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154 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Rate + _______= Output
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Rhythm
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Input + Distribution - Output is related to what physiological theme
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Mass Balance
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What is the name of the short circuit system of blood flow?
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Pulmonary
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What is the difference between veins and arteries in terms of pressure and direction?
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Veins: Return (Low Pressure)
Arteries: Output (High Pressure) |
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What is the most muscular type of blood vessel?
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Arteries: circulr smooth muscle
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What cause varicosity? What does it cause?
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Failure of venous valves causing blood to pool in lower areas. It causes venous insufficiency > Deep vein thrombosis > Pulmonary Embolism
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Where does systemic circulation begin? What is its pressure level?
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Left heart; High pressure 120/80
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Give values for perfusion for both systemic & pulmonary circuits?
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5 L/min > 20-25 L/min
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Performance is measured by what three things
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1) Pressure: Systolic and Diastolic
2) Heart Rate, Rhythm, and Output 3) Arterial/ Venous Blood Concentration |
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The cardiovascular system always has _____.
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Pressure
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What does it mean to say that the cardiovascular system is a closed system?
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No exit, it must contain pressure. If there is any opening you lose pressure
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3 factors make up total BP. What are they?
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Cardiac Output
Vessel Radius- (Container pressure) Blood volume & density (Hydrostatic Frictional pressure of system) |
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The only method of changing blood flow is to change ____ _____.
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Blood Pressure
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Blood Flow differs among the organs and is measured as ____ and ____.
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Volume and Rate
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What is blood shunting?
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Redistribution of blood flow; If one system needs it, another must give up some of its supply
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What organs must stay at a consistent blood flow level?
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Kidneys and brain
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What are the three anatomical layers of the heart from outer to inner?
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Pericardium- Outer serous membrane
Myocardium- Muscular chambers Endocardium- Cuspid & Semilunar valves, Chordae Tendinae, and Papillary muscles |
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What are pericardial effusions?
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Excess fluid builds up around the heart. This excess fluid puts pressure on the heart and doesn't allow it to expand causing poor heart function
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What is the job of the valves in the heart?
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To direct the flow of blood and prevent back flow
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What 3 things about the heart are most important for this test? (Hint: R-R-O)
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Rate- (Cycles/min), Systolic and Diastolic
Rhythm- Events of cycle Output- measured performance: (Vol/min) |
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What occurs when you cut off the hearts blood flow?
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Myocardial infarction
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What is the name of specialized pain in the heart?
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Angina
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Intercalated disks allow the heart to do what?
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Stimulate each other; Ca++ Channel
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3 histological things to know about the heart
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Staited
Same molecules as skeletal muscles Intercalated disks |
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What is the normal heart rate? What is its max?
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60-100 bpm; Depends on person and age
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Define Bradycardia
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Rate of cycles too slow to generate efficient output that occurs when HR <60
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When does tachycardia occur?
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When HR reaches 250 bpm
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Coronary arterial disease results from what?
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Poor diet choices that cause atherosclerosis
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If SA node is working in a healthy heart what can we expect to see?
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All rhythms
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If the SA node dies, what then happens to the heart?
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AV node= 60 bpm, not all rhythms (lose atrial)
Ventricular Foci= 40 bpm; not all rhythms, not very much output, (only in emergency) |
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The panic mode of the heart is known as ____. Its rate?
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Fibrillation; 350+ bpm; Acute Failure
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Ventricular foci can lead to PVC which stands for ____ ____ ____. What are two problem signs?
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Premature ventricular contraction: 3 PVC in a row or 6 in a min
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The terms used to describe cardiac work and rest are?
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Systole= Work
Diastole= Rest |
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Stroke volume is the volume of blood ejected during what phase of cardiac cycle?
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Ventricular systole
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Heart Rate=
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# of cycles per minute
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SA node depolarization is seen on ECG as ______. What event causes the P-R interval?
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P-wave (Atrial systole); AV pause (cuspid valves close)
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The most powerful portion of the cardiac rhythm is the _____ complex.
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QRS complex; Bundle Branches to PF- Begin Ventricular Systole
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What two segments follow the QRS complex and what do they represent?
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ST segment: Ventricle fully depolarized- Ejection
QT segment: Complete Ventricle Systole- Stroke Vol. |
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ST elevation is an indicator of what?
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At rest: hypertension
Not at rest: A heart attack may be taking place |
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Most of the time spent in a cardiac cycle is spent where?
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QT segment: (0.44 sec of about 0.7)
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There are two signs of post myocardial infarction on an ECG. What are they
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Inverted T wave
Elongated Q wave |
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The last two phases of the cardiac ECG are:
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T wave: Re-polarization- Ventricular Diastole
Whole Heart Diastole- Passive Blood Filling |
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The strength of a heart contraction is known as _____ _______ and is determined by _____.
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Cardio-conductivity; Ca++
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If cardio-conductivity gets too high a person may be prescribed what type of medication?
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Calcium channel blocker or B-blocker
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What is the pressure that the heart must work against?
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After-load pressure
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What is the percentage breakdown of time spent in systole vs. diastole
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Systole (33%), Diastole (67%)
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What is happening during atrial diastole?
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Filling w/ blood
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What is the ultimate measure of cardiac physiology?
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Output
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Cardiac Output= _____ _______ x _______ ______
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Stroke Volume x Heart Rate
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If EDV=max and ESV=remaining then Stroke volume= ______ - ________
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EDV-ESV
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What cardiac events determine EDV?
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Passive Ventricular filling, cuspid valves open
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Amount of ____ allotted for passive ventricular filling effects ____ _____ _____.
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Time; Max Heart Rate
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The ESV is created by what event of the heart?
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Ventricular systole
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How do you increase cardiac contractility?
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By directly adding epinephrine to the system
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What is the main way to increase the EDV?
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Venous vasoconstriction, caused by epinephrine
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Venous vasoconstriction increases the EDV, but what else does it do?
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Decrease the ESV, (*Frank Starling Reflex)
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Pulmonary circulation of the heart is low pressure. it is approximately ___/____ mmHg.
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15/8
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Systemic circulation of the heart is high pressure. It is approximately ____/____ mmHg.
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120/80
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Blood circulates in a continuous _____ motion away from the heart.
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Forward
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There are many ways to manipulate pressure within circulation. What are they?
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Cardiac Output: HR x SV
Peripheral Resistance Hemodynamic: Blood Volume & Density |
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Blood flows down a ____ gradient. It flows in a ____ capillary pattern. It is dependent on both ___ & _____.
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Pressure; Parallel; Volume & Speed
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What is the goal of circulation?
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Adequate and Adjustable blood delivery meting individual tissue demands
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To ensure blood always moves forward it is essential that ____ pressure is always greater that ___ pressure.
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Systolic; Diastolic
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Systolic pressure is adjustable and pulsatile. What influences this pressure?
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Cardiac output & myogenic stretch
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What influences diastolic pressure?
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How closely blood interacts with the vesicle wall
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When measuring BP you should inflate the pressure to ____ person's normal BP. When deflating the __ Korotkoff sound is systolic and the ____ is diastolic.
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10+; 1st; Last
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Pressure that must be in system to keep blood circulating is known as ______.
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Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
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MAP must exceed diastolic pressure. The closer the two get causes the blood to move _____.
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Slower
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How do you change the radius of a vessel?
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Stimulate muscles to vasocontrict/ vasodilate
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Resistance= ____/_____ (*equation)
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1/ r^4
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Atherosclerosis increases ____ pressure, which decreases blood flow.
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diastolic
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Prehypertension pressure = ___/___ ; Hypertension = ____/_____; Stage 4 hypertension = ____/___.
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120/85; 138/89; 210/120
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Hypotension= ______/______
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<80/<50
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Hypotension leads to a ____ is flow volume and rate, ____ O2- which leads to ____ buildup, and a ____ in speed causing _____.
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decrease; decrease; acid; decrease; clotting
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What is the only way to decrease pressure in a system?
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Lose water, increase urine output by diuretics
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What does Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) accomplish?
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It keeps the blood circulating
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MAP regulates three systems. One is the rapid/intense. What are they responsible for?
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Vascular Tone (Sympathetic); Peripheral Resistance to redirect blood, ^GI-Arterial Flow, - Skin Venous Flow, ^ EDV, ^ Frank Starling
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When directly controlling Renal Fluid Handling ______, which originates in the hypothalamus, is important. It it levels increase it causes fluid ____ or low urine output (______). If its levels decrease it causes fluid _____(______).
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Vasopressin; Retention/Oliguria; Loss/Polyuria
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Indirect control of renal fluid handling is performed by ______ "minerocorticoid". This causes the kidney to retain more ____ which ultimately draws fluid from tissue.
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Aldosterone; Na+
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The brain must get its proper blood flow. When vascular resistance is greater it causes ___ pressure to rise. Your body adjusts by increasing what 4 things?
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Diastolic; HR, Contractility, Vasoconstriction, Fluid Retention
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How does the brain sense blood pressure? Where are they located?
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Baroreceptors; Carotid artery and aorta
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Where are the signals from baroreceptors interpreted?
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Medullary cardiopulmonary center
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How does the brain indirectly sense Blood Pressure?
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CSF concentration:
Blood Gases= ^ CO2 (Main) decrease O2 Blood Energy= Glucose below 100 mg/dL Blood OsM= Sodium Elevated |
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What 3 things does blood do for the body?
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Exchange, Protection, Transport
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____ L of blood are plasma; What % of blood vol. is RBC?
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3 (of 5); 42%
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Plasma is made of ____ & _____ ______.
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Dissolved & Suspended elements
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Blood is composed in a process known as _______.
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Hematopoeisis
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Stem cells are contained in RBM. What are the two places its found in adults
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Pelvic bone & Sternum
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Lymphocytes: 2 types are ____ & _____. Describe each's function
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B-cell > Antibody
T-cell > Thymus; Immune cells |
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Immunodeficient means you are unable to resolve _____ or _______.
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Injury/Infection
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Normal blood sugar should be between ____ -____. Low blood sugar is known as ____, while high blood sugar is known as _____.
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90-100; hypocalcemia; hyperglycemia
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The bloods pH should stay within the slim range of ____ -____
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7.35-7.45
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The acid of aerobic metabolism is _____ & aerobic is _____.
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Carbonic Acid (H2CO3); Metabolic Lactic Acid
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What is the major base of the body? What is the acid/base ration?
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HCO3-; 20:1
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The normal anion gap is +10-15. If it becomes more positive the blood becomes ____, if more negative it becomes ____.
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Acid; Alkaline
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_______ - Salts Dissociate in Rxs w/ water
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Ionization
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________- Acids & Bases Rx w/ water
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Neutralization
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If your lungs can't remove CO2, then the body is more _____.
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Acidic
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Nonpolar molecule transport is known as _____. It refers to ____ & _____ molecules.
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Emulsions; hydrophobic & hydrophilic
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What is a micelle? Where does it go and how does it get broken down?
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Glob of fat; Liver; Lipase
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Venous blood is more (acidic/basic) than arterial blood.
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Acidic
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Red blood cells are produced thru erythropoiesis by what hormone that is produced by the kidneys?
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Erythropoeitin
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What % of red blood cells are replaced everyday?
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3%
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Red blood cells lack what 2 organelles? They must also have what 3 vitamins?
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Nucleus and Mitochondria; B12, Iron, Folate
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A decrease in RBC concentration is known as _____.
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Anemia
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The ____ is where RBC go to die.
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Spleen
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What occurs when your body has too much unconjugated bilirubin? How much would cause this?
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Jaundice; 5-20 mg
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How do you overcome Jaundice?
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Phototherapy
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If arterial CO2 pressure is greater than or equal to CO2 pressure in the tissues then what will happen?
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1) CO2 + H2O > H2CO3
2) O2 unloading is decreased; Lactic acid build up *Both acidify the tissue |
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What makes oncotic pressure?
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Plasma proteins
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Where do plasma proteins originate?
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Liver
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When capillary pressure is greater than oncotic pressure we ____ volume, whereas when its lower than oncotic pressure we ____ volume.
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Filter, Reabsorb
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Platelet #, Coagulation/Anticoagulation proteins, and vessel walls are the components of ____ ____.
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Virchow's Triad
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What two terms refer to the blood's ability to clot?
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Thrombotic and Hemorrhagic
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______ is the hormone secreted by the liver that is required for platelet development.
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Thrombopoeitin
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Quiet breathing is known as _____, and is approximately ___-___ breathes/min
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Eupnea; 10-12
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How many lobes do each of the lungs have?
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Right- 3
Left- 2 |
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Each alveolar sac is serviced by a ____ _____ and must stay inflated at all times
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Capillary bed
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The alveolar pressure being lower than the intracellular pressure flips the __________ gradient and will result in a collapsed lung
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Trans-pulmonary
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A collapsed lung or ________ is the result of a rib puncture and spontaneous sac rupture
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Pneumothorax
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The stretching of the lung is known as ________.
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Compliance
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Define compliance
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The ability to inspire
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Lung recoil is known as ______ and is the event of expiring air
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Elastance
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Boyle's Law states p1v1=p2v2, what does this mean?
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As pressure rises velocity falls or vice versa. They must remain in balance
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_____ is the calculation of how much air you can breathe in or out
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Spirometry |
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The central pattern generator controls the ____ and _____ of breathing
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Rate and depth
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Acid and _____ are the main stimulants of breathing
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CO2
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How does the body force CO2 to leave
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By bringing oxygen into the cell
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Too much residual volume leads to _________, i.e. Smoker's lung
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Emphysema
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Majority of circulating WBC are _________.
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Neutrophils
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What are the 4 types of nonspecific defense cells? Where are they derived from?
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Neutrophils, Monocytes (microphages), Basophils, Eosinophils; Myeloid
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The lymphoid cell line produces specifically what two cells?
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B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes |
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___________ is the term used to describe the body's response to tissue damage
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Inflammation
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Once a cell ruptures it is known as ______. What does it then release?
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Necrotic; Antigen
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Antigens are recognized by ____ and _____ cells which then release ______.
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Microphages; mast; histamine
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What are the two actions of histamine?
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1) Increase Capillary permeability, which increasing filtration
2)Removes waste debris and filters it out through lymph node drainage |
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Cellular isolation by neutrophils is called a _______.
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Granuloma
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When neutrophils phagocytize antigens then place it on each of their receptors they become ____ ______ ______ (APC).
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Antigen Presenting Cell
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What are the signs of inflammation?
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Swelling (adema), Redness, Heat, and Pain
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What type of immunity comes from lymphocytes?
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Antibody mediated immunity
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What happens if a cell binds or fails to bind to Self antigen? (Self AG Challenge)
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Doesn't bind= released into circulation
Binds= Destroyed through Apoptosis |
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A B-cell + its foreign soluble antigen= ____-___ ____ and is signal 1 of Activation
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Antibody-Antigen Complex
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B-cells can only become fully activated through help from a ____-___ cell? What's special about these cells?
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T-helper cells; All have CD4 receptors
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There are 2 ways T-helpers can be activated. Give them
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1) MHC II from Antigen Presenting Cell (APC) to TCR
2) B-cells MHC II to it TCR |
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Once T-helpers are activated they secrete ____ which creates signal #____ and fully activate B cells.
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Cytokine; 2
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Fully activated B-cells begin to ______ and _____.
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Differentiate and Expand
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B cell expansion is known as _____ expansion
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Clonal
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B cells differentiate to create ______ _______.
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Plasma cells
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Plasma cells secrete ______ that reach places cells cannot go
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Antibodies
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The phagocytic system is enhanced in what two ways?
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Opsinin System
Neutralizing System |
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Cytotoxic cells recognize ______ and T-helpers recognize ______.
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MHC I; MHC II
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Which T-cells get the Self Antigen challenge?
Foreign Antigen? |
Cytotoxic cells; Helper T cells
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Killer T cell activation, if TCR binds to Self Ag it creates a ____ bond and ______. If it binds to Foreign Ag then it creates a _____ bond and _____.
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Weak/Moves On
Strong/ Kills |
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HIV/AIDS attacks our __-_______ cells. How?
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T-helper; Causes out Killer T cells to see them as foreign and kill
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