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305 Cards in this Set

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EIDWS Board Questions:
Common Core:
Heritage and Doctrine 102:
1. What are the six areas the comprise the Naval Doctrine
Naval Warfare, Naval Intelligence, Naval Operations, Naval Logistics, Navy Planning and Naval Command and Control
2. Describe Naval Command and Control and Naval Logistics
- Naval Command and Control- Provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of Commanders, forces and weapon systems. Naval Logistics- Addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of Naval forces
3. Describe Naval Warfare and Naval Intelligence
Naval Warfare- Describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of Naval Forces, Naval Intelligence-Points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and other operations other than war
4. Describe Naval Planning and Naval Operations
Naval Planning- examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and in addition to operational planning in the joint and multinational environment. Naval Operations- develops the doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of the US Navy and Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions
5. What was the first US Vessel named after an enlisted man and when was it launched
Osmond Ingram DD-255, launched February 28 1919
6. What are the seven principles of Naval logistics
Responsiveness, Simplicity, Flexibility ,Economy, Attainability, Sustainability and Survivability
7. What is the tradition “Dipping the Ensign”
Merchant ships “salute” Navy ships by dipping their ensigns
8. A national salute of 21 guns is fired on what three holidays
Washington Birthday, Memorial and Independence Day
9. When was the “Voyage of the Great White Fleet and what was its significance
December 16. 1907 and left Hamptons Roads Virginia for a world cruise to show the flag and demonstrate the strength of the US Navy
10. When was the Battle of Leyte Gulf and what was its significance
October 23, 1944, it was Japan’s last ditch effort to salvage the Philippines by sending the Japanese Naval forces to the region and as a result the plan backfired and the Japanese lost control of the Philippines. The loss of the Philippines severed their empire, and the homeland was cut off from its main source of supply from the south
11. What was the “ On the Roof Gang” and when was it established
In July, 1928; CNO announced the establishment of a school to instruct radio operators in intercept operations, particularly for Japanese kana. Since these classes were held in a wood structure set atop the Navy Headquarters Building in Washington, and since the radiomen could not explain their classwork to others, they eventually acquired the nickname, "The On-the-Roof Gang”
12. When was the USS Pueblo attacked and where is it being held
January 23, 1968, North Korea
13. Why was the USS Pueblo attacked
North Korea claimed the vessel had strayed into their territorial waters, and U.S. claimed that shipped remained in international waters
14. What role did the Navajo code talkers play in the Pacific during WWII
Code talkers transmitted messages over military telephone and radio nets using their native language during; a code that the Japanese never broke
15. Name the two departments that were combined to form the ONI
The Department Library was combined with the “Office of Intelligence”
16. Why was the Office of Intelligence established
March 23, 1882 An “Office of Intelligence” is hereby established in the Bureau of Navigation for the purpose of collecting and recording such naval information as may be useful to the Department in time of war, as well as in peace
17. Which Naval Office is credited for creating the Business language COBOL
RADM Grace Hopper
18. The Sailor’s Creed was written in what year and by the direction of whom
The “Sailor’s Creed” was written in 1993 at the direction of CNO Admiral Frank Kelso
19. Who is John Anthony Walker Jr
Is a retired United States Navy Chief Warrant Officer and communications specialist convicted of spying for the Soviet Union from 1968 to 1985
20. What is the National Security Act of 1947 and which President signed it into Law
Signed by President Truman on July 26, 1947; realigned and reorganized the US Armed Forces, foreign policy, and the Intelligence Community after the Cold War
21. Name one of the three agencies that the National Security Act of 1947 established
Established the National Security Council for national security policy, established a Central Intelligence Agency (the US’ first peacetime intelligence agency) under the National Security Council, and it established the Joint Chiefs of Staff
IP Services 102:

1. What does the acronym DISA stand for and what is its function
Defense Information Systems Agency- Deliver joint and coalition enterprise infrastructure, information sharing services, and command and control that enable joint war fighting
2. What does the acronym NCDOC stand for and what is its function
Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command- The NCDOC’s mission is to coordinate, monitor, and oversee the defense of Navy computer networks and systems, including telecommunications and to be responsible for accomplishing Computer Network Defense (CND) missions as assigned by Commander, Naval Network Warfare Command and Commander, Joint Task Force - Global Network Operations (JTF-GNO
3. What does the acronym RNOSC stand for and what is its function
Regional Networks Operations Security Command- Monitor and control faults, configuration accounting, performance and security of the NEN elements for which they have operational responsibility. Coordinate closely with, and provide users and higher echelons with network status reports and access to real-time data and remotely manage and control EKMS
4. What does the acronym MSC ANOC stand for and what is its function
Military Sealift Command Afloat Network Operations Center-Round the clock operations center supporting Naval operations around the world. To USNS vessels
5. How many Fleet Regional NOCs are there
6. What does the acronym UARNOC stand for and where is it located
Unified Atlantic Network Operations Center NCTAMS LANT, Norfolk, Virginia
7. What does the acronym PRNOC stand for and where is it located
Pacific Region Network Operations Center – NCTAMS PAC, Wahiawa, Hawaii
8. What does the acronym ECRNOC stand for and where is it located
Eastern Central Network Operations Center NCTS Naples, Naples, Italy
9. What does the acronym IORNOC stand for and where is it located
Indian Ocean Region Network Operations Center NCTS Bahrain, Manama, Bahrain
11. What is a Premise router
Connection point for each NOC to the DISN network
12. What is a firewall
Bastion hosts. Provides packet filtering, application and layer 4- proxy services
13. What are the three criteria to receive IP services from FLT NOCS
Must have a valid Interim Authority to Operate (IATO) or Authority to Operate (ATO) obtained from NETWARCOM Designated Approving Authority (DAA). The unit Information Assurance Manager (IAM) can provide guidance on validating or obtaining an (I)ATO. Submit an IP services request message in accordance with Global Communications Information Bulletin (GCIB) 3A.If service will be provided via satellite communications link, a valid Satellite Access Authorization (SAA) for the intended satellite RF path is required
14. Who is the controlling authority for the Department of the Navy IP assignments
Navy NIC - Navy Network Information Center
15. Who is the controlling authority for Navy Firewall Polices
Naval Network Warfare Command ( NAVNETWARCOM
16. What OPNAVINSTRUCTION would you consult to report or find guidance for Network Incidents
17. What does the acronym MOSS stand for
Microsoft Office SharePoint Server
18. What does the acronym C.S stand for and what is its primary function
Collaboration at Sea-is a tool set that allows users to share knowledge and information around the world using minimum bandwidth
19. What does the acronym TNOSC stand for and what is its function
Theater Network Operations & Security Center-Network management and CND of the Army’s network in a specific functional theater of operations
20. The TSNOC is the equivalent to what Navy Infrastructure
21. What does the acronym FLTNOC stand for and what is its function
Provide critical IP services to the deployed fleet in each of their respective areas of responsibility. In addition it provides a regional gateway from the various communications systems supporting ships to the Defense Information Systems Network (DISN)
METOC 114:

1. How does Naval Oceanography support the Information Dominance mission
They are the corps of professionals who will develop and deliver dominant information capabilities in support of U.S. Navy, Joint and National war-fighting requirements
2. What is the function of the Joint Typhoon Warning Center (JTWC)
- a DOD agency responsible for issuing tropical cyclone warnings for the Pacific and Indian Oceans
3. What is the function of the Naval Oceanography Operational Command (NOOC)
-Advises Navy operations on the impact of ocean and atmospheric conditions in every theater and for every operation
4. What is the function of the Naval Oceanographic Office (NAVO)
-maximizes sea power by applying relevant oceanographic knowledge in support of National Security
5. What are Geostationary Environmental Satellites (GOES)
- The backbone to short term forecasting. Aids in providing warning of thunderstorms, winter storms, flash floods and other sever weather that help save lives and preserve property
6.What is the primary function of the Tropical Rainfall measuring Mission (TRIMM)
- is a research satellite designed to help understand the water cycle of the atmosphere covering the tropical and semi-tropical regions
7. How does wind speed differs from wind direction
- Wind speed is the measured motion of air with the respect to the surface of the earth covering a unit distance over a unit time. •Wind direction is an indicator of the direction the wind is coming from
8. What is meant by wind-chill and what two factors determine the degree of wind-chill
- the temperature felt on exposed skin due to wind. The degree depends on both air temperature and wind speed
9. What is ambient air
- –The temperature of the surrounding air, such as the outdoor air temperature
10. What are two ways that are used to measure Atmospheric Pressure
- milibars and inches of mercury (Hg)
What are the wind speeds of a Tropical Depression and a Hurricane
- Tropical Depression - speeds less than 34-knots Hurricane/Typhoon-
speeds greater than 63-knots
12. What are some of the effects extreme temperature and humidity have on military operations
It can effect personnel, reduce equipment capabilities and the effectiveness of chemical and biological weapons
13. How does a bioluminescent organism emit light
– Energy is released from chemical reactions occurring inside (or ejected by) the organism
14. What are the four type of tides and describe one
- Ebb: currents that flow away from the shore.–Flood: currents that flow toward the shore.–High: When the sea level is at its highest point.–Low: When the sea level is at its lowest point
15. What is Ocean Topography
-Ocean topography studies the configuration of the seafloor and of the ocean surface
16. How does temperature and pressure affect sound in sea water
- (Temperature)Primary controller of sound speed and direction in the upper 300 meters of seawater. An increase in water temperature increases the speed of sound through water
(Pressure) Dominant sound speed controller below 300 meters. Increase in pressure = increase in speed
17. What is considered an intelligence layer of the GEOINT information grid
18. Who can set a Tropical Cyclone Condition of Readiness (COR)
- Local area commanders
19. What is the difference between COR 2 and COR 5
- (COR2)Destructive wind force indicated are anticipated within 24 hours. Take precautions that will permit establishment of an appropriate state of readiness on short notice. (COR5) •Possible threat of destructive wind force indicated within 96 hours. Usually set at the beginning of the tropical season or in some areas, such as Guam, it is set year round
20. What is the Nautical Almanac
-Provides the US Navy with a convenient form of the astronomical data used for celestial navigation. It contains the Greenwich hour angle and declination of the sun, moon and navigational planets; positions of the navigational stars; rise and set times of the sun and moon for a range of latitudes and other data
21. Why and how often are High Seas local advisories issued in the Northern Hemisphere
Every 12hrs if waves are 12 feet or greater
1. Describe the relationship between a Host and its Clients
- Client/Host architecture allows for multiple clients to connect and share resources shared on a host(s) servers
2. What is the function of a Router
- its a device that interconnects two or more computer networks, and selectively interchanges packets of data between them
3. What is an Application server
its a server that is designed for or dedicated to running specific applications for individual clients in order to keep resources available for other tasks
4. Name three basic types of Network topologies
- BE ABLE TO DRAW ALL OF THESE INCLUDING HYBRID MESH Bus network topology is a network architecture in which a set of clients are connected via a shared communications line, called a bus: Star a star network consists of one central switch, hub or computer, which acts as a conduit to transmit messages Ring is a network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway for signals through each node - a ring. Data travels from node to node, with each node along the way handling every packet. Mesh networking is a type of networking wherein each node in the network may act as an independent router, regardless of whether it is connected to another network or not. It allows for continuous connections and reconfiguration around broken or blocked paths by “hopping” from node to node until the destination is reached. A mesh network whose nodes are all connected to each other is a fully connected network
5. Name the two Network topologies that have a single point of failure
Bus and Star
6. What is a Global Access Network
- is a telecommunication system that extends mobile voice, data and IP Multimedia Subsystem/Session Initiation Protocol (IMS/SIP) applications over IP networks
7. What are the seven layers of the OSI Model
- Application Presentation Sessions Transport Network Data-link and Physical
8. Routers can be placed on what two layers of the OSI Model
Data link and Network
9. What are the four layers of the TCP/IP model
Application Host2Host Internet Network Access
10. What is the difference between IPV4 and IPV6 addresses
11. What is SIPRnet
Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNet) is a system of interconnected computer networks used by the United States Department of Defense and the U.S. Department of State to transmit classified information (up to and including information classified SECRET) via the TCP/IP protocol suite in a secured environment
12. What is JWICS
. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System, is a system of interconnected computer networks used by the U.S. Department of Defense and the U.S. Department of State to transmit classified Top Secret and SCI information by packet switching over TCP/IP in a secure environment
13. What is ONE-NET
it’s a Navy-wide initiative to install a common and secure IT infrastructure to OCONUS Navy locations. It is based on the Navy-Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) architecture and is designed to be interoperable with IT-21, NMCI, and the Global Information Grid
14. What is the function of an Operating System (OS)
) is a set of system software programs in a computer that regulate the ways application software programs use the computer hardware and the ways that users control the computer
15. What is a Backdoor Attack
in computer systems (or cryptosystem or algorithm) are a method of bypassing normal authentication, securing remote access to a computer, obtaining access to plaintext, and so on, while attempting to remain undetected
16. What is Phising
is the criminally fraudulent process of attempting to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and credit card details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication
17. What is a VIRUS
is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer. A virus spreads from one computer to another (in some form of executable code) when its host is taken to the targeted infected computer
18. What is a Trojan
are malware that appears to perform a desirable function for the user prior to run or install but instead facilitates unauthorized access of the user's computer system
19. What is a Dictionary Attack
it’s a technique for defeating a cipher or authentication mechanism by trying to determine its decryption key or passphrase by searching likely possibilities
20. What is Social Engineering
Is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, rather than by breaking in or using technical cracking techniques
21. What is Privilege Escalation
is the act of exploiting a bug or design flaw in a software application to gain access to resources which normally would have been protected from an application or user
UNIT SPECIFIC 102: Certification and Accreditation fundamentals:
1. What does the acronym SSAA stand for and explain
– System Security Authorization Agreement- Part of old DITSCAP standard- Used to Guide C&A process- Agreement between DAA, CA and IT system user
2. What does the acronym DIACAP stand for
-DoD Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process
4. Who is the official that has the authority to assume responsibility for an operating at acceptable level of risk
- DAA (Designated Approval Authority)
7. What are the categories of severity codes
8. How does CAT I, II and III relates to an OS system accreditation decision of ATO
- CAT I weaknesses shall be corrected before an ATO is granted. CAT II weaknesses shall be corrected or satisfactorily mitigated before an ATO can be granted. CAT III weaknesses will not prevent an ATO from being granted if the DAA accepts the risk associated with the weaknesses
9. What is an IATO decision
- An IATO accreditation decision is intended to manage IA security weaknesses while allowing system operation
10. What is the maximum amount of time a DAA can authorize an IATO
- 360 days
11. In the normal lifecycle of an Information system, how often must the IS be recertified and reaccredited
Once every three years
12. What is an IT Security POA&M used for
- A permanent record that identifies tasks to be accomplished in order to resolve security weaknesses. Required for any accreditation decision that requires corrective actions, it specifies resources required to accomplish the tasks. In addition, it is used to document DAA-accepted non-compliant IA controls and baseline IA controls that are not applicable
13. What are Assigned IA controls
The set of IA controls that a given DoD IS must address to achieve an adequate IA posture
14. What is a DIACAP TEAM and at minimum who should be its members
-Comprised of the individuals responsible for implementing the DIACAP for a specific DoD IS. At a minimum the DIACAP Team includes the DAA, the CA, the DoD IS program manager (PM) or system manager (SM), the DoD IS IA manager (IAM), IA officer (IAO), and a user representative
15. What role is the Local IA Authority for a command and what are his/her responsibilities
- Information Assurance Manager- responsible for establishing, implementing & maintaining the local IA program
16. How are IA Controls rated
- Compliant- Non- compliant- Not Applicable
17. Describe Not Applicable IA controls
- IA controls are those that do not impact the IA posture of the IS as determined by the DAA
18. During the lifecycle of a DoD Information system, what are the 5 steps of the DIACAP process
- Initiate& Plan IA C&A- Implement & Validate Accepted IA controls- Make Certification Determination and accreditation decision- Maintain Authorization to operate and conduct reviews- Decommission
19. What occurs during the Initiate & Plan IA C&A process
– Register System with DOD Component IA program- Assign IA Controls- Assemble DIACAP Team- Initiate DIACAP Implementation Plan
20. What occurs during the Implement and Validate Assigned IA controls process
- Execute DIACAP Implementation Plan- Conduct Validation Activities- Prepare POA&M- Compile Validation Results in DIACAP scorecard
21. What occurs during the Maintain Authorization to Operate and Conduct reviews process
- Maintain Situational Awareness- Maintain IA posture- Conduct reviews – Initiate re- accreditation
22. How often are IA controls reviewed
At least annually
23. What occurs during the Make Certification Determination & Accreditation decision and Decommission processes
- Make certification decision .i.e. ATO- IATO - Issue accreditation decision- Decommission- Retire IS system
24. What are the four types of DOD Information systems
- AIS Applications- Enclaves- Platforms IT interconnections- Outsourced IT Based Processes
25. What is the DIACAP Score card
- It shows the implementation status of a DoD IS’s assigned IA controls (i.e., compliant (C), non-compliant (NC), or not applicable (NA)) as well as the C&A status
26. What is meant by Authorization Termination Date
- The date assigned by the DAA that indicates when an ATO, IATO, or IATT expires
Common Core 109 Communication EIDWS Questions
1. Discuss the purpose of a Red Cross Message
- It is a emergency communication system used to notify service members of an emergency or other important events
2. Describe the following systems and state their function
- ADNS-(Automated Digital Networking System): Primary function of the ADNS is to connect Navy shipboard networks to other ship and shore networks for transferring Internet Protocol data of various classification levels
- CUDIXS-(Command User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem)- CUDIXS provide a 2400 baud full duplex interface, over a satellite link with mobile platforms, for the receipt and transmission of narrative message traffic
- INMARSAT-(International Maritime Satellite)- Multipurpose commercial SATCOM system providing both simultaneous voice and IP date up to 128 Kbps
- DCO-(Defense Connect Online)- DCO provides all of the benefits of the world’s best breed collaboration capabilities in Adobe Connect and an XMPP chat service to the DoD
3. What does EEFI stand for and what are the following positions
EEFI- Essential Elements of Friendly Information
Position 1- Friendly or enemy position, movement or intended movement; position; course; speed ;altitude; or destination of any air, sea or ground element unit or force
Capabilities 2- Friendly or enemy capabilities or limitations; force composition or identify; capabilities, limitations or significant casualties to special equipment, weapon system, sensors, units or personnel; percentage of fuels or ammunition remaining
Operation 3 Friendly or enemy operations, intentions, progress or results: operational or logistics intention; assault objectives; mission participants; flying programs; mission situation reports; results of friendly or enemy operations
Electronic Warfare 04
- Friendly or enemy EW/EMCON intentions, progress or results; intentions to employ EMC; results of friendly or enemy ECM objectives of ECM; result of friendly or enemy ECCM; results of ESM; present or intended EMCON policy; equipment effected by EMCON policy
4. Discuss BEADWINDOW and explain the procedures involved
- BEADWINDOW is a real time procedure which brings to the immediate attention of circuit operators the fact that en EEFI disclosure has occurred. The proper response for a net member receiving a BEADWINDOW will be “Roger Out” using proper net call signs
5. Define River City and state when it is utilized
An OPSEC tools that limits communications is River City. River City conditions provide procedures to control outgoing paths from ships and shore system
6. Discuss JSIR (Joint Spectrum Interference Resolutions) to include the following
- Meaconing
-Intentional transmission of signals designed to deceive users of navigational aids ( GPS, nondirectional beacons, instrument landing systems
- Intrusion-
The intentional insertion of EM energy into transmission paths in any manner, with the objectives of deceiving operators or causing confusion
- Jamming
- The deliberate radiation, reradiation, or reflection of EM energy for the purpose of preventing or reducing an enemy effective use of the EM spectrum and with the intent of degrading neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability
- Spectrum management
- Develop and maintain the JSIR database, interference resolution tools, and direction finding and spectrum monitoring equipment
7. Define and state the purpose of PLA
Plain Language Address: The only designator authorized for use in Naval message addressing by Navy, Marine Corps and Coast Guard activities
8. Define and state the purpose of DTG
: Designed to prevent using duplicate DTG’s on messages from the same originators. Date time Group
9. What does UTC stand for and what is the purpose of it
Coordinated Universal Time-prevents confusion between the different zones and types of time. All times in UTC is suffixed with a Z for identification. Because of this, UTC is referred to as “Zulu” time
10. What information can you find on Format Line 5
Precedence, originator’s DTG, message instructions (R 0113000Z DEC 11)
11. Define the following message precedence’s
- Routine- 6 hours, Priority, 3 hours, O-Immediate (30 minutes), Z-Flash (As soon as possible, less than 10 minutes, W-Flash override (3 minutes)
12. State the purpose of an OPTASK COMMS
The optaks comms message is the means used by which the United States Navy allied Navies distribute afloat communication plans
13. State the purpose of an COMMPLAN
A multi-step process of developing and implementing voice and data communication in support of unit and fleet missions
14. State the purpose of Emissions Control (EMCON)
A control of all electromagnetic and acoustic radiation, including communications, radar, EW and sonar. No electronic emitting device within designated bands. Prevent enemy from detecting, identifying, and locating friendly forces. Used to minimize electromagnetic interference among friendly systems
Common Core 110-Operations
1. Describe the mission of the following primary warfare areas
- ASW (Anti-Submarine Warfare)- Operations conducted with the intention of denying the enemy the effective use of submarines.
- SUW(Surface Warfare) – That portions of maritime warfare in which operations are conducted to destroy or neutralize enemy naval surface forces and merchant vessels.
- IW(Information Warfare) – Information operations conducted during time of crisis or conflict to achieve or promote specific objectives over a specific adversary or adversaries.
- STW (Strike Warfare)- Naval operations to destroy or neutralize enemy targets ashore, including attacks against strategic or tactical target such as manufacturing facilities and operating bases from which the enemy is capable of conducting or supporting air, surface or subsurface operations against friendly forces
2. Explain how the Reserve Component integrates with the Active Component
Provides trained units and qualified persons available for active duty in the armed forces, in time of war or national emergency and at such other times as the national security may require
3. Explain the purpose of a mobile detachment
Provide direct or indirect support to an operational entity to further enhance or support that entity’s operational or administrative capability
4. Discuss the IO (Information Operations) Core capabilities
Provides broad strategic concepts of operation and sustainment for achieving multinational, national and theater strategic objectives. Provides an orderly schedule of decisions. Achieve unity of effort with air, land, sea, space and special operations forces, in conjunctions with interagency, nongovernment, or private voluntary organizations or United Nations or other multinational force as required. Identify any special forces or capabilities the enemy has in the area
5. Define the roles of the US Navy Blue and Red Team
Blue Team: Group responsible for defending an enterprise’s use of information systems by maintaining its security posture against a group of mock attackers. Must defends against real or simulated attacks. Conduct operational network vulnerability evaluations and provide mitigation technique to customers who have a need for an independent technical review of their network security posture. Red Team: A group of people authorized and organized to emulate a potential adversary’s attack or exploitation capabilities against an enterprises’s security posture. The red team’s objective is to improve enterprise information assurance by demonstrating the impacts of successful attacks and by demonstrating the impacts of successful attacks and by demonstrating what works for the defenders in an operational environment
6. Explain the difference between the following documents
USC title 10: Outlines the role of armed forces in the US code. Provides the legal basis for the role, missions and organization of each of the services as well as the US DOD. USC title 50: Outline the role of war and National defense
7. Define CRITIC
Critical Intelligence Communication. How long do you have to send out a critic message
8. Explain the purpose of FES (Fleet Electronic Support)
Responsible for the installation, removal, maintenance and repair of cryptologic direct support element (CDSE) electronic equipment on surface and subsurface combatants
Platform Section 203 Tech Control
1. Explain the role of Technical Control
To ensures reliable communications through all possible combinations of antennas, transmitters, receivers, frequencies, and terminal equipment
2. Define the purpose of the following: HSGR (High Speed Global Ring)
The primary purpose of the HSGR is to provide an increased transport link between shore facilities utilizing Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), which provides transport services for high speed classified and unclassified IP networks as well as existing Legacy to major shore sites
3. State how many TNX 1100’s make up the HSGR and where they are located
- NCTAMS PAC, NCTAMS LANT, NCTS Bahrain, NCTS San Diego, and NCTS Naples
4. Define the following
– Extremely High Frequency Follow-On-Terminal: is the terminal used to configure EHF LDR/MDR services
b. LDR
- Low Data Rate (LDR): supports 2400 bits per second (bps) for information transfer
c. . MDR
- Medium Data Rate (MDR). The MDR upgrade to Milstar provides EHF communications capability for data rates from 4.8 kilobits per second (kbps) to 1.544 megabits per second (Mbps)
5. State the satellite and channel for the following FSB packages
a. LMUL – UFO 6 & 7, Channel 1
b. IMUL – UFO 10, Channel 1
c. PMUL – UFO 8, Channel 1
6. Discuss the MILSTAR constellation and its unique capability
Milstar is a joint, tri-Service SATCOM program, that features both voice and data services at multiple data rates from various platforms. What is unique is its ability to enable cross-link capabilities from one satellite to another
7. Define and discuss the services provided by EHF TIP
Time Division Multiple Access(TDMA) Interface Processor (TIP). EHF TIP provides an Ethernet connection between a ship’s Automated Digital Network System (ADNS) router, their EHF Medium Data Rate (MDR) terminal and a link to either another ship or shore for IP services
8. Explain the difference between EC and spot beam and the approximate area covered by each
Spot Beam
: The spot beam antenna is dual frequency, and it forms a 5o beam that is steerable by ground command; it covers a 400 nautical mile (nm) diameter area at the equator, but expands and distorts to an elliptical pattern when directed towards the poles. The spot beam is capable of supporting 13 communications channels
9. Define and state the purpose of the following
– Commercial Broadband Satellite Program: CBSP is a high data commercial throughput Navy SATCOM program for wideband SATCOM.
10. State the Land Earth Stations for CBSP:
NCTAMS PAC - Paumalu, HI
Brewster, WA
Fuchsstadt, GE
11. State the nine DSCS teleport/STEP sites. (2 questions)
Wahiawa (Hawaii)
Camp Roberts (California)
Ft. Buckner (Japan)

Northwest (Virginia)
Landstuhl (Germany)
Ft Belvoir (Virginia)
Ft Detrick (Maryland)

Bahrain (Bahrain)

Lago Patria (Italy)
12. State the three INMARSAT earth stations:
- Laurentides, Canada
- Goonhilly, UK
- Auckland, NZ
13. Define and state the purpose of ADMS
Automated Digital Multiplexing System (ADMS):
Is a network multiplexer (TIMEPLEX Link/2+)
14. State the bandwidth of the following: (3 questions)
a. DS-O – 64 Kbps
b. DS-1 - 1.544 Mbps
c. T-1 - 1.544 Mbps
d. E-1 - 2.048 Mbps
e. DS-3 - 44.736 Mbps
f. OC-3 - 155.52 Mbps
g. OC-192 – 9.953 Gbps
h. OC-768 – 39.813 Gbps
15. List and explain the six INMARSAT configurations: (3 questions)
-ALFA (64Kbps Voice and Data)
32Kpbs data, 28.8Kbps voice
-BRAVO (64Kbps Voice and Data)
56Kbps data, 4.8Kbps voice
-CHARLIE (64Kbps Data Only)
-DELTA (128Kbps Voice and Data)
96Kbps data, 26.4Kbps voice
-ECHO (128Kbps Voice and Data)
112Kbps data, 12Kbps voice
-FOXTROT (128Kbps Data Only)
16. Define and state the purpose of ANCC
Automated Network Control Center (ANCC): ANCC replaces manual patch and test facilities ashore with a fully redundant computer-controlled switching and circuit monitoring system
17. State the purpose of iridium phones
Satellite-based commercial communications services providing voice and data communications to users equipped with mobile satellite terminals
Platform Section 207 Communications EIDWS Questions
1. : State the purpose of FCC-100
AN/FCC-100 is a multiplexer which supports up to sixteen user interfaces. A wide variety of user interfaces and data rates are supported, allowing most types of communication to be transported over a single satellite or microwave radio link. The AN/FCC-100 supports digital and analog user interfaces which may be mixed as required to meet requirements
2. Define and explain the concept of DAMA
DAMA – Demand Assigned Multiple Access
The TD-1271B/U Multiplexer (DAMA) is used in the DAMA subsystem and provides time-division multiplexing of several digital data sources over one satellite channel
3. Define and discuss JMINI
The JMINI is the hardware and software suite used by the NCTAMS-SMC to manage 5-kilohertz (kHz) and 25-kHz DAMA networks. It is a multiplexer controlling the technical configuration of the DAMA satellite channels to provide functionality of the system
4. Define and state the purpose of SSA
The SATCOM Signal Analyzer (SSA)provides simultaneous monitoring of all U.S. Navy UHF SATCOM RF signals
5. Define and state the purpose of the following:
-Voice over Internet Protocol. delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks, such as the Internet
Defense Switched Network. DSN is an interbase, non-secure or secure C2 telecommunications system that provides end-to-end command use and dedicated telephone service, voice-band data, and dial-up VTC for C2 and non-C2 DoD authorized users in accordance with national security directives
6. Define and state the purpose of DRSN (Defense Red Switched Network)
Defense Red Switched Network. This global, secure voice service provides the President, Secretary of Defense, Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders and selected agencies with command and control secure voice and voice-conferencing capabilities up to the Top Secret SCI level
7. Define and state the purpose of APTS
The Afloat Personal Telecommunications Program (APTS) provides personal calling on board U.S. Navy Ships using satellite connectivity
1. Who leads the executive branch of the federal government and is the commander-in-chief of the United States Armed Forces
Answer: The President, Barrack Obama
2. Who is the Secretary of Defense. What are his responsibilities
Answer: Honorable Leon Panetta. The Secretary of Defense exercises command and control, subject only to the orders of the President, over all Department of Defense forces (the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps) for both operational and administrative purposes
3. Who performs vital administrative, personnel, and operational training functions for a "type" of weapon system (i.e., naval aviation, submarine warfare, surface warships) within a fleet organization
Answer: TYCOM
4. Who is the senior enlisted person in the Navy, serves as the senior enlisted leader of the Navy, and as an advisor to the Chief of Naval Operations and to the Chief of Naval Personnel in matters dealing with enlisted personnel and their families
Answer: Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy, Rick D. West
6. How many FORCMs are there
Answer: There are 16 Force Master Chief positions in the Navy: Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, Naval Air Force, U. S. Atlantic Fleet, Naval Air Forces, Naval Education and Training Command, Naval Facilities Engineering Command, Naval Special Warfare, Naval Surface Force, U.S. Atlantic Fleet, Naval Surface Forces, Navy Cyber, Navy Expeditionary Combat Command, Navy Installations Command, Navy Personnel Command, Navy Recruiting Command, Navy Reserve Forces, Submarine Force, U.S. Pacific Fleet, and Submarine Forces
7. What is the purpose of the EDVR (What helpful information does it contain) How often is it distributed
Answer: monthly; A statement of account of enlisted crewmembers received on a monthly basis for verification by the activity from NMPC A rate and rating summary of the current and projected manning posture of the command The basic decision document for the distribution authority responsible for distributing and detailing enlisted personnel
9. What information is found in the following portions of a service record:
a. Page 2: Emergency Record/Dependency
b. Page 4: Qualifications
Please identify at least 2 officer accession programs that are available to enlisted personnel
Answer: Seaman to Admiral - STA-21 Program
Includes the following programs:
- Seaman to Admiral
- Enlisted Commissioning Program (ECP)
- Aviation Enlisted Commissioning Program (AECP)
- Nuclear Enlisted Commissioning Program (NECP)
- Civil Engineer Corps Enlisted Commissioning Program (CECECP)
- Fleet Accession to Naval Reserve Officer Training Corps (NROTC) (Includes Nurse Option)
- Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training (BOOST)
United State Naval Academy Admissions
LDO/ CWO Inservice Procurement Board - Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer Program for active duty
Reserve LDO/ CWO Inservice Procurement Board - Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer Program
Navy Officer Candidate School (OCS)
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program - MECP
Medical Service Corps Program - MSC IPP / PA
Flying CWO Program
13. Identify (two of) the six programs of Brilliant on the Basics
Answer: Sponsorship, mentorship, career development boards, command Indoc, command sponsorship, awards and recognition
1. In your own words, define OPSEC
a. Mythology (or system) designed to protect information related to mission and operations
2. When it comes to OPSEC, identify the five step planning process
a. Identify CI
b. Assess threat
c. Assess vulnerability
d. Access risk
e. Measures/countermeasures
3 What are the responsibilities of the command OPSEC Officer
a. Overseas opsec program; training, monitoring, etc
4 Describe the OPSEC considerations regarding public affairs
b. Prior to the release of the any information to the media, the PAO should review material to ensure no OPSEC violations have occurred
5 Define EEFI and provide an example:
a. Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI) are defined as the answers to an intelligence agent's questions about your system, support, deployments and force protection, otherwise known as the mission
6 What is WRA
What is it used for
1. What is the frequency range of HF
What is HF band used for
2. What is a wavelength
a. Length of one cycle
3. What transmission band is used for one-way submarine communications
a. ELF, up to 300HZ
4. Define the following and provide an example
a. SIMPLEX: one direction only; broadcast
5. How is bandwidth calculated
a. Highest-lowest frequency; usable frequency
7. What transmission band is used for LOS/SATCOM communications
a. UHF 300 MHZ-3GHZ
1. What is FSM used for
a. Process message traffic over SIPR exchange
2. Why does units commshifting to FSM need a legacy route
a. to process TS traffic
3. What is the purpose of MMS
a. Multi-level mail server; store and forward, accessed via phone STE
4. What is the world-wide MCS RI
5. On the board, please write RI that MCS will assign to an invalid PLA within a transmitted message
6. On the board, please write the OPSIG that means “standby”
a. ZUJ
7. What are the three fleet multi-channel broadcast packages
8. What is the purpose of CUDIXS
a. 2400, full-duplex msg traffic
9. What information is found on F/L 5 of an ACP 126 message
a. DTG
1. What is an example of spillage
a. Transmitted a classified message on an unclassified network
2. What is TPI
What is it used for
3. How often is an ISIC required to conduct a COMSEC inspection
a. Every 24 months
4. CMS Advise and Assist (CMS AA) visits are required how often
a. Every 18 months
5. What is the purpose of an EKMS manager
a. Reports directly to CO on matters concerning EKMS
6. What is an example of a reportable PDS
1. Q: State the mission of the U. S. Navy
A: The mission of the Navy is to maintain, train and equip combat-ready Naval forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression and maintaining freedom of the seas
2. Q: Define the operating areas of the following numbered fleets:
2nd Flt – Atlantic Ocean 3rd Flt – Pacific Ocean
4th Flt – South America and Caribbean Sea 5th Flt – Red Sea and Persian Gulf
6th Flt – Mediterranean Sea 7th Flt – Indian Ocean
10th Flt- Cyber
3. Q: State the location for the following commands:
A. PACOM – Camp Smith, HI
B. EUCOM – Stuttgart, Germany
C. JFCOM – Norfolk, VA,
F. NORTCOM – Peterson AFB CO
G. SOCOM - Tampa, FL
H. TRANSCOM - Galveston, TX
J. AFRICOM - Stuttgart-Moehringen, Germany
K. NAVCYBERFOR – Little Creek, VA
4. Q: Discuss the difference between OPCON and ADCON
-OPCON – authority to organize commands and employ them as the Commander in operational control considers necessary to accomplish the mission at hand.
-ADCON- authority over subordinate or other organizations in administration and support, including organizations of Service Forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations
5. Q: Explain FLTCOM:
Commander in charge of a specific Flt AOR, responsible to man, equip, train, support, and deter aggression within their respective AOR
6. Q: What does the acronym C5ISR stand for:
Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Combat Systems, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance
7. Q: Give me the two Naval and Computer Telecommunication Area Master Stations (NCTAMS) and their locations
a. Location: Wahiawa, HI
b. Location: Norfolk, VA
Q: Define the six steps of Intelligence. Draw on board in order
1:Planning and Direction
2: Collection
3: Processing and Exploitation
4: Analysis and Production
5: Dissemination and Integration
6: Evaluation and Feedback
1. Q: Describe the three categories of Intelligence
Strategic Intelligence, Operational Intelligence, Tactical Intelligence
2. Q: What is ISR and what does it do
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR): An activity that synchronizes and integrates the planning and operation of sensors, assets, and processing, exploitation, and dissemination systems in direct support of current and future operations
3. Q: Explain the function of an Intelligence Fusion Cell
An Intelligence Fusion Cell serves as a central hub for collection, fusion, analysis and dissemination of intelligence to all serviced operating units within the Navy, Department of Defense, members of the Intelligence Community, and key decision makers at the national level
4. Q: What are the 3 intelligence organizations:
National Intelligence Organization
Theater Intelligence Organization
Tactical Intelligence Organization
5. Q: What does the acronym CCIR stand for:
Commander’s Critical Information Requirements
6. What are the responsibilities of the Fleet Intelligence Office (FIO):
Primary responsibilities are to plan, manage and execute Fleet Intelligence TYCOM functions that optimize intelligence readiness across all Navy Warfare areas
1. Q: What does C5I stand for
C5I = Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Collaboration, Intelligence
2. Q: Explain SAR/SAA procedures for the following: EHF
PACOM requires EHF SAR/GAR (Gateway Access Request) to be submitted via CARS SIPR website.
For PAC units: Unit->ISIC->Numbered Fleet CMDR->CPF->PACOM->RSSC-PAC (generates SAA)
3. Q: What is ASI and what are the 4 phases
Authorized Service Interruption
Planning, Notification, Supervision and Restoral
4. Q: Explain the role and discuss services provided by the JFTOC
JFTOC – Joint Fleet Telecommunications Operations Center. JFTOC interacts with the Fleet and Joint customers via message traffic (Service Advisories, COMSPOT’s, OPREP-3), SIPR Chat, phone or VTC. JFTOC provides real time 24-7 operational direction of the Naval Telecommunications System for the entire Pacific AOR and for some systems within the Indian Ocean AOR.\
5. Q: Define Afloat Electromagnetic Spectrum Operations Program (AESOP):
Is a surface Navy spectrum management software tool designed by NAVSEA that is utilized for managing radar and communications frequencies of shipboard equipment
EIDWS Unit Specific- 202: ORGANIZATION
1. Q: Explain the difference between Pending Customer Appointment and Pending Customer Response (PCA/PCR)
Pending Customer Appointment: When a ticket is placed in Pending Customer Appointment (PCA) status, this indicates the customer has been contacted in some way, but active work has stopped while waiting on an agreed work date and time with the customer
2. Q: What is the required update time frame for PCA/PCR tickets
All PCR Ticket are to be updated every 48 hours or less
PCA are to be updated on or before the AWDT (Agreed Work Date/Time)
3. Q: Examples of reasons for MAC requests
Creation/Deletion/renaming/moving/disabling a user’s account
Setting up blackberry accounts
Software requests not included in the Core Apps
Network Connectivity/Port issues
4. Q: What are the authorized contact methods to set up an appointment with a customer
-Leave a voice mail
-Leave word with a co-worker regarding the contact attempt, then document in Remedy the co-workers name, date and time
-Send an email
-Make phone contact
CC101 First Aid / Safety Fundamentals
1) What is ORM
Operational Risk Management. Is a decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks.
2) Why is ORM important
Increases our ability to make informed decisions by providing a formal operational risk management process. Minimizes risks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment. Correct application of the ORM process will reduce mishaps and associated costs resulting in more efficient use of resources
3) What OPNAV instruction describes ORM
4) State the three methods of controlling bleeding
Direct Pressure, Pressure Points, and Constricting Bands
5) State the three objectives of first aid
Save life, prevent further injury, and limit infection.
6) Describe the methods for clearing an obstructed airway
Abdominal Thrust and Chest Thrust
7) What instruction governs safety and mishap reporting
8) What is mishap probability and what are the four subcategories
Probability that hazard will result in mishap. 4 categories: A) Likely to occur immediately, B) Probably occur in time, C) May occur in time, and D) Unlikely to occur
9) State the goal of the Navy’s Hearing Conservation Program
To prevent occupational hearing loss and assure auditory fitness for duty of all Navy personnel
10) Define RAC and list the 5 RAC’s
Risk Assessment Code: An expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines the hazard severity and mishap. A) Critical Risk, B) Serious Risk, C) Moderate Risk, D) Minor Risk, and E) Negligible Risk
11) Identify 3 of 11 pressure points
Facial Artery (Jaw), Superficial Temporal Artery (Temple), Subclavian Artery (Collar Bone), Common Carotid Artery (Neck), Brachial Artery (Inner Upper Arm), Brachial Artery (Inner Elbow), Radial/Ulnar Artery (Wrist), Femoral Artery (Upper Thigh), Iliac Artery (Groin), Popliteal Artery (Knee), and Anterior/Posterior Tibial Artery (Ankle)
13) What OPNAV instruction describes HERP and HERF
14) What is MSDS
Material Safety Data Sheet. Designed to provide both workers and emergency personnel with the proper procedures for handling or working with a particular substance MSDS’ includes information such as physical data (melting point, boiling point, flash point…etc), toxicity, health effects, first aid, reactivity, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill/leak procedures
15) What does HERO stand for
Hazards from Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordinance
16) How would you rescue an electric shock victim if the power cannot be shut off immediately
Protect yourself with dry insulating material and use a dry board, belt, dry clothing, or other available non-conductive material to free the victim (by pulling, pushing, or rolling) from the power-carrying object
17) What is the difference between an open and closed fracture
Open: Bone protrudes from the skin, Closed: Skin remains intact
18) How would you treat frostbite What would happen if you rub affected parts
Treat affected part immediately by placing it in contact with a warm part of your body. Rubbing affected parts could result in damage to frozen tissue
19) What may happen if HAZMAT is incorrectly labeled
May cause fire, can create damage through mixing chemicals, explosion, and corrosion
20) List 3 types of PPE and provide examples
Respirators, Hand Protection, Foot Protection, Eye Protection, Face Protection, Skin/Body Protection, and Hearing Protection
CC106 Security
1) What is the color code for Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified
Orange, Red, Blue, and Green
2) What is meant by need to know
Determination that an individual requires access to specific classified information
3) What is SF700 and does it contain
Security Container Information: Location, container number, lock serial#, and contact information
4) What is SF701
Activity Security Checklist
5) What is SF702 and what does it record
Security Container Check Sheet. Records names and times that persons have opened, closed, and checked container
6) What is SF703
Top Secret Cover Sheet
7) Who has overall authority and controls access to the SCIF
Special Security Officer
8) What is the responsibility of the FDO
Foreign Disclosure Office. Approves the disclosure of classified and controlled unclassified military information to foreign representatives
9) What does SAER stand for
Security Access Eligibility Report
10) What type of investigation is used to determine access to Top Secret information
Single Scope Background Investigation
11) A Civilian who is the Command Security Manager must be what minimum GS level
12) What Department within the Navy is responsible for determining who within the DON is eligible to hold a security clearance
DONCAF, Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility
13) Who has duties which include serving as the focal point for the receipt, control and accountability of SCI and oversees SCI security functions for subordinate SCIF’s
Special Security Officer
14) By what means does the Director of National Intelligence provide guidance, policy, and direction to the Intelligence community
ICD, Intelligence Community Directive
15) Define SCI
Sensitive Compartmented Information. Classified information concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods, or analytical processes, which is required to be handled within formal access control systems established by the Director of Central Intelligence
16) What is the first material to be destroyed when the order is given to initiate Emergency Destruction
Superseded keying material and secondary variables
17) What is TSCO and what rank must the member of Civilian employee be
Top Secret Control Officer. NCO E-7 or above, GS-7 or above
18) What is DCS and state the function of it
Defense Courier Service. Is an established, staffed, maintained, and operated international network of couriers and courier stations for the expeditious, cost-effective and secure transmission/transportation of qualified classified documents and material. In all instances, security of material shall be of paramount importance
19) With the exception of items that have a physical structure that prohibits breakdown into smaller units, what is the maximum weight for shipping classified material through DCS
300 pounds
20) What is SECNAVINST m-5510.30
Department of the Navy Personnel Security Program
Department of the Navy Information Assurance Program – Information Assurance Manual
Department of the Navy Policy for Content of Publicly Accessible World Wide Web Sites
3) Discuss Risk Management
Risk identification, analysis, mitigation planning, implementation, and tracking to ensure early identification and handling of risks
4) Define one of the five attributes of IA
a. Confidentiality- Prevent disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals
5) Define the DON World Wide Web Security Policy
All information, graphics, and photos posted on publicly accessible DON Web Sites must be carefully reviewed to ensure they meet the standards and requirements as published herein, including OPSEC considerations
6) What is IATO
Interim Authority to Operate
7) What is CTO
Computer Tasking Order
8) What may a vulnerability assessment be used for
Identify weaknesses that could be exploited. Predict the effectiveness of additional security measure in protecting information resources from attack
9) What is an IAM responsible for
The information assurance program within a command, site, system, or enclave. The IAM is responsible to the local IA command authority and Designated Approving Authority (DAA) for ensuring the security of an IT system, and that it is approved, operated, and maintained throughout its life cycle in accordance with IT system security certification and accreditation documentation
10) There are 9 categories of computer incidents. List 3 of them
a. Root Level Intrusion
b. User Level Intrusion
c. Denial of Service
d. Malicious Logic
e. Unsuccessful Activity Attempt
f. Non-compliance Activity
g. Reconnaissance
h. Investigating
i. Explained Anomaly
11) Who is your Command IAM
ITC Jones
12) What is the difference between an IAVA and IAVB
Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert has a high priority to load patch to mitigate an issue. Information Assurance Vulnerability Bulletin is recommended to load but not mandatory
13) What is NTD
Naval Telecommunications Directive
14) What is a DAA
Designated Approving Authority: The official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system (or network) at an acceptable level of risk
15) What is SSAA
System Security Authorization Agreement
16) What is IAVT
Information Assurance Vulnerability Technical Advisory
17) What is a Service Pack
A collection of updates, fixes or enhancements to a software program delivered in the form of a single installable package
Information Assurance (IA) and Computer Network Defense (CND)
PL105 Networks
1) What is the purpose of a Premise Router
Connection Point for each NOC to DISN Network
2) Identify port 53
3) Identify port 110
4) Identify the port used to Remote Login Protocol
Port 22
5) Define IEEE
Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers
6) What would you use to establish remote connectivity to a device or machine
7) What would you use to identify the route taken by a packet
Trace Route
8) What data transport medium is unsusceptible to Electromagnetic Interference
Fiber Optic
9) Define CANES
Consolidated Afloat Network and Enterprise Services
10) What is the purpose of VSCAN
Scans inbound and outbound emails and attachments for viruses
11) What protocol does a Mail Server use to transfer electronic mail and what port is it
SMTP, 25
12) What is the purpose of using RAID
Provides increased storage reliability through redundancy, combining multiple low-cost disk drives into a logical unit where all drives in the array are interdependent
13) What is the purpose of OWA
It is used to access e-mail (including support for S/MIME), calendars, contacts, tasks, and other mailbox content when access to the Microsoft Outlook desktop application is unavailable
14) What is the command line tool used by a technician to test connectivity between two devices or machines
15) What is the purpose of a VLAN
A group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located on the same network switch.
16) What is a router used for
17) Within IT21 FLTNOCs multi-layered support concepts, where would Fleet Systems Engineering Team for under
Tier 3
18) Within IT21 FLTNOCs multi-layered support concepts, where would In-Service Engineering Agent for under
Tier 4
19) When compared to UTP, STP cable helps to reduce what
Shielded Twisted Pair
20) Within UTP or STP cable, how many pairs of wires are used to transmit and receive data
2 pairs
US101 Organization
1) Who administers the Command Climate Assessment
Who is the CMEO
ITC Jones
2) Who is your Command Fitness Leader
IT1 Roberts
3) Who is the Training Leading Chief Petty Officer
IT1 Campbell
4) Who are your Command Career Counselors
IT1 Kime, IT2 Gilbert, and IT2 Fuentes
5) Who is the Safety Petty Officer
IT2 Watkins
6) Who are the Sexual Assault Victim Intervention advocates
IT1 Green, and IT1 Robinson
7) Who provides financial education and training, counseling and information referral at our Command
Command Financial Specialist
8) Who is responsible to the OIC on all matters relating to alcohol and other drugs