Ifr

Front 1

Responsibility of PIC?

Back 1

Directly responsible and is the final authority for the operation of the aircraft

Front 2

Right of ways for IFR flights?

Back 2

Under IFR or VFR avoid other aircraft

Front 3

Required reports for equipment malfunction in IFR in Controlled airspace?

Back 3

Any loss of VOR, Tacan, ADF, low frequency nav receiver.

Front 4

How do you obtain IFR clearance?

Back 4

a At airports w/ATC tower in operation
b Airports with out a tower or FSS on the field
* Telephone or RCO (remote communication outlet)
* Clearance delivery outlet (class B)
* ARTCC once airborne (remain VFR in Class E)
Procedures vary…ask the nearest FSS

Front 5

What does "cleared as filed" mean?

Back 5

ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance as filed provided the route little or no revisions

Front 6

Which clearance items are given in an addreviated IFR clearance?

Back 6

C learence Limit (destination airport or limit)
R oute (initial heading)
A ltitude (initial)
F requincy (departure)
T ransponder (squak code)
Note: ATC requires the controller to state the DP name, current # & DP transition name after the phrasefiled" for all DP's
"cleared to destination airport" "then as filed"

Front 7

What does "clearance void time" mean?

Back 7

If you have not departed by a specific time…the clearance is void. Time cannot exceed 30 minutes.

Front 8

What is the purpose of the term "hold and release" mean in an IFR clearance?

Back 8

To delay an aircrafts departure for traffic or management reasons…and you can't depart with that clearance
until a release time or additional instructions are received from ATC

Front 9

Takeoff minimums for 14 CFR 91 IFR

Back 9

Aircraft two engines and less 1sm visibility. More then two 1/2 mile.

Front 10

What is a good practice for determining takeoff minimums for an IFR flight?

Back 10

If the airport has an instrument approach…use the approach minimums for takeoff
If no approach min are published…use VFR minimums 1000 ft and 3sm

Front 11

What are DP's departure procedures?

Back 11

Provide obstacle clearance protection, increase efficiency.

Front 12

What are two types of DP's

Back 12

a ODP's for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC unless a SID or radar vector has been assigned.
b SIDs 9standard instrument procedure) - always printed. Provide obstruction clearance and transition to the enroute.
Primary to reduce pilot/controller workload

Front 13

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

Back 13

Unless specified otherwise, obstacle clearance for all published departures is based
At least 35 feet above the departure end of the runway.
Climbing to 400 feet before initial turn.
Maintain climb gradient of 200 per nautical mile
A greater climb gradient may be specified by the

Front 14

Where are DPs located?

Back 14

By airport in the IFR takeoff minimums and Departure Procedures Section C of the terminal procedures publications TPPs

Front 15

Must you accept a DP if assigned one?

Back 15

No.
Operating from and airport where SIDs are established expect ATC clearances containing a SID.
Use requires a text or graphic depiction.
ATC must be advised if you don't have a copy, or the aircraft is not capable of flying the SID.
Put "No SID" in the remarks section of the flight plan or verbally advise ATC.

Front 16

How do you determine if an airport has a nonstandard takeoff minimums?

Back 16

A large T in a black triangle terminal. Consult TPPs' (terminal procedures publications).

Front 17

When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200' per NM what should the mean to a pilot?

Back 17

Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient. Increase takeoff minimums and allow visual clearance from obstacle

Front 18

Climb gradient of 300' per NM at a ground speed of 100 kts requires what rate of climb?

Back 18

GS divided by 60 times climb gradient = feet per min
100/60*300=498

Front 19

What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude?

Back 19

Promptly at an optimum rate to within 1000' above or below, and then 500' per m to assigned altitude

Front 20

VOR Accuracy Checks Methods?

Back 20

Ground +-4°
Dual VOR within 4°
Airborne +-6°

Front 21

VOR check records?

Back 21

Aircraft Log, date place bearing error and signature, Every 30 days

Front 22

Finding locations of VOR checkpoints?

Back 22

A/FD, IFR low altitude chart

Front 23

Procedure for checking VOR?

Back 23

Tune in 108.0, CDI centered, OBS should read 0, with a TO indication.
remember Cessna 182 - 180 TO

Front 24

Where is altitude encoding equipment required?

Back 24

At or above 10,000'
Within 30 miles of class B
Within and above class C

Front 25

What are the following transponder codes

Back 25

1200--------------VFR
7700--------------Emergency
7600--------------Lost Com
7500--------------Hijack

Front 26

Where can pilots get information about airports?

Back 26

AF/D

Front 27

What do these acronyms stand for
ALS
VASI
PAPI
REIL

Back 27

ALS approach light system
VASI visual; approach slope indicator
PAPI precision approach path indicator
REIL runway end identifier

Front 28

What color are runway edge lights

Back 28

white, except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2000' or half the runway.

Front 29

What colors are rotating beacons

Back 29

Land Airport White/Green
Water Airport White/Yellow
Military 2White/Green

Front 30

What does a rotating beacon operation in daylight hours mean

Back 30

Ground visibility less than 3 sm ceiling less than 1000 agl

Front 31

Where would you find runway lengths?

Back 31

AF/D

Front 32

What are touchdown zone markings?

Back 32

Identify the touchdown zone
500 foot increments
one two are three rectangular bars arranged in pairs about the centerline.

Front 33

What is the purpose of runway aiming point marking

Back 33

Serves as a visual aiming point. Two broad white stripes and 1000' from threshold

Front 34

How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend

Back 34

3000'