving a false-positive result |
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CAEV is caused by a lentivirus closely related to North American isolates of Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP) virus. The antibodies to CAEV/OPP virus can also be detected using:
A) Agar gel immunodiffusion test B) Agglutination test C) Hemagglutination-Inhibition Test D) Immunohistochemistry |
A.
Agar gel immunodiffusion test |
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Feline leukemia virus (FeLV) vaccination will not induce positive test results in SNAP FeLV ELISA tests because the test detects the presence of:
A) FeLV group-specific viral antigen (p27) in serum B) FeLV antibodies in serum C) FOCMA antigen in serum D) None of the above. |
A.
FeLV group-specific viral antigen (p27) in serum |
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Cats should be tested for FeLV infection before vaccination because:
A) Vaccination has severe adverse reaction in all cats B) Cats infected prior to FeLV vaccination may appear to be vaccination failures and vaccination may not affect the infection status. C) Vaccination of FeLV is more expensive than testing for FeLV infection. D) None of the above. |
B.
Cats infected prior to FeLV vaccination may appear to be vaccination failures and vaccination may not affect the infection status. |
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In a flow cytometer:
A) The amount of laser light that is scattered off the cells as the pass through the laser can be measured, which gives information concerning the size of the cells, cell's surface roughness and internal complexity. B) The amount of visible light that is scattered off the cells as they pass can be measured, which gives information concerning the size of the cells, cell's surface roughness and internal complexity. C) THe cells can be separated by differences in their relative speed of flow through a very narrow tube D) None of the above. |
A.
The amount of laser light that is scattered off the cells as they pass through the laser can be measured, which gives information concerning the size of the cells, cell's surface roughness and internal complexity. |
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Flow cytometer can be used:
A) To count different subpopulations of T cells in Feline Immunodeficiency Virus-infected cats and know the prognosis of the disease status B) To detect antibodies to Feline immunodeficiency virus from infected cats C) To detect Feline immunodeficiency virus in the tissues from infected cats D) None of the above. |
A.
To count different subpopulations of T cells in Feline Immunodeficiency virus-infected cats and know the prognosis of the disease status. |
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BONUS QUESTION:
The temperature of the crocodile's egg in a nest will determine: A) Whether the egg will hatch or not B) The sex of the newborn crocodile C) The interior quality of the egg and ultimately the strength of the newborn crocodile D) The disease resistance or susceptibility to infectious agents of the newborn crocodile. |
B.
The sex of the newborn crocodile. |
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BONUS:
Human activities have altered the chemical composition of the atmosphere through the buildup of "Green House Gases". This gas is considered to be the primary compound of the "Green House Gases" A) Nitrogen dioxide B) Carbon monoxide C) Carbon dioxide D) Ozone |
C.
Carbon dioxide |
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The sensitizing component in the poison ivy pant that gives rise to allergic contact dematitis is called:
A) Tuberculin B) Picric acid C) Dichlorvos D) Urushiol E) Glutaraldehyde |
D.
Urushiol |
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Discoid LE differs from systemic lupus in that:
A) It is much more severe B) The skin lesions are circular C) The lesions are restricted to the skin D) Lesions are restricted to the kidneys E) It is refractory to treatment. |
C.
Lesions are restricted to the skin |
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Indoleamine 2,3 dioxygenase causes depletion of:
A) Proline B) Arginine C) Tryptophan D) Tyrosine E) Insulin |
C.
Trpyophan |
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Rheumatoid arthritis patients may develop autoantibodies against:
A) Complement B) Bone C) Cartilage D) Desmogelin-1 E) Type II collagen |
E.
Type II collagen |
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The fetus may be considered to be a(n):
A) Allograft B) Xenograft C) Heterograft D) Isograft E) Antigraft |
A.
Allograft |
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How do antibodies from a mare's bloodstream reach her foal?
A) Across the placenta B) In her colostrum C) In her milk D) A and B E) A and C |
B.
In her colostrum |
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Which of the following is an example of type II hypersensitivity?
A) Arthus reaction B) Tuberculin reaction C) Serum sickness D) Acute anaphylaxis E) Hemolytic disease of newborn. |
E.
Hemolytic disease of newborn. |
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Immune complexes cause hypersensitivity by:
A) Promoting IgG production B) Activating T cells C) Stimulating neutrophil invasion D) Stimulating eosinophil invasion E) Stimulating basophil invasion. |
C.
Stimulating neutrophil invasion. |
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is diagnosed by:
A) A skin test B) Complement fixation C) An indirect fluorescent antibody test D) A passive hemagglutination test. E) An antiglobulin test. |
A.
A skin test. |
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The major clinical problem associated with bone marrow allografts is:
A) Contact dermatitis B) Aplastic anemia C) Allograft rejection D) Graft arteriosclerosis E) GVH disease |
E.
GVH disease |
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Which of the following is the drug of choice for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis?
A) Penicillin B) Epinephrine C) Cyclosporine D) Histamine E) Aspirin |
B.
Epinephrine |
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The Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by:
A) Lack of neutrophils B) Large granules within neutrophils C) Excessive numbers of blood neutrophils D) The presence of abnormal nuclei in blood neutrophils E) Agranular neutrophils |
D.
The presence of abnormal nuclei in blood neutrophils. |
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Autoimmune disease may be caused by:
A) A failure of the cell-mediate immune system B) A failure in thymus development C) An immune response against self-antigens D) A failure of the antibody-mediated immune system E) All of the above. |
C.
An immune response against self-antigens. |
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In Myasthenia Gravis, autoantibodies are directed against:
A) Thyroid hormone receptors B) Acetylcholine receptors C) Beta adrenoreceptors D) TCRs E) FcRs |
B.
Acetylcholine receptors |
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The presence of immune complexes deposited in glomeruli can be detected by:
A) Immunofluorescence assays B) ELISAs C) Passive agglutination tests D) Immunoelectrophoresis E) Virus neutralization tests. |
A.
Immunofluorescense assays |
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NK cells are optimized to recognize and respond to:
A) MHC Class I molecules B) MHC Class II molecules C) Absence of MHC Class I molecules D) Absence of MHC Class II molecules E) MHC Class III molecules |
C.
Absence of MHC Class I molecules |
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Rheumatoid Factor is an:
A) ANA B) Antibody to synovial membranes C) Antibody to glomerular basement membrane D) Antibody to complement E) Antibody to immunoglobulin. |
E.
Antibody to immunoglobulin. |
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Which of the following infections is likely an immune complex-mediated disease?
A) Feline panleukopenia B) Feline rhinotracheitis C) Feline Calcivirus infection D) FIP E) FIV infection |
D.
FIP |
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The tuberculin used in skin tests is called:
A) BCG B) PPG C) PPD D) PPT E) BPT |
C.
PPD |
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If cell-mediated immunity is defective, an animal may suffer from more:
A) Bacterial infections B) Viral infections C) Parasitic infections D) Tumors E) Skin diseases. |
B.
Viral infections |
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To diagnose Autoimmune hemolytic anemia involving nonagglutinating antibodies, one must use:
A) An antiglobulin test B) A direct agglutination test C) A complement fixation test D) A factor 3 test E) A western blot assay |
A.
An antiglobulin test |
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Which of these mouse strains fails to develop a thymus?
A) New Zealand white B) Ipr C) Beige D) Moth-eaten E) Nude. |
E.
Nude |
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Some autoimmune diseases may result from cross-reactions between organisms and tissues. This phenomenon is called:
A) Molecular mimicry B) Antigenic variation C) Tissue sensitization D) Autosensitization E) Clonal anergy |
A.
Molecular mimicry |
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What is the location of the lesions in pemphigus foliaceus?
A) Suprabasal region B) Subepidermal region C) Subcorneal region D) Skin basement membrane E) No specific region |
C.
Subcorneal region |
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Which type of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by immune complex deposits on the endothelial side of the glomerular basement membrane?
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Multiple types E) None of the above. |
A.
Type I |
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The growth of chronic inflammatory tissue into the joint cavities in rheumatoid arthritis is called:
A) Bullae B) Chondromas C) Myelomas D) Pannus E) Granulomas |
D.
Pannus |
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What is the lesion that occurs in Combined Immunodeficiency?
A) Loss of both T and NK cells B) Loss of both B and T cells C) Loss of both neutrophils and macrophages D) Loss of both helper and cytotoxic T cells E) Loss of both eosinophils and neutrophils |
B.
Loss of both B and T cells. |
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Complement factor H deficiency causes which type of glomerular lesion?
A) Type II MPGN B) Type I MPGN C) IgA nephropathy D) Type III MPGN E) Does not cause glomerular lesions |
A.
Type II MPGN |
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Which enzyme is defective in equine severe combined immunodeficiency?
A) Immunoglobulin recombinase B) NADPH oxidase C) DNA-dependent protein kinase D) Adenosine deaminase E) NOX |
C.
DNA-Dependent protein kinase |
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What is a "lupus band"?
A) A characteristic line on the finger nails B) A line seen when lupus serum is electrophoresed. C) A ringing in the ears of lupus patients D) Antibodies deposited on skin basement membrane E) A ring around the nuclei of LE cells. |
D.
Antibodies deposited on skin basement membrane. |
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LAK cells can be induced by exposure to:
A) TNF-a B) IFN-y C) IL-1 D) IL-2 E) IL-3 |
D.
IL-2 |
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Acute allograft rejection is mainly mediated by:
A) B cells B) Macrophages C) Neutrophils D) Cytotoxic T cells E) Eosinophils |
D.
Cytotoxic T cells |
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Which of these dog autoimmune diseases is most common?
A) Epidermolysis bullosa acquista B) Bullos pemphigoid C) Linear IgA dermatosis D) Pemphigus foliaceus E) Pemphigus vulgaris |
D.
Pemphigus foliaceus |
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Many autoimmune diseases are commonly associated with:
A) Recurrent infections B) Hormonal imbalances C) Skin lesions D) Bone lesions E) Lymphoid tumors |
E.
Lymphoid tumors |
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Canine juvenile polyarteriosis mainly affects which breed?
A) Poodles B) Beagles C) German Shepherds D) Labrador Retrievers E) Golden Retrievers |
B.
Beagles |
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The IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells does not involve:
A) Bridging two receptor bound IgE molecules B) Complement activation C) Release of histamine D) Release of vasoactive agents from granules E)Release of leukotrienes |
B.
Complement activation |
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Which of the following techniques is a method of measuring cell-mediated immunity?
A) Radial immunodiffusion B) Response to intradermally injected antigen C) Passive cutaneous anaphylaxis D) Passive hemagglutination E) Complement fixation |
B.
Response to intradermally injected antigen. |
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The major lesion that develops in heart allografts and chronically rejected renal allografts is:
A) Contact dermatitis B) Aplastic anemia C) Allograft rejection D) Graft vascular disease E) GVH disease |
D.
Graft vascular disease |
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An inherited failure to develop a functioning immune system is called:
A) Primary immunodeficiency B) Secondary immunodeficiency C) Acquired immunodeficiency D) X-linked immunodeficiency E) Genetic immunodeficiency |
A.
Primary immunodeficiency |
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In Sjogren's syndrome there is an autoimmune attack on:
A) Thyroid gland B) Lacrimal glands C) Salivary glands D) Pancreas E) B and C |
E. B and C
Lacrimal and Salivary glands |
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Which of these is an example of a zenograft?
A) Human blood transfused into a human B) Pig skin grafted onto a human C) Use of a leg vein in a human heart bypass D) A skin graft from a Collie to a Dachshund E) A bone marrow graft from one cat to another. |
B.
Pig skin grafted onto a human. |
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Animals that develop allergies have excessive:
A) TH2 cell function B) Cell-mediated immunity C) Complement activity D) Macrophage function E) TH1 cell activity |
A.
TH2 cell function |
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Which type of graft will not trigger immunological rejection?
A) Autografts B) Allografts C) Xenografts D) Isografts E) A and D |
E. A and D
Autografts and Isografts |
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Pig xenografts are very rapidly rejected in humans as a result of:
A) Anti-Gal 1,3 antibodies B) Activated NK cells C) Activation of TH17 cells D) Blockage of Treg cell activity E) Activation by endogenous retroviruses |
A.
Anti-Gal 1,3 antibodies. |
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Myasthenia Gravis may be treated using:
A) Anticholinesterases B) Acetylcholine C) Cholinesterases D) Epinephrine E) Muscle relaxants |
A.
Anticholinesterases. |
