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119 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Structure of human parvovirus
Family: Parvoviridae
No envelope
ssDNA
Strucutre of herpes simplex virus
Family: Herpesviridae
Symmetry: Icosahedral
Enveloped
dsDNA
Structure of vaccinia virus
Family: Poxviridae
Symmetry: complex
Enveloped
dsDNA
Structure of adenovirus
Family: Adenoviridae
Symmetry: Icosahedral
No envelope
dsDNA
Parvovirus is a ss/ds DNA/RNA virus
ssDNA
herpes viruses, hep B, papilloma and adenovirus are ss/ds DNA/RNA viruses
dsDNA
Picorna virus, rubella virus, hepatitis C, HIV, SARS, influenza, measles and mups are ss/ds DNA/RNA viruses
ssRNA
Rotavirus is a ss/ds DNA/RNA virus
dsRNA
S. aureus
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Staphlococcus
Shape/reproduction: Clusters
Respiration: Aerobic
Shape: Cocci
Staining: Gram-positive
S. faecalis
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Streptococcus
Shape/reproduction: Chains/pairs
Respiration: anaerobic
Shape: cocci
Staining: Gram-positive
P. magnus
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Peptococcus
Shape/reproduction:-
Respiration: Anaerobic
Shape: Cocci
Staining: Gram-positive
B. anthracis
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Bacillus
Shape/reproduction: Sporing
Respiration: Aerobic
Shape: Bacilli
Staining: Gram-positive
L. monocytogenes
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Listeria
Shape/reproduction: Non-sporing
Respiration: Aerobic
Shape: Bacilli
Staining: Gram-positive
C. tetani
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Clostridium
Shape/reproduction: Sporing
Respiration: Anaerobic
Shape: Bacilli
Staining: Gram-positive
P. acnes
Genus:
Shape/reproduction:
Respiration:
Shape:
Staining:
Genus: Propionibacterium
Shape/reproduction: Non-sporing
Respiration: Anaerobic
Shape: Bacilli
Staining:
Example of gram-positive cocci
Streptococci
Example of gram-positive rods
Listeria
Example of gram-negative rods
E. coli
Example of gram-negative cocci
Neisseria
What causes black hairy tongue? Is it common? What's it an example of?

2009131110
Aspergillus. Rare UNLESS immunosuppressed

Example of overgrowth of exogenous (outside production) organism
What is the most significant protozoal disease?
Malaria
How are protozoal diseases often acquired?
Via infected food, water, or by insect vectors (malaria)
Arthropods include:
Insects, ticks and mites
What are hydatid cysts caused by? What's a common site for them?
Caused by tapeworm - Echinococcus.
Lung is a common site
Give an example of a commensal organism in man's large intestine
Bacteroides spp.
Give an example of parasitism inside man's large intestine
Entamoeba histolytica
Give an example of mutualism in the rumen of cattle
Bacteroides spp.

Bacteria metabolise host food to fatty acid - used as energy source
What are the chemical and physical antimicrobial defences on man? (4)
Mucus, cilia lining trachea, acid in stomach, skin
What are the biochemical antimicrobial defences on man? (4)
Lysozyme (tears, nasal secretions, saliva), sebaceous gland secretions, commensal organisms in gut and vagina, spermine in semen
What ecological factors influence flora? (7)
Humidity, pH, attachment/retention, oxygen tension, host inhibitors, microbial inhibitors, nutrients
Give examples of commensal flora in the nose (6)
Gram positive cocci

Staph aureus
Staph epidermidis
Diphtheroids
Streptococci
Coryneform bacteria
Maybe MRSA
Give examples of commensal flora in the mouth (3)
Strep. mitis (and other streptococci)
Trichomonas tenax
Candida
Give an example of commensal flora that might be in the lung
?Pneumocystis jiroveci
Give examples of commensal flora in the urethra and vagina (4)
Straphlococcus epidermidis
Diptheroids
Streptococci
Gram-negative rods
Give examples of commensal flora in the skin (11)
Mainly gram positive cocci

Staph. epidermidis
Staph. aureus
Diptheroids
Streptococci
Pseudomorias
Aeruginosa
Anaerobes
Candida
Torulopsis
Pityrosporum
Proprionibacterium acnes
Give example of commensal flora in the throat (8)
Strep. viridans
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. pneumonae
Neisseria spp.
Staphlococcus
Epidermidis
Haemophilus
Influenzae
Give examples of human commensal flora in the teeth (5)
Gram-negative rods

Steptococcus mutans
Bacteroides
Fusobacterium
Streptococci
Actinomyces

streptococci,
actinomycetes, very strict anaerobes
cocci, spirochaetes, yeasts
Example of non-invasive pathogen that produces toxin. Also causes tetanus
Clostridium tetani

Soil organisms which gain entry via wounds. Produce resistant endospores

Strict anaerobes
Bacilli do not produce endospores T/F
F
What is a Microaerophile bacteria?
Microaerophiles – ideal growth in reduced O2
What is a Capnophiles bacteria?
Capnophiles – ideal growth in increased CO2
Campylobacter jejuni facts (4)
Commonest cause of diarrhoea
Microaerophilic
Tension and thermophilic –
can grow at 42oC
Infection is via
contaminated water, milk or
food – especially poultry
Chlamydia facts. What does it cause?
small obligate intracellular
parasites

Gram negative cell wall

They have a unique
developmental cycle with
an infectious extracellular
elementary body and a
non-infectious intra

Chlamydiae
cause eye and cellular reticulate body
genital tract infections

C. trachomatis - genus of chlamydia
Shape of Vibrio cholerae
Single polar flagella
Comma shaped
What are pili? Give an example of a bacterium that has it.
Protein structures
that are important in
enabling pathogens to
attach to surfaces

Escherichia Coli
Which bacterium produce endospores?
Bacillus (aerobic)
and Clostridium (anaerobic)
Bacillus are anaerobic/aerobic
Aerobic
Clostridium are aerobic/anaerobic
Anaerobic
What are spirochaetes?
A phylum of gram negative bacteria
What does Borrelia
recurrentis cause?
Relapsing fever.
What are Mycoplasmas?
Smallest organisms capable of growth
on cell-free media

Lack a rigid cell wall

Typical ‘fried egg’
morphology

Require sterols for growth

Include four species that cause human disease:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
M. genitalium
M. hominis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
What are the four species of mycoplasma that cause disease?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
M. genitalium
M. hominis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
What can the fungi Cryptococcus
neoformans cause?
Meningitis
Aspergillus facts
Mould

Pathogenic species:
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus

Aspergillus flavus produces aflatoxin - which is both a toxin and a carcinogen
What is Alflatoxin?
Aspergillus flavus produces aflatoxin - which is both a toxin and a carcinogen
What is oral thrush caused by? What is oral thrush associated with?
Candida spp

Associated with
antimicrobial therapy that
disturbs the commensal
bacterial flora and results
in fungal overgrowth
Ringworm is an example of a ____________ infection
Dermatophyte infection
What is the malaria parasite called?
Plasmodium
What is Entamoeba histolytica? What is the pathogenesis of Entamoeba histolytica?
Anaerobic parasitic protozoan

(histo–lytic = tissue destroying), is pathogenic; infection can lead to amoebic dysentery or amoebic liver abscess
What are the two major floral areas of the large bowel?
Wall flora and lumen flora
The gut contains approx 1000 species and is believed to be vital for
the development of the gut and systemic immune systems.
Colonisation after birth with bifidobacteria (occurs in breast-fed
infants) protects against diarrhoea
Clostridium difficile facts
spore-forming Gram-positive bacillus
that is a strict anaerobe
• It lives in the gut as a minor member of the commensal flora
• The spores survive antibiotics so they can overgrow and cause
a serious infection that can be fatal – pseudomembranous colitis
What is pseudomembranous colitis
A gut infection caused by C. Diff

Characterised by offensive-smelling diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain. In severe cases, life-threatening complications can develop, such as toxic megacolon.
Males/females are more likely to get a urinary tract infection
Females
Sources or urinary tract infection
Community acquired:
E. coli
Coagulase-negative staphlocci
Gram positives (Staphlococcus epidermidis, staph. aureus, Enterococcus faecalis)

Nosocomically (hospital acquired):
Candida
Proteius mirabilis
Other gram negatives (Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, pseudomonas aeruginosa)
Syphilis cause
Treponema pallidum
Gonorrhoea cause
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia cause
Trachomatis
Chancroid (an STI)
Haemophilus ducreyi
Syphilis and gonorrhoea can be readily treated with...
..penicillin
Systemic gonorrhoea effects
Conjunctivitis of child 2-5 days after birth (opthalmia neonatorum)
Skin lesions
Endocarditis ( inflammation of the inner layer of the heart, the endocardium.)
Female: Damage to fallopian tubes, pelvic inflammatory disease, anorectal infection
Male: Occasional epididymitis (inflammation of the epididymis (a curved structure at the back of the testicle in which sperm matures and is stored) - can cause redness of scrotum)
Arthritis
What is endocarditis?
Inflammation of the inner layer of the heart, the endocardium.
What is Toxoplasma gondii?
Zoonotic protozoal infection acquired by eating cysts in undercooked meat or cat faeces

Congenital (persisting from birth) infections of foetus can lead to severe complications
Microbes transmitted by infectious
aerosols
Viruses
Influenza virus group
Rhinovirus group
Adenovirus group
Mumps virus
Measles virus
Rubella virus
Varicella zoster
Epstein-Barr virus

Bacteria:
Bordetella pertussis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Haemophilus influenzae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Bacillus subtilis is a gram-positive rod affected by which antibiotic?
Bacitracin
Pacillus polymyxa is a gram positive rod affected by which antibiotic?
Polymyxin
Penicillium notatum is a fungi affected by which antibiotic?
Penicillin
Cephalosporium spp is a fungi affected by which antibiotic?
Cephalothin
Actinomycetes:
Streptomyces venezuelae:
Streptomyces venezuelae: Chloramphenicol
Photomicrograph of viral inclusion bodies (a.k.a. virus factories) due to a pox virus (vaccinia)
Papilloma (aka wart) virus
factory in cell nucleus
Info on Hep B
DNA virus BUT unusual complex replication cycle involving an RNA intermediate.

Uses reverse transcriptase (RT)

Seventh group of Baltimore classification

NB HIV and hepatitis B viruses both use RT in their infectious cycle and are known collectively as reversiviruses as the infectious cycle involves a step reversing from RNA to DNA
Example of Nucleic acid inhibitor antibiotics
ribavirin, zidovudine, didanosine, zalcitabine and stavudine, acyclovir, ganciclovir and foscarnet, idoxuridine and trifluridine, vidarabine, famciclovir and valaciclovir
Viral protease inhibitors
saquinavir, ritonavir (HIV)
What are the three groups of beta-lactams?
Which bacteria never produce beta-lactamases?
Gram positive rods (e.g. Listeria, Corynebacteria),
Streptococci, Neisseria meningitidis, Treponema, Most
anaerobes
Which are the bacteria that do have beta-lactamases?
Staphylococci (S. aureus and coagulase-negative
staphylococci)
Ribavirin treats:
Influenza A, B, C, & respiratory syncytial virus)
Zidovudine, didanosine, zalcitabine and stavudine treat:
HIV
Acyclovir treats:
Systemic treatments of herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus
Ganciclovir and foscarnet treat
Cytomegalovirus
Idoxuridine and trifluridine treat
Tropical treatment of herpetic keratitis
Vidarabine, famciclovir and valaciclovir treat
Oral treatment of varicella-zoster virus infections
Neutrophil
Monocyte/macrophage
NK Cell
Mast Cell
What activates complement?
C-reactive protein (CRP) and Mannose-binding lectin (MBL/MBP)
What is serum amyloid P component?
An amyloid ( insoluble fibrous protein aggregates sharing specific structural traits) precursor
Dendritic Cell
What does Toxoplasma cause?
Tissue cyst
What kind of mosquitoes transmit malaria?
Anopheles mosquitos
Examples of protozoa
• Malaria
• Trichomonas vaginalis
• Trypanosomiasis
• Leishmaniasis
• Toxoplasmosis
Four species that cause malaria
– Plasmodium falciparum
– Plasmodium vivax
– Plasmodium ovale
– Plasmodium malariae

Falciparum malaria responsible for most
deaths and severe disease
Facts about toxoplasmosis
Toxoplasma gondii
• Obligate intracellular parasite
• Sexual cycle only occurs in cats but all vertebrates are
susceptible
• Non-feline hosts 2 critical phases of infection
– Acute flu like disease
– Establishment of chronic latent cysts
• Reactivation of cysts associated with
immunosuppression; HIV or transplantation
• Risk of congenital transmission during pregnancy
Three species of Trichomonas. And result of T. vaginalis
T. hominis
T. tenax
T. vaginalis

T. vaginalis results in inflammation and discharge
What disease does Trypanosomiasis cause?
Chags disease
--> Cardiac failure
Loss of nervous control of the gut
Trypanosomiasis: Sub species and disease symptoms
Trypanosoma brucei
-sub species: T.b. gambiense, T.b. rhodesiense

Fever, malaise (feeling of discomfort), anorexia, invasion of CNS --> Sleeping sickness

The sub species have coats associated with avoidance of host immune response
What diseases do Lieshmaniaisis cause?
Cutaneous diseases, deeper tissue may be
implicated

Simple cutaneous lesion localises at site of bite
resulting in a granulomatous response
• Epidermis fragile and prone to further physical
damage, ulceration and secondary infection
Examples of cestodiasis (pathology due to worms in the gut)
Diphyllobrothium latum

Taenia saginata

Taenia solium

Hymenolepis nana
Which Filariasis cause lymphatic disease?
Wucheria bancrofti, brugia malayi
Which Filariasis cause blindness?
Onchocerca volvulus, loa loa
Coenocytic hypha
Haustroium
Hypha
Mycelium
Septate hypha
Spore
What are the three methods of fungal asexual spore formation?
Blastospore (blastoconidium)
Chlamydospore (chlamydoconidium)
Arthrospores (arthroconidia)