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114 Cards in this Set

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2. Under what conditions can you descend below the MDA or DH?
Save the exceptions, if visibility is not below minimums, if you see one of the 10 things in 91.175 § (c) 3. items 1-3

● Approach light system (can't come down if no visual with red side bars);
● The threshold;
● The threshold markings;
● The threshold lights;
● The runway;
● The runway markings;
● The runway lights;
● VASI;
● TDZ;
● TDZ markings;
● TDZ Lights;
3. What are the landing conditions that determine landing minimums?
category of a/c, whether circling approach or not, whether LDA or ILS (for precision), whether ALS is available or not -- see minimums sections of approach plates.
4. What conditions constitute a circling approach?
if the approach is > 30 off from mag direction of runway, or if descent gradient is high, or if a landing on a runway other than that of the approach is desired. note need for higher minimums. also note potential restrictions; no circling NE of airport, for example. also note protected areas for circling, depending upon a/c speed.
5. What is the primary difference between a precision and non-precision approach
a glide slope of sufficient accuracy, airport lighting and markings, and sufficiently accurate lateral navigation.
6. What are the standard alternate minimums
for helicopters, at eta, 200 feet above minimums and one statue mile, but not below the minimum vis for the approach to be flown. note that this is not what is used as a basis for alt mins published on the airport chart.
7. What are the standard takeoff minimums?
there are none for part 91, but parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 use 1/2 mile (91.173)
*8. How do you tell if the airport has standard or non-standard t/o or alternate mins?
if naco, there are the black triangles with A or T in the top part of the plates. On jepp plates, look on the plate with the airport to see specifications. they will be listed at the bottom of the plate.
9. Name the components of an ILS:
ils, localizer, marker beacons, glide slope (see specs).
10. what is a compass locator?
a low-power ndb with a 15 nm range that can be situated at an outer marker or middle marker. identification for an OM is the first two letters of the localizer (minus the I), and the MM (if present) is the second two. the localizer for KCCR is ICCR, so the OM is CC. If there were a MM, it would be CR.
11. What is a marker beacon?
A beacon with a service volume of 4200' by 2400' that notifies a pilot visually and aurally when the airspace is entered. Used for OM, MM, and IM: blue light with dashes of morse for OM, amber with dot-dash repetitions for MM, and white light with dot-dot for IM. Antennae is the long fin at the base of the a/c.
12. What are the colors, sounds, distances, from MAP, and normal altitudes for the following:
OM - dashes, blue, middle pitch, 4-7 nm, about 1000-1400 feet
MM - dot-dash, amber, higher pitch, approx 3500 feet, 200 feet
IM - dots, white, highest pitch, approx 1000 feet, 50 feet
LOM - see OM
LMM - see MM
13. What are the conditions for a Contact Approach?
Vis 1 sm w/a reasonable expectation of being able to maintain that to the surface. Clear of clouds. Must be requested from tower -- they will not assign it.
14. What are the conditions for a visual approach?
Basic VFR, must fly clear of clouds (no other distance from clouds are required), and must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight. Can be assigned by ATC (and, like all clearances, can be refused).
15. How is an a/c approach category determined
1.3 times the aircraft stall speed when at max gross weight. (See Jepp glossary p. 2)
16a. What is an ASR?
airport surveillance radar - radar service that can be used for a/c guidance, OM substitution. ATC will provide lateral guidance with suggested altitudes and fix locations.
16b. What is a PAR?
precision approach radar - military radar that can provide a/c guidance and slope information. Can substitute for OM and MM.
16c. What does "No-gyro approach" means?
will result in ATC guidance indicating "turn left. stop. turn right." etc. outside of FAF, make standard rate turns. inside FAF, make 1/2 standard rate.
17. What does VOR-A on the approach plate mean?
the course is more than 30 degrees off of the runway centerline.
18. Name three situations when the use of a procedure turn would not be authorized.
(1) When "NoPT" is indicated on the approach plate,

(2) if being radar vectored,

(3) if timed approaches from a fix are in use.
19. Define a step-down fix.
A location at which an A/C can descend to a specific altitude. DME may be required.
20. Does an aircraft on an instrument approach in VFR conditions have the right of way over other VFR aircraft?
No, but a/c on an instrument approach is being monitored by ATC. The pilot maintains see-and-avoid responsibility, and ATC may vector a/c on an approach out of the way for traffic.
21. Is it recommended that the aural signal of the marker beacon system be monitored while on approach?
Yes, please. Helpful if the light isn't working properly, and it's a good use of redundancy with a different sensory system.
22. Where is the missed approach executed on a precision approach?
When the a/c on the glide slope reaches DH. Note also time as a backup. Non-precision? When a/c reaches the MDA and time is reached (and distance if DME is given).
23. When reporting a missed approach, what procedure do you follow, and what information do you give?
Execute missed approach (pitch, power, performance/5 T's) following published procedure or clearance given, and report "Helicopter 12345 executing missed approach" to tower. If passed to approach control, report "Helicopter 12345, 700 climbing 1500, executing missed." I usually add the approach specification.
24. Name two situations where you would use an ILS as a non-precision approach:
(1) If the glide slope is not available, or the receiver isn't picking it up;

(2) On a back course.
25. Explain how to use the inoperative components table:
See if any components are inoperative and note any adjusted minimums. Inoperative glide slope will require alternate mins; decommissioned MM won't (for example).
*26. What is the time period and what weather conditions must prevail at your destination in relation to your ETA to not name an alternate?
At the ETA, ceilings must be the higher of 1000 feet AGL or 400 feet above the lowest applicable minimum [of the chosen approach], and visibility must be two miles. If that is the case, an alternate is not necessary. Note that approach must be available.
27. Is it possible to file an airport as an alternate if it does not have an IAP?
Yes, if VFR conditions are forcast for that area.
28. What are the requirements to remain current as an instrument pilot?
Other than other currency issues (medical, passengers, night, checkride/bfr), the pilot must have executed 6 instrument approaches, holds, interception and tracking within the last 6 months to act as PIC (can be in a sim). If they haven't been executed, the pilot must execute them with a safety pilot within the next 6 months, but they can't fly in IMC. If that doesn't happen, the pilot will to go through an instrument proficiency check with a CFII, company check pilot, FAA examiner, military check guy for military types, or other person assigned by the Administrator.
*29. What is the procedure for timing the outbound leg of a holding pattern at a VOR, NDB, and intersection?
Uh, head outbound for a minute (teardrop or parallel), and then turn inbound? If a direct entry, start timing once wings are level passing the fix outbound [or VOR flip].
30. What is the procedure for adjusting the time when the inbound leg is long or short?
Correct by the number of seconds that the leg is long or short; add or subtract accordingly.
31. How do you correct for wind drift in a holding pattern?
Take wind correction for the inbound leg and apply times 3 for the outbound. Or take outbound leg and divide by 3 for inbound. Make sure to apply to the proper direction.
*32. Explain the timing for the initial leg of an instrument approach.
Set your speed and determine the wind correction angle to be applied for later legs, if the direction isn't too different on final.
33. When the approach facility is on the field, where is the missed approach executed?
Upon passing the navaid - when the to/from indicator flips. Note: this is not for localizer/LDA/SDF approaches.
*34. What is the maxmum holding speed for recips and when are you expected to reduce speed
Reduce speed 3 minutes before entering the hold, no faster than 200 kts.
35. Explain the three holding pattern entry procedures and what determines each one: parallel, tear drop, direct, based upon entry direction (see graphic).
(see graphic).
36. Name 5 procedures to check the VOR:
VOT facility (4 degrees), ground-based checkpoint (4 degrees), air-based checkpoint (6 degrees), dual VORs (4 degrees), own checkpoint from chart preferably 20 nm or more from the facility (6 degrees). Note date, error, place, and signature in log.
37. How often does the VOR have to be checked for IFR flight?
Every 30 days.
*39. What is the maximum allowable DG precession error for IFR flight?
5 degrees in 15 minutes? 3 degrees is referenced in the oral exam guide...
40. When using the VOT, name three ways you are checking the VOR:
radial with CDI deflection, ambiguity indicator, Morse code.
41. How often does the pitot-static system have to be checked for IFR flight?
Every 24 months.
42. What are the instruments required for IFR flight?
SOFATACOS plus life jackets/signal device, PALIS for night, MARCO, GRABCARD, whatever else is required by the manufacturer.
43. Where does Class B airspace start?
On the ground. Usually an upside down wedding cake from the surface to 10,000 feet.
44. What is required to fly in Class B airspace?
A mode C transponder, a VOR indicator for IFR flight, a clearance.
45. Name the five views of the instrument approach plate:
(1). header;
(2). briefing strip;
(3). plan view;
(4). profile view;
(5). Airport Diagram;
(6). minimums.
46. In what view is the initial approach data found?
Briefing Strip.
47. What is a minimum safe/sector altitude circle and where is it found on the approach plate?
Upper right, gives 1000 feet of obstacle clearance w/in 25 nm radius (may be greater -- will be indicated). noted as min sector altitude if there are sectors, and MSA (min safe altitude) if the alt is the same for the entire region. Emergency use only.
48. In what view is the TDZE found?
Header, Airport Diagram, profile view.
49. What are the only two AGL altitudes on the approach plate?
HAA, HAT
50. What are the minimum safe altitudes for IFR operations in mountainous and non-mountainous terrain?
2000 feet above and 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 4nm of the course to be flown, respectively.
51. How many degrees does "one dot" represent on a VOR approach?
52. Explain the "sensing" (normal or reverse) on the ILS front and back course, inbound and outbound?
HSI: dial in front course regardless. CDI: dial in front course if inbound on front or outbound on back. Dial in back course if inbound on back or outbound on front. If DG on HSI fails, treat it like a CDI.
53. What are the dimensions of the federal airways and jet airways?
4nm each side, 8nm wide, but if longer than 102nm between stations, additional width due to 4.5 angle from navaids.
54. What is the difference between primary and secondary radar systems?
Primary radar displays a return for the a/c on the radar screen. Subject to reflectivity problems, ground clutter, bending of pulses from temp inversions, and precipitation interference. Secondary radar uses interrogator (on radar antenna), transponder, and decoder at radar facility -- stronger returns plus a/c info on display.
55. What is the purpose of the ident button?
To cause the return to blossom for id on radar
*56. What symbol indicates a sector discrete freq and where would it be found on a chart?
FSS freqs?
57. How is the availability of an ILS depicted on a low altitude chart?
Feather may be there -- not guaranteed. Check approach plates for the airport to be sure.
58. What is the significance of a large ILS feather at an airport?
Indicates the localizer provides navigation function.
59. What is an area chart and how do you know if there is one for a particular area?
A blow-up of a low-altitude chart, akin to a terminal. Look at airport listing on low altitude chart -- it will indicate the area chart if the airport is present on it.
60. Is the use of an area chart required when operating in an area contained in one?
No, but blowup is useful if in crowded area, by class B, etc.
61. Where are the airport and approach control frequencies found on the chart?
See airport list and freqs by airport location.
62. How often are charts and approach plates revised?
Every 56 days; see 28 day updates for jepp and notam changes.
63. How can you tell if an approach plate is current?
Check duat approach plate for amendment number; verify frequencies; check notams.
64. Explain lost comm procedures wrt altitudes, climbs, descents, holds.
After troubleshoot, if VFR, go VFR. If not, use highest of alt in clearance or EFC or MEA - climb to EFC alt at the time or fix given in the clearance.. use route in clearance or EFC or filed. if vectored, go direct to fix, route, airway. if clearance limit is IAF, you have EFC time, wait until time and then proceed. if no EFC time, hold until eta and proceed. if clearance limit is not an IAF, wait until EFC or ETA and then proceed to IAF. proceed from there.
65. If after losing comm you are forced to execute a missed approach at your destination, what would your next action be?
context, please. if a landing seems likely, try again. if not, proceed to alternate. this scenario is
66. what is the sequence of a non-radar sequence report?
pattern: a/c id, position, time (z), altitude, eta for next point, following point.
67. Explain how to correct for wind when tracking to and from and NDB.
if needle is drifting off, try 20 correction. find correction angle and apply so needle no longer drifts.
68. Describe "cruise clearance."
cruise in block of airspace between min ifr altitude and given altitude. also allows for approach at destination. once announced beginning descent, cannot go back up to the vacated altitude.
69. Describe the following systems: (not listed here)
(not listed here)
70. Describe operating principles:
(not listed here)
71. Name all antennas on 300cb:
vor, transponder fin, marker beacon fin, vhf wire, gps, glide slope.
72. What documents are required to be on board the aircraft for IFR flight?
AROW, placards and limitations as per manufacturer, pilots' flight manual, pilot license/medical/id, approach/dp/star/charts and plates (at least descriptions).
73. How do you determine if the a/c is current for IFR flight?
1200 hr/annual, 600 hour, 100 hour, 50 hour, ad compliance, sb compliance, vor test, gps database update, maintenance on specific parts of the a/c -- lifetime. note mels.
74. Describe anti-ice and de-icing equipment
heaters in pitot and parts (blades, for canopy, etc), deice goo, expandable boots (for fixed wings).
75. If no alternate static source is available, what action can the pilot take
crack vsi glass.
76. Describe the effects of pitot-static system blockages.
If pitot blocked, drain hole open, a/s goes to zero.
If pitot and drain blocked, a/s acts like inaccurate altimeter.
If static blocked, vsi goes to 0, alt freezes, a/s acts like the opposite of an altimeter.
If static and pitot and drain freeze, a/s freezes.
If vsi is cracked or alt static used, a/s will be high (7 kts?) and alt will be high (70 feet?) because of reduced air pressure in static line.
77. When heading west and instructed to turn south, what does the mag compass read when the nose of the a/c passes through south?
For a whiskey compass, it would read 32 degrees or so beyond south -- 148 degrees or so. The error is less for vertical card compasses.
78. How does the plot determine if a VOR is down for maintenance
notams, no morse or test code: -. ...
79. What is the standard glide slope angle?
3 degrees.
80. What is frequency pairing?
Only need to dial in one freq to get functionality: LOC/GS for example.
81. Weather reports.
See other flashcards study stack.
82. What is wind shear?
A sudden change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance. Can be horizontal or vertical.
83. What is turbulence and how is it classified?
Irregular motion of air, over a surface or against another current of air. light/mod/severe/extreme chop.
84. What are the stages of a TS?
cumulus, mature, dissipating.
85. What is a temperature inversion?
A layer of warmer air over cooler air, stabilizing the atmosphere.
86. How do you convert ft/nm to ft/min?
See jepp table. Or do the math.
87. What are the difference types of wx briefings available to pilots?
outlook (more than 6 hours in advance of departure), standard (full briefing), abbreviated (listing info that may have changed since briefing, current conditions, any other requested info).
88. what is a clearance limit?
final point of given clearance; must get another clearance to proceed further if the limit is not the destination airport.
89. What is a SID?
A SID (standard instrument departure) is a procedure that a pilot follows to get from the airport into the enroute structure. They can be pilot nav or vector, and are devised to decrease chatter on airport frequencies, simplify departures, and allow pilots to follow procedures that allow obstacle clearance and efficient routing away from the airport. You must have a clearance from ATC to fly a SID, and you must have it with you in the aircraft. (Note the difference between SIDs and obstacle departures -- ob. dep's are for obstacle clearance and can be flown without a clearance from ATC.)
89a. What is a STAR?
A STAR (standard terminal arrival route) allows a pilot to get to the IAF for an approach from the enroute structure. Again, it's a printed procedure that must be in the a/c, and using these stars can simplify instructions for getting to an airport. They are often impractical for helicopters. If you don't want to use a star, indicate "NO STAR" in remarks section of the flight plan. You can say the same for DPs: "NO DP." But if you accept a star or dp, you must fly it.
90. What are all the compulsory reporting points?
points marked as such on charts, or points making up route followed. Pilots need to report at compulsory reporting points if not in a radar environment. Pilots need to report at points requested by ATC, when entering/exiting holds, when going missed, when noting unforecast weather, when there is an issue affecting safety of flight, when an instrument malfunctions (see 5-3-3 for list plus any other if it may impair safety), when changing altitude, when the pilot can't climb or descend at 500 ft/min or when the a/s varies by 10 kts or 5%. If not in the radar environment, pilots must also report when passing the FAF inbound, or if the ETA is off by 3 minutes.
91. What are primary and secondary instruments?
Primary instruments are ones that provide primary information for a specific procedure. The displays usually remain stable throughout the procedure. Secondary instruments also provide information, but the display may be moving over time. The three categories for primary/secondary scanning are pitch, bank, and power. Primary for S&L would be the altimeter, the DG, and the a/s indicator for pitch, bank, and power. The secondaries for pitch are the vsi and attitude indicator; for bank are the turn coordinator, compass, and attitude indicator; for power is the manifold pressure gauge.
92. Talk about how is done a DME arc approach
A DME arc allows a pilot to follow a curved path from an IAF on an approach to an IM. It is flown with a VOR indicator by passing over the IAF, heading 90 off of the direction to the DME facility (towards the arc), correcting for wind, and centering the CDI. When the CDI is off by 2-4 degrees and you've intercepted the arc, change direction by 10 degrees or so, following the curve of the arc, and go straight until you intercept the arc again. Continue in these straight segments around the arc.
92. Cont.
If using an RMI, fly until the RMI points slightly behind the 90 degree point (depending upon wind), and you've reached the correct distance. Alter course by 10 degrees or so, and let the RMI needle drift behind the 90 point again.

In both cases, continue until you reach the lead radials indicating time to turn inbound.
93. What type of flight operations require an instrument rating?
Flight in class A, flying in IMC in controlled airspace (for helicopters -- fixed wing have additional requirements), flying on IFR flight plan.
94. What is an instrument competency check and when is it required?
If a pilot has not performed the mandatory maneuvers in the past 6 months, or the following six months, the pilot must have an instrument competency check.
95. What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?
Enough fuel to fly at cruise airspeed to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate (if required), and fly afterwards for 30 minutes.
96. What pre-flight action is required prior to IFR flight?
Assembling all available information about the flight: wx, wx briefing, timing, fuel requirements, if an alternate is required, airport specs -- runway lengths/approaches/etc, atc delays, a/c preflight, etc.
97. When is DME required?
At and above FL240.
98. What information must be entered in the VOR log after a VOR check?
Signature, place, error, date.
99. When is a transponder required?
Mode C transponder is required above 10,000 feet, within class B airspace, within class C up to 10,000, within 30 nm of appendix D to part 91, section 1. (91.215)
100. What portable electronic devices may be used on board during an IFR flight, and what must be done prior to their use?
Can use pacemakers, hearing aids, shavers, others determined not to interfere with navigation or communication instruments. (91.21)
101. What is a composite flight plan?
One that has separate VFR and IFR components.
102. What does VFR on top mean, when is it used, and what are the limitations?
VFR on top allows a pilot to fly in VFR conditions on an IFR flight plan. The pilot can choose an appropriate VFR altitude and maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements, but must following IFR rules of minimums, reporting, etc., in addition to any other restrictions given by ATC. Can't be given in class A airspace.
*103. What conditions must be met before ATC will approve random RNAV routes
A/C must have appropriate equipment, wx must be appropriate, and traffic must permit the route.
104. What are some factors that determine when direct routes are used?
See 103 above.
105. What are preferred IFR routes, and when are they used?
They are preferred routes between airports and are used whenever possible. They are listed in the A/FD and the Jepp manual and can be requested from tower. They allow efficient routing between airports. And they may be assigned regardless of the request route.
106. When flight planning, how can the pilot determine if the VOR's to be used will be accurate and usable at all altitudes and radials?
Check the A/FD and notams to determine type (and therefore surface volume) as well as restrictions on range and radials. Also note if the VOR is monitored or not -- if not, it may not be working, and you may be the first to discover it.
107. What effect do temperature and pressure have on the altimeter indications?
If going from high to low or hot to cold, look out below. Cold temperatures cause pressure levels to be closer together, hot temperatures spread them apart; following an indicated altitude will cause you to fly lower to the ground. High pressure has raised pressure levels, low pressure has lowered. Same problem arises if an indicated altitude is followed without correction.
108. What is the different between a turn coordinator and a turn and slip indicator
A turn and slip indicator registers yaw of the a/c via precession. A turn coordinator can detect the bank that precedes the yaw and register the turn sooner.
109. What are the flight levels and when are they used
Flight levels are for 18,000 and above -- written FL180. Pilots flying at these altitudes put 29.92 into their altimeters to read pressure altitude instead of true altitude so they don't have to continually adjust their altimeters as they fly.
110. What is Coriolis Force and how does it affect surface and winds aloft?
It is the effect of the earth spinning below the winds and causes winds to be deflected to the right in the N. hemisphere. This counteracts the pull of low pressure zones and the push of high pressure zones -- the result is that, at higher altitudes, wind follows isobars. At lower altitudes, surface friction causes wind to cross the isobars.
111. How does frost form, and what are its effects?
Frost forms when the skin temp of an a/c is below freezing and water vapor is deposited on the surface as ice. It decreases lift and increases draft. All frost must be removed from an a/c prior to departure.
112. What is the dewpoint, and why is it important?
It's the temp the air must be to become saturated. The temp/dewpoint spread indicates possibility of visibility issues -- fog, clouds. When combined with freezing level info, it indicates areas of potential icing.