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355 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
***propranolol binds to:***
B1 and B2 adr's with equal affinity

- it's nonselective
effects of propranolol on the CV system:

(3)
1. dec. HR

2. dec. CO (with corresponding dec. in TPR initially)

3. dec. blood flow to most tissues
**chronic effect of propranolol =**
dec. BP without postural hypotension
B-antagonists tend to be _______ - specific, b/c:
B1-specific,

b/c blocking B2 leads to lots of problems
B2-antagonists are contraindicated in:

(3)
1. asthma/bronchitis/emphysema (due to B2's relaxation of bronchioles)

2. insulin-dependent diabetes (due to B2-adr in liver increasing glycogenolysis)

3. serious allergies
why is it bad to give EPI to someone on B2 blockers?
b/c EPi will cause a serious increase in BP, due to no B2 relaxation but plenty of a1 constriction
side-effects of blocking B1-adr's:

(3)
1. potential inducement of CHF

2. potential life-threatening bradycardia

3. up-regulation of receptors
B1-selective antagonists are NOT:
specific

- will invariably activate other kinds of B adr's, at least a little
there are different kinds of B-adr antagonists:

(3)
1. B1-selective

2. B-antagonists with ISA

3. 3rd-gen Beta blockers
examples of B1-selective antagonists:

(3)
1. atenolol

2. metoprolol

3. esmolol
ISA =
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
prime example of Beta-adr antagonist with ISA -
pindolol
pindolol:

(2)
1. nonselective

2. partial agonist
partial agonist =
an antagonist that still causes some stimulation of the receptor

i.e. has a small amount of sympathomimetic effects
administering pindolol =>
slightly elevated HR, despite blocking Iso, NOR, and EPI
sympathetic effects of partial agonist are less than:
that of sympathetic hormones/NT's, but greater than nothing
**3rd-gen Beat blockers like labet and carve block not only B1 but:**
1. other B-adr's

2. a1 adr's
what's the ultimate effect of 3rd-gen Beta-blockers?
**improve CHF**
therapeutic uses of Beta blockers:

(5)
1. all heart problems

2. HTN

3. glaucoma (blocking B1 specifically)

4. stage fright

5. skel muscle tremors
2 features of "classical" alpha blockers:
1. nonselective

2. dec BP
side-effects of classic alpha blockers:

(2)
1. postural hypotension

2. tachycardia
why do nonselective alpha-blockers cause postural hypotension?
b/c of the decrease in BP that they cause - blood doesn't get to the head
why do nonselective alpha-blockers cause tachycardia?

(2)
1. to make up for that postural hypotension

2. due to continuous release of NOR, because blocked a2 adr's can't participate in negative feedback
why are a1-selective blockers valuable?
not blocking a2 => NO tachycardia
examples of a1-selective antagonists:
all the 'zosins
therapeutic uses of a-adr antagonists:

(3)
1. HTN

2. CHF

3. urinary obstuction (BPH)
BPH =
benign prostate hypertrophy
to treat BPH:
block a1 receptors

=> dec. SM contraction and cell proliferation of prostate and bladder neck
what's the best drug for BPH, specifically?
tamsulosin
why is tamsulosin the best treatment for BPH?
because it targets the alpha1A-receptor subtype specifically

- allows you to treat BPH without messing other things up
there are 3 types of alpha receptors:
a1A, a1B, a1D
to treat migraines, use:
sumatriptan, a 5HT1D-receptor agonist
the ANS is ALWAYS:
active

- continual, intrinsic tone
the somatic NS is NOT always active - it's:
voluntary
rate-limiting factor of ACH synthesis =
**availability of choline**
choline is __________________
essential

- can only be obtained from the diet
**the vast majority of choline from broken-dwon ACH is:**
reuptaken
what takes up choline after ACH breakdown?
HAChTS
HAChTS =
high-affinity choline transport system
HAChTS:

(2)
1. restricted to cholinergic nerve terminals

2. blocked by H3T
all nerve terminals contain:
alternate NT's and receptors

=> NT soup in the synapse
ACHE:

(2)
1. VERY fast - allows fine motor control

2. found presynaptically, postsynaptically, and at the NMJ
pseudo/plasma/butyryl choine esterases are NOT:
found in the ANS

- but hydrolyze ACH in the blood
what does botulinum toxin do?
blocks ACH release
what does nerve gas do?
irreversibly blocks ACHE's
muscarinic receptors:

(2)
1. = GPCR's

2. really slow compared to ionotropic receptors
what do muscarinic receptors cause, in general?

(3)
1. dec. cAMP

2. inc. Ca2+

3. inc. K+ efflux
how many muscarinic receptor subtypes are there?
5
what do M1, 3, and 5 cause when bound?
increased PLC

=> increased Ca2+

=> ***increased SM contractions, increased secretions***
secretions are caused by:
Ca2+
what do M2 and M4 cause?

(2)
1. dec. adenylyl cyclase => dec. cAMP

2. inc. K+ efflux, via GIRK's

=> **decreased HR**
2 types of nicotinic receptors:
N1 and N2
N1 =
skeletal nicotinic receptor

- N2 = neural
both N1 and N2 are very, very:
fast
why are the nicotinic receptors very fast?

(2)
1. high density of receptors

2. low affinity for receptors
depolarization blockade =
inability to repolarize b/c agonist is continually binding
how does depolarization blockade usually occur?
via inhibition of ACHE's
cholinergic drugs should rarely be administered via:
IV or IM
how do direct-acting drugs act?
by binding to the receptor, activating it to cause ACH effects
how do indirect-acting drugs work?
they impair ACHE's, keeping ACH around longer
NO is an
NT
most common side effects of cholinomimetic drugs:

(2)
1. SLUDS

2. vasodilation
SLUDS =
salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, and sweating (via symp. NS)
**sweating is a:
sympathetic response**
most serious side effects of cholinomimetic drugs:

(3)
1. hypotension

2. bradycardia

3. bronchial constriction
methacholine:

(3)
1. **direct-acting** cholinomimetic

2. long-lasting

3. diagnoses asthma
how are some cholinomimetic drugs longer-lasting?

(2)
1. impervious to plasma CHE's

2. resistant to ACHE's
glaucoma ~~
increased ocular pressure
carbocal:

(3)
1. long-lasting cholinomimetic

2. acts on muscarinic receptors

3. treats glaucoma
pilocarpine treats:
glaucoma

[by increasing outflow]
notable uses of direct-acting cholinomimetics:

(2)
1. diagnose asthma

2. treat glaucoma
sweating/flushing = sign of
ACH toxicity
contraindications for cholinomimetics:

(2)
1. asthma

2. peptic ulcer
total pressure of all gases =
760 mm HG
1 tor =
760 mmHg
big A =
Alveolar
small a =
arterial
**the body keeps PAO2 at _______ and PACO2 at ________
100;

40
conducting zone =

(4)
trachea, bronchus, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles
conducting zone:

(2)
1. NO O2 exchange - no caps nearby

2. = anatomic dead space
respiratory zone =

(3)
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs
respiratory zone ~~
gas exchange
alveoli are HIGHLY ______________________
vascularized

- veins are red
**csa ______________ as you move down the respiratory zone**
**increases**

- so air velocity slows down as a result
expiration is ___________;
**passive**

- takes longer than inspiration
P x V = constant; significance?
as one goes up, the other goes down
inhale => diaphragm contracts =>
increase in volume vertically => dec. Pressure => Patm greater than P Alveoli => air comes in
*Patm always =
zero, for reference**
the pleural space is filled with:
water, causing lungs to stick to chest wall
what is intrapleural pressure during expiration?
-5 cmH2O
what is intrapleural pressure during inspiration?
-8
the lung wants to:
collapse;

the chest wall wants to spring up
**negetive Pressure =
suction**
***transpulmonary pressure = ***
difference between intrapleural pressure and alveolar pressure
***transpulmonary pressure equation: ***
P Alveoli - intrapleural pressure
***what does the transpulmonary pressure of +5 during expiration do?***
holds the lung open because it's pulling
***what does the transpulmonary pressure of +7 during inspiration do?***
**overcomes the elasticity of the lung, causing it to expand

- this is turn creates a sub-atm Pressure in the alveoli => air comes in
lungs disorders are either:

(2)
1. obstructive, like emphysema

2. restrictive
minute ventilation =
Tidal Volume x RR
anatomic dead space =
portion of the minute ventilation that doesn't actually participate in gas exchange,

b/c it fills the conducting airways
alveolar dead space =
alveoli NOT participating in gas exchange due to lack of blood flow past them
physiological dead space =
anatomical + alveolar dead space
hysteresis =
lower volume at same pressure during inspiration, and greater volume during expiration

- remember chart
- slope = compliance
lung compliance is determined by:

(2)
1. elastic recoil

2. ST
elastic materials:


(2)
1. resist stretching,

2. assist deflation
water interacts better with:
itself than with air

=> will create tension on the water-air surface as it pulls in to itself
direction of Tension vector of a bubble:
always IN
as Tension of a bubble pulls in,
internal Pressure pushes out
Pressure of a bubble =
2T/r
alveoli ~~
bubbles
without SFT, alveoli would be susceptible to **collapse** at:
end-expiration
why would alveoli without SFT be susceptible to collapse at end-expiration?
too great of a **ST**
alveolar collapse is prevented by:

(2)
1. SFT

2. alveolar interdependence
the majority component of SFT =
phosphatidylcholine (PC)
what are 2 critical proteins of SFT?
SPB, SPC
SPB and SPC:

(2)
1. small, hydrophobic peptides

2. ***essential to formation of SFT layer***
what produces SFT?
Type II alveolar cells
SFT heads stick into:
H20,

and tails stick into air
air is actually:
hydrophobic
***remember that air is on the:
INSIDE of the alveoli***
how does SFT decrease ST?
during expiration, alveoli deflate => dec. SA => inc. coverage of surface by SFT => dec. interface b/w air and water => dec ST
greater interface between air and water =
**greater total ST**
during inspiration, alveoli expand => inc. SA =>
dec. coverage by SFT => inc. interface between air and water => inc. ST
inc. SFT =>
***increased compliance***
what causes hysteresis between inspiration and expiration?
SFT
babies with RDS are born:
before Type II alveolar cells develop
result of not having developed Type II alveolar cells =
not enough SFT

=> dec. compliance, collapsed alveoli
what's the big idea behind alveolar interdependence?
***when they are close enough,*** alveoli tug on each other to prevent collapse of any single alveolus
when is alveolar interdependence especially important?
during end-expiration,

when alveolar collapse is most probable
alveolar interdependence explains why the compliance slope becomes more steep during inflation:
the more the alveoli inflate, the closer they are to each other, the more they tug on each other
in obstructive diseases, lung compliance:
increases

=> lungs inflate easily, like a condom

- **but it's harder to expire**
in restrictive disease, lung compliance:
decreases

=> **very hard to inflate, like a surgical hose**
total compliance =
lung + chest wall compliance
chest wall compliance decreases with:
decreasing rib cage mobility, as in obesity
at FRC, chest wall Pressure and lung Pressure are:
equal

- tendency of the lung to collapse is opposed by tendency of chest wall to spring out
what does pneumothorax do?

(2)
1. uncouples chest wall from lung

2. increases work of breathing
tension pneumothorax ~~
collapsed lung
the lung:chest energy transfer system:

(4)
1. as lungs deflate, they give energy to ribs to spring out

2. as chest expands, it inflates the lungs

3. think potential and kinetic energy - always equal a constant

4. decreases work of breathing
the work of breathing is increased in:

(4)
1. obesity

2. RDS

3. obstructive diseases

4. restrictive diseases
flow of air Q =
P/R
Resistance of the lungs is HIGHLY dependent on:
radius,

as well as on flow
trachea, mainstem bronchi flow =
turbulent flow
most of bronchial tree flow =
transitional flow
small airways' flow =
laminar flow
***total airway Resistance ___________ as you go down the lungs***
**decreases**
relative csa's:
respiratory bronchioles >>> terminal bronchioles >>> trachea/bronchi
increased csa in respiratory bronchioles =>
decreased velocity => O2 moves faster by diffusion than by flow

=> gas exchange
small airways contribute only slightly to overall lung resistance in healthy lungs; significance:

(2)
1. called the silent zone b/c changes in R here are hard to notice

2. disease must become well-advance before it can be detected
**as Volume of airways increases (with inspiration), radius ____________ and Resistance _______________**
increases;

decreases

- vice versa for expiration
at a certain point of forced expiration, the amount expired will NOT:
increase,

**even though effort might**
effort-independent expiration is a result of:
transmural pressure

(the pressure between any 2 compartments)
with every forced expiration, P of Alveoli is dissipated/decreases along the length of the airway =>
P.Alveoli reaches the point where it's equal to pleural Pressure == point of max expiratory flow, independent of effort
if the point of equal pressure between the pleural and Alveolar pressure occurs in non-cartilagenous airway, the airway will:
collapse

(not fully though, due to alveolar interdependence
why does outflow of air continue despite collapsed airway during forced expiration?
b/c of elastic recoil of the lungs
emphysema ~~
**premature** small airway collapse,

due to higher R along length of the airway
coping strategies of people with obstructive pulm diseases:

(3)
1. exhale slowly

2. breathe off the top of the lungs

3. purse lips for back pressure
what does exhaling slowly do?
results in a lower intrapleural Pressure
what does breathing off the top of the lungs do?
increase diameter, decrease R
all 3 coping strategies force the equal pressure point closer to:
the cartilagenous airways, preventing airway collapse
both obstructive and restrictive pulm diseases have a lower:
peak flow rate than normal
large airways:

(2)
1. lowest individual R due to large diameters

2. but largest fraction of total lung R due to smallest aggregate csa
small airways:

(2)
1. high R per individual segment

2. but smallest fraction of total lung R due to huge aggregate csa
in the small airways, Resistance is **dynamic**;
decreases during inspiration, increases during expiration
FEV1 =
volume of air expired in the first second of max expiration
FEV1 is expressed as:
a % of FVC
FVC =
forced vital capacity
healthy YA's have a FEV1 of:
>80%
FEF 25-75% reflects:
Resistance of small airways
FEV1 and FVC are decreased in:
both obstructive diseases AND restrictive diseases

(but less so in restrictive diseases, and their FEV1/FVC *ratio* is greater than normal)
a1 adr's activate Gq => inc. Ca2+ =>
**constriction of blood vessels**
what's the most important function of a2 adr's?
to regulate NOR release from sympathetic nerves (via negative feedback)
B1 adr's cause:

(3)
1. inc. HR at SA node

2. inc. contractility at atria and ventricles

3. inc. aqueous humor released from ciliary body
B2 adr's cause:

(3)
1. **relaxation of blood vessels**

2. **bronchodilation**

3. outflow of aq. humor
main muscarinic receptor of the heart =
M2
SLUDGE =
salivation,
lacrimation,
urination,
defication,
GI motility,
emesis
Atropine:

(3)
1. classic muscarinic antagonist

2. nonselective

3. opposes nerve gas
what do *indirect-acting* cholinergic blockers do?
**tie up or inhibit ACHE**
**3 kinds of indirect-acting ChE inhibitors:**
1. quaternary alcohols

2. carbamate esters

3. organophosphates
quaternary alcohols:

(2)
1. only form ionic bonds

2. => very short-acting
best example of a quaternary alcohol =
Edrophonium
Edrophonium:

(2)
1. quaternary alcohol (short-lasting indirect-acting cholinergic blocker)

2. diagnoses MG if patient gets stronger after dose
MG:

(2)
1. autoimmune disease

2. destroys nicotinic receptors
carbamate esters bind as:
substrates

=> **long-lasting** ChE inhibitors
best example of a carbamate ester =
Neostigmine
Neostigmine:

(5)
1. long-lasting

2. improves transmission at NMJ

3. stimulates GI and urinary contraction/secretion

4. also treats MG

5. problem: nonselective
**problem with Neostigmine:**
it's NONSELECTIVE
problem with Neostigmine being a nonselective ChE inhibitors:
ACH/ACHE is used **everywhere**

=> inhibited ACHE everywhere => unintended ACH-less consequences everywhere

(however, desensitization occurs over time)
***normal ACH effects:***

(4)
1. SLUDGE

2. bradycardia

3. bronchial constriction

4. constriction of pupil
ChE inhibitors treat:

(3)
1. MG (also diagnose)

2. glaucoma

3. overdoses of muscarinic blockers
side-effects of ChE inhibitors =
excessive ACH/parasympathetic effects, b/c ACH is sticking around longer
organophosphates:

(2)
1. **irreversibly** inhibit AChE's

2. **nonselective** => taken up e/w
***what does irreversibly inhibiting AChE's lead to?***
***respiratory paralysis***
2 best examples of irreversible ChE inhibitors:
1. DFP

2. Sarin (nerve gas)
DFP treats ______________, but only as ________________________________________________________________
glaucoma;

last resort, because it causes cataracts
***treatments of organophosphates:***

(3)
1. ventilator, immediately

2. atropine

3. pralidoxine
pralidoxine =
fast-acting ACHE regenerator;

must be administered soon after poisoning
cholinergic blockers are used for:
anything that requires a dec. in ACH/parasymp. activity, like mydriasis or excessive secretions
mydriasis =
chronic dilation of the pupil
cycloplegia =
paralysis of the ciliary muscles

=> loss of accomodation
***3 types of cholinergic blockers:***
1. muscarinic receptor blockers

2. nicotinic ganglionic receptor blockers

3. nicotinic neuromuscular blockers
most important feature of ***muscarinic blockers:***
they are **competitive**
best example of a muscarinic blocker =
atropine
atropine:

(3)
1. antimuscarinic

2. enters CNS

3. results in atropine flush, mild tachy
atropine flush =
dilation of facial blood vessels
toxicity of muscarinic blockers is NOT:
lethal
all nicotinic ganglionic receptor blockers are:
nonselective

- and b/c ganglia are everywhere, they block everywhere
side effects of nicotinic ganglionic blockers:

(7)
1. vasodilation

2. dec. venous return

3. tachy

4. dec. tone/motility of GI

5. urinary retention

6. dry mouth

7. mydriasis
there are 2 types of nicotinic ganglionic receptor blockers:
1. competitive/nondepolarizing

2. noncomp/depolarizing
best example of a competitive nicotinic ganglionic blocker =
trimethaphan
**trimethaphan:**

(3)
1. competitive nicotinic ganglionic blocker

2. **very short-lasting**

3. used ONLY during hypertensive crises
best example of a noncomp/depol nicotinic ganglionic blocker =
nicotine
nicotine:

(3)
1. noncomp nicotinic blocker

2. highly toxic

3. NO therapeutic uses
effects of nicotine:

(4)
1. n/v

2. headache

3. dizziness

4. weakness
there are 2 types of nicotinic neuromuscular receptor blockers:
1. competitive

2. depolarizing
***which ACH receptor is used at the NMJ?***
**nicotinic**
best example of a competitive nicotinic NM blocker =
curare

(D-Tubo)
curare (D-Tubo):

(2)
1. competitive nicotinic NM recept. blocker

2. paralyzes skeletal muscle
**how is curare overcome?**
by AChE *inhibitors*
best example of noncomp. nicotinic NM receptor blocker =
succinylcholine
succinylcholine:

(2)
1. **very** rapid and brief

2. => rapid paralysis but rapidly broken down by plasma AChE
what is the advantage of using succinylcholine over curare?
**it's rapid and brief**
***what is a disadvantage of using succinylcholine?***
it's got **no antagonists**

- cannot be overcome

- must be broken down by plasma AChE's
phase II block =
desensitization to succinylcholine after repeated administration
minute ventilation = MV =
TV x RR
**alveolar ventilation** =

(how much ventilation actually occurs at the alveoli)
MV - dead space ventilation
**at constant CO2 production, doubling alveolar ventilation => **
halving PACO2
**at constant CO2 prouction, halving alveolar ventilation => **
doubling PACO2
b/c COs2 is so soluble, PACO2 =
PaCO2
***regulation of ventilaiton is driven primarily by:***
PaCO2
hyperpnea =
the normal increase in ventilaiton due to increase in metabolism

- e.g. exercise => inc. CO2, so ventilation increases to maintain normal PCO2
hyperventilation =
disproportionate increase in ventilation relative to metabolism, causing a dec. in PCO2
hypoventilation =
disproportionate decrease in ventilation relative to metabolism

=> *increase in PCO2*
if the lung is functioning properly, the pressures of O2 and CO2 at the end of the cap will be:
the same as those in the alveoli
***normal A-a difference = ***
age/4 +4
ventilation is NOT uniformly distributed throughout the lung; apical alveoli:
remain open during expiration => more distended
alveoli at the base of the lung are more:
compliant

=> more ventilation to the bottom
features of the pulmonary circulation:

(2)
1. low Pressure

2. high volume
low pressure of pulmonary circulation prevents:
fluid extravasation/edema
arterioles of the pulmonary circulation are:
numerous, short, thin, and have *little*SM

(unlike systemic arterioles)
airway caliber =
diameter
pulmonary caps are highly:
compliant
2 classes of pulmonary vessels:
1. extra-alveolar

2. alveolar
extra-alveolar vessels:

(2)
1. *not adjacent* to alveoli

2. increase caliber/decrease R when inflating
alveolar vessels:

(2)
1. adjacent to alveoli

2. when alveoli are inflating, they get squished (=> dec. caliber, increased R)
blood flow to the lung is different depending on:
which region of the lung you're looking at
zone 1 of the lungs:

(3)
1. top

2. ~ pinched off/collapsed caps due to PA > Pa > Pv

3. => **least perfusion**
zone 2 of the lungs:

(2)
1. Pa > PA > Pv

2. collapse/pinch occurs near venules on the right, due to pressure dissipating until it falls below PA
zone 3 of the lungs:

(4)
1. bottom

2. Pa > Pv > PA

3. airway at the alveoli is wide open

4. ~ greatest perfusion

(draw it out)
ventilation and perfusion at the apex of the lungs:

(5)
1. stretched out due to higher intrapleural P

2. low compliance

3. low ventilation, even lower Q

4. ***=> high V/Q***

5. higher PaO2
***V/Q is directly proportional to:***
PAO2
ventilation/perfusion at the bases of the lungs:

(5)
1. not stretched

2. high compliance

3. high V, higher Q

4. ***=> low V/Q***

5. lower PAO2
hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction =
how pulmonary arteries *constrict* if PO2 is low in certain alveoli, thereby shunting blood to perfuse well-ventilated ones

- preserves V/Q ratio of 1:1
hypoxia =
inadequate oxygenation of blood
widespread alveolar hypoxia (via hypoxic pulm. vasoconstriction, due to late-stage disease) =>
increase in pulmonary artery pressure

=> pulmonary HTN
long-standing pulmonary HTN =
cor pulmonale
O2/CO2 exchange occurs via
passive diffusion
CO2 is much more __________ than O2
permeable
increased SA of diffusion barrier =>
increased diffusion
SA of the blood-gas barrier is very:
large
thickness of the blood-gas diffusion barrier is:
miniscule;

allows for tons of gas exchange despite many layers of tissue in the diffusion pathway
lung = sheet of blood b/w:
2 thing papers of exchange membranes
***PO2 and PCO2 equilibrate in about the same amount of time, ***
0.25 sec
time it takes for RBC to flow past alveoli =
0.75 sec
since it takes an RBC 0.75 sec to pass through the cap, and, and only 0.25 secs for the gases to equilibrate, there is:
reserve time for additional gas exchange,

as during exercise, when blood flow rate is increased, or for altitude, when O2 gradient (drive) decreases
O2 takes _____ secs to bind to Hb
0.20
**O2 bound to Hb does NOT factor into:**
the partial pressure of O2 at the caps
N2O:

(4)
1. perfusion-limited

2. highly permeable gas

3. equilibrates so fast that blood will *always* leave with full N2O, no matter the transit time

4. => greater perfusion just means more N2O is taken up
CO (gas):

(4)
1. diffusion-limited

2. very low permeability

3. binds nearly irreversibly to Hb => enters Hb sink

4. blood will *never* be full equilibrated with CO, even if flow rate slows down significantly
pathologies that increase the diffusion barrier can turn O2 from ___________________ to _________________
perfusion-limited;

diffusion-limited
turning O2 into a diffusion-limited gas ~~
blood leaves alveoli before O2 is fully equilibrated

=> PAO2 > PaO2
some pathologies may allow O2 equilibration at rest, but not:
during exertion
DL-CO =
reflection of all diffusion parameters:

SA, permeability, thickness, Hb sink, etc.
2/3 of O2 consumed goes to:
skeletal muscle, brain, and liver,

in equal parts
1/3 of O2 consumed goes to;
the rest of the body
O2 is carried through blood in 2 forms:
1. bound to Hb - 98%

2. dissolved in blood - 2%
dissolved O2 is insufficient for:
metabolic needs
P50 of the O2 dissociation curve is the point at which:
Hb is 50% saturated
significant decline in O2 sat. occurs rapidly after:
60 mmHg of PO2
placing patients on supplemental O2 has little affect until around:
70 mmHg of PO2
low O2 ~~ systemic cap's ~~
**lower part of the curve**

- Hb is unloading O2 for the tissues to use
venous blood curve is shifted ____________ relative to the O2 dissociation curve (arterial)
rightward;

~~ decreased affinity of Hb for O2
***Bohr Effect*** =
righward shift of the O2 curve
the Bohr effect is the result of:

(3)
1. low pH

2. high CO2

3. high Temp
the Bohr effect indicates:
**increased release of O2 due to decreased affinity of Hb for O2**
the Bohr effect occurs at:
**metaboli/systemic tissues**
CO2 is carried in the blood in 3 forms:
1. dissolved (10%)

2. carbamino cmpnds (30%)

3. as HCO3 (60%)
"carbamino cmpd" ~~
bound to protein, usually Hb
in the tissues, O2 is converted into:
CO2
pathway of CO2 from systemic tissue:

(7)
1. pumped out to blood

2. 10% of it dissolves

3. rest enters RBC's

4. 60% converted to HCO3 via CA

5. HCO3 is pumped out of RBC and into blood, in exchange for Cl-

6. H+ binds HbO2, kicks off O2 => O2 to tissues

7. 30% of CO2 binds to proteins like Hb, forming carbamino cmpds
CO2 pathway is _____________ in the lungs
reversed

=> CO2 taken up from blood and into alveoli
what is the Halldane Effect?
oxygenation of hemoglobin (Hb) decreases the affinity of Hb for CO2;

- most important for the liberation of CO2 into the alveoli
CO2 dissociation curves are nearly:
linear
CO2 curve: ***lower PCO2 = ***
***lower blood/tissue content of CO2***
PCO2 is directly proportional to:
CO2 content of the tissue
physiological pH =
7.4
primary buffer system of the body =
HCO3 and CO2

- they regulate phys pH
***kidneys control the concentration of:
HCO3

- lungs control PCO2
buffering =
keeping pH steady despite changes to acid/base concentrations
when CO2 production = elimination, pH is:
constant
2 kinds of acid in the body:
1. volatile/respiratory

2. nonvolatile/fixed acids
2 examples of volatile / respiratory acids:
HCO3 and CO2
HCO3 is considered a volatile acid b/c:
it drives production of CO2
volatile acids are eliminated by:
the lungs
nonvolatile/fixed acids are:
end products of metabolism

(lactic acid, HCL, etc.)
nonvolatile acids are eliminated by:
the kidneys
good buffers are effective within:
1 pH unit in both directions of their pKa
pKa of HCO3 =
6.1
why is HCO3 an excellent buffer?

(3)
1. it's abundant

2. it's part of an open system

3. PCO2 and HCO3 can be regulated independently (by kidney and lung, respectively)
"open system" refers to how the body is:
connected to the air via the lungs
other buffers apart from HCO3 exist, like:
Hb

- rich in Histidine = good buffer
buffering occurs both intra- and extracellularly; volatile acids are buffered ______________________, and fixed acids are buffered _____________________________
intracellularly;

both intra- and extracellularly
acid-base disturbance =
departure from normal values of pH, PaCO2, and HCO3
acidosis =
pH below 7
***hypoventilation => HIGH:***
PCO2
changes in ventilation can eiterh disrupt pH or:
compensate for a disruption in pH
HCO3 is a:
base
hyperventilation => LOW
PCO2
time difference between renal and respiratory compensation:
renal compensation takes hours to days;

respiratory compensation is immediate
renal compensation:

(2)
1. eliminate acids

2. reclaim HCO3
**PCO2 is proportional to:
[ HCO3 ]
HCO3 is proportional to:
pH

- as HCO3 increases, pH increases (less H+)
conditions that cause respiratory acidosis:

(2)
1. HYPOventilation

2. obstructive lung disease (fibrosis, asthma, emphysema)
conditions that cause resp. alkalosis:

(2)
1. hyperventilation

2. asthma
compensation for resp. acidosis:

(2)
1. kidneys eliminate nonvolatile/fixed acids

2. kidneys retain more HCO3

net effect = increase plasma HCO3, inc. pH
compensation for resp. alkalosis =
less excretion of acid by kidneys
***metabolic acidosis and alkalosis occur WITHOUT:***
changes in PCO2
metabolic acidosis occurs b/c of:
overproduction of metabolic products (lactic acid, keto acids)
compensation for metabolic acidosis =
**hyperventilation**

to decrease CO2 and increase HH equation's PCO2 ratio to HCO3=> increase in pH
causes of metabolic alkalosis:

(2)
1. vomiting

2. diuretics
compensation for metabolic alkalosis =
HYPOventilation
5 causes of hypoxemia:
1. reduced PIO2

2. hypoventilation

3. diffusion impairment

4. anatomic shunt

5. V/Q mismatch
reduced PIO2 ~~
higher elevation,

=> lower PO2 from the start => lower driving force all the way down in alveoli
hypoventilation is improved with:
supplemental O2

- O2 problem is easy to fix; it's the increased CO2 and dec. pH that are the real problems
diffusion impairment =
increased diffusion barrier

=> lung becomes diffusion-limited
diffusion impairment is HIGHLY:
treatable with O2

=> supplemental O2 increases the driving force => increased diffusion
anatomic shunt (bean in bronchus):

(3)
1. usually an extra-pulmonary cause, like airway block

2. **supplemental O2 will NOT help**

3. PCO2 can be normal, due to elevated ventilation
**why doesn't an anatomic (airway) shunt respond to supp. O2?**
b/c alveoli are not being ventilated;

perfusion can be high, but it doesn't matter
anatomic shunts are different from anatomic dead space, which refers to:
alveoli not being **perfused**
if a patient doesn't respond to O2, they probably have:
anatomic shunt
detailed - why anatomic shunts can't be helped with O2:

(3)
1. Hb from well-ventilated alveoli is already saturated with O2

2. extra O2 from well-ventilated areas is dissolved O2

3. dissolved O2 is not enough to saturate Hb from poorly-ventilated areas
pulmonary venous admixture has low:
O2 content
best V/Q ratio =
1
even a normal lung has some:
V/Q mismatch
what is the single biggest cause of hypoxemia?
V/Q mismatch
different regions of the lung have different:
V/Q ratios
V = zero corresponds to:
anatomic shunt, i.e. no ventilation
emphysema V/Q ratio is:
high, due to poor perfusion
bronchitis V/Q ratio is:
low, due to blocked ventilation
during exercise, BOTH:
V and Q increase, in proportion

=> maximum drive, without hypoxemia
in diseases, only one or the other:
changes

(referring to V and Q)
what is the rate-limiting factor of exercise?
CO,

not ventilation
V/Q mismatch responds to:
supplemental O2
which of the 5 causes of hypoxemia respond to supplemental O2?

(4)
1. hypoventilation

2. diffusion impairment

3. V/Q mismatch

4. altitude
which conditions cause an increase in the A-a difference?

(4)
1. V/Q mismatch

2. physiological shunt

3. diffusion impairment

4. intracardiac right-to-left shunt
which conditions do NOT change the A-a difference?

(3)
1. hypoventilation

2. reduced arterial O2 content due to dec. carrying capacity

3. low barometric pressure