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154 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Rate + _______= Output
Rhythm
Input + Distribution - Output is related to what physiological theme
Mass Balance
What is the name of the short circuit system of blood flow?
Pulmonary
What is the difference between veins and arteries in terms of pressure and direction?
Veins: Return (Low Pressure)

Arteries: Output (High Pressure)

What is the most muscular type of blood vessel?
Arteries: circulr smooth muscle
What cause varicosity? What does it cause?
Failure of venous valves causing blood to pool in lower areas. It causes venous insufficiency > Deep vein thrombosis > Pulmonary Embolism
Where does systemic circulation begin? What is its pressure level?
Left heart; High pressure 120/80
Give values for perfusion for both systemic & pulmonary circuits?
5 L/min > 20-25 L/min
Performance is measured by what three things
1) Pressure: Systolic and Diastolic

2) Heart Rate, Rhythm, and Output


3) Arterial/ Venous Blood Concentration

The cardiovascular system always has _____.
Pressure
What does it mean to say that the cardiovascular system is a closed system?
No exit, it must contain pressure. If there is any opening you lose pressure
3 factors make up total BP. What are they?
Cardiac Output

Vessel Radius- (Container pressure)


Blood volume & density (Hydrostatic Frictional pressure of system)

The only method of changing blood flow is to change ____ _____.
Blood Pressure
Blood Flow differs among the organs and is measured as ____ and ____.
Volume and Rate
What is blood shunting?
Redistribution of blood flow; If one system needs it, another must give up some of its supply
What organs must stay at a consistent blood flow level?
Kidneys and brain
What are the three anatomical layers of the heart from outer to inner?
Pericardium- Outer serous membrane

Myocardium- Muscular chambers


Endocardium- Cuspid & Semilunar valves, Chordae Tendinae, and Papillary muscles

What are pericardial effusions?
Excess fluid builds up around the heart. This excess fluid puts pressure on the heart and doesn't allow it to expand causing poor heart function
What is the job of the valves in the heart?
To direct the flow of blood and prevent back flow
What 3 things about the heart are most important for this test? (Hint: R-R-O)
Rate- (Cycles/min), Systolic and Diastolic

Rhythm- Events of cycle


Output- measured performance: (Vol/min)

What occurs when you cut off the hearts blood flow?
Myocardial infarction
What is the name of specialized pain in the heart?
Angina
Intercalated disks allow the heart to do what?
Stimulate each other; Ca++ Channel
3 histological things to know about the heart
Staited

Same molecules as skeletal muscles


Intercalated disks

What is the normal heart rate? What is its max?
60-100 bpm; Depends on person and age
Define Bradycardia
Rate of cycles too slow to generate efficient output that occurs when HR <60
When does tachycardia occur?
When HR reaches 250 bpm
Coronary arterial disease results from what?
Poor diet choices that cause atherosclerosis
If SA node is working in a healthy heart what can we expect to see?
All rhythms
If the SA node dies, what then happens to the heart?
AV node= 60 bpm, not all rhythms (lose atrial)

Ventricular Foci= 40 bpm; not all rhythms, not very much output, (only in emergency)

The panic mode of the heart is known as ____. Its rate?
Fibrillation; 350+ bpm; Acute Failure
Ventricular foci can lead to PVC which stands for ____ ____ ____. What are two problem signs?
Premature ventricular contraction: 3 PVC in a row or 6 in a min
The terms used to describe cardiac work and rest are?
Systole= Work

Diastole= Rest

Stroke volume is the volume of blood ejected during what phase of cardiac cycle?
Ventricular systole
Heart Rate=
# of cycles per minute
SA node depolarization is seen on ECG as ______. What event causes the P-R interval?
P-wave (Atrial systole); AV pause (cuspid valves close)
The most powerful portion of the cardiac rhythm is the _____ complex.
QRS complex; Bundle Branches to PF- Begin Ventricular Systole
What two segments follow the QRS complex and what do they represent?
ST segment: Ventricle fully depolarized- Ejection

QT segment: Complete Ventricle Systole- Stroke Vol.

ST elevation is an indicator of what?
At rest: hypertension

Not at rest: A heart attack may be taking place

Most of the time spent in a cardiac cycle is spent where?
QT segment: (0.44 sec of about 0.7)
There are two signs of post myocardial infarction on an ECG. What are they
Inverted T wave

Elongated Q wave

The last two phases of the cardiac ECG are:
T wave: Re-polarization- Ventricular Diastole

Whole Heart Diastole- Passive Blood Filling

The strength of a heart contraction is known as _____ _______ and is determined by _____.
Cardio-conductivity; Ca++
If cardio-conductivity gets too high a person may be prescribed what type of medication?
Calcium channel blocker or B-blocker
What is the pressure that the heart must work against?
After-load pressure
What is the percentage breakdown of time spent in systole vs. diastole
Systole (33%), Diastole (67%)
What is happening during atrial diastole?
Filling w/ blood
What is the ultimate measure of cardiac physiology?
Output
Cardiac Output= _____ _______ x _______ ______
Stroke Volume x Heart Rate
If EDV=max and ESV=remaining then Stroke volume= ______ - ________
EDV-ESV
What cardiac events determine EDV?
Passive Ventricular filling, cuspid valves open
Amount of ____ allotted for passive ventricular filling effects ____ _____ _____.
Time; Max Heart Rate
The ESV is created by what event of the heart?
Ventricular systole
How do you increase cardiac contractility?
By directly adding epinephrine to the system
What is the main way to increase the EDV?
Venous vasoconstriction, caused by epinephrine
Venous vasoconstriction increases the EDV, but what else does it do?
Decrease the ESV, (*Frank Starling Reflex)
Pulmonary circulation of the heart is low pressure. it is approximately ___/____ mmHg.
15/8
Systemic circulation of the heart is high pressure. It is approximately ____/____ mmHg.
120/80
Blood circulates in a continuous _____ motion away from the heart.
Forward
There are many ways to manipulate pressure within circulation. What are they?
Cardiac Output: HR x SV

Peripheral Resistance


Hemodynamic: Blood Volume & Density

Blood flows down a ____ gradient. It flows in a ____ capillary pattern. It is dependent on both ___ & _____.
Pressure; Parallel; Volume & Speed
What is the goal of circulation?
Adequate and Adjustable blood delivery meting individual tissue demands
To ensure blood always moves forward it is essential that ____ pressure is always greater that ___ pressure.
Systolic; Diastolic
Systolic pressure is adjustable and pulsatile. What influences this pressure?
Cardiac output & myogenic stretch
What influences diastolic pressure?
How closely blood interacts with the vesicle wall
When measuring BP you should inflate the pressure to ____ person's normal BP. When deflating the __ Korotkoff sound is systolic and the ____ is diastolic.
10+; 1st; Last
Pressure that must be in system to keep blood circulating is known as ______.
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
MAP must exceed diastolic pressure. The closer the two get causes the blood to move _____.
Slower
How do you change the radius of a vessel?
Stimulate muscles to vasocontrict/ vasodilate
Resistance= ____/_____ (*equation)
1/ r^4
Atherosclerosis increases ____ pressure, which decreases blood flow.
diastolic
Prehypertension pressure = ___/___ ; Hypertension = ____/_____; Stage 4 hypertension = ____/___.
120/85; 138/89; 210/120
Hypotension= ______/______
<80/<50
Hypotension leads to a ____ is flow volume and rate, ____ O2- which leads to ____ buildup, and a ____ in speed causing _____.
decrease; decrease; acid; decrease; clotting
What is the only way to decrease pressure in a system?
Lose water, increase urine output by diuretics
What does Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) accomplish?
It keeps the blood circulating
MAP regulates three systems. One is the rapid/intense. What are they responsible for?
Vascular Tone (Sympathetic); Peripheral Resistance to redirect blood, ^GI-Arterial Flow, - Skin Venous Flow, ^ EDV, ^ Frank Starling
When directly controlling Renal Fluid Handling ______, which originates in the hypothalamus, is important. It it levels increase it causes fluid ____ or low urine output (______). If its levels decrease it causes fluid _____(______).
Vasopressin; Retention/Oliguria; Loss/Polyuria
Indirect control of renal fluid handling is performed by ______ "minerocorticoid". This causes the kidney to retain more ____ which ultimately draws fluid from tissue.
Aldosterone; Na+
The brain must get its proper blood flow. When vascular resistance is greater it causes ___ pressure to rise. Your body adjusts by increasing what 4 things?
Diastolic; HR, Contractility, Vasoconstriction, Fluid Retention
How does the brain sense blood pressure? Where are they located?
Baroreceptors; Carotid artery and aorta
Where are the signals from baroreceptors interpreted?
Medullary cardiopulmonary center
How does the brain indirectly sense Blood Pressure?
CSF concentration:

Blood Gases= ^ CO2 (Main) decrease O2


Blood Energy= Glucose below 100 mg/dL


Blood OsM= Sodium Elevated



What 3 things does blood do for the body?
Exchange, Protection, Transport
____ L of blood are plasma; What % of blood vol. is RBC?
3 (of 5); 42%
Plasma is made of ____ & _____ ______.
Dissolved & Suspended elements
Blood is composed in a process known as _______.
Hematopoeisis
Stem cells are contained in RBM. What are the two places its found in adults
Pelvic bone & Sternum
Lymphocytes: 2 types are ____ & _____. Describe each's function
B-cell > Antibody

T-cell > Thymus; Immune cells

Immunodeficient means you are unable to resolve _____ or _______.
Injury/Infection
Normal blood sugar should be between ____ -____. Low blood sugar is known as ____, while high blood sugar is known as _____.
90-100; hypocalcemia; hyperglycemia
The bloods pH should stay within the slim range of ____ -____
7.35-7.45
The acid of aerobic metabolism is _____ & aerobic is _____.
Carbonic Acid (H2CO3); Metabolic Lactic Acid
What is the major base of the body? What is the acid/base ration?
HCO3-; 20:1
The normal anion gap is +10-15. If it becomes more positive the blood becomes ____, if more negative it becomes ____.
Acid; Alkaline
_______ - Salts Dissociate in Rxs w/ water
Ionization
________- Acids & Bases Rx w/ water
Neutralization
If your lungs can't remove CO2, then the body is more _____.
Acidic
Nonpolar molecule transport is known as _____. It refers to ____ & _____ molecules.
Emulsions; hydrophobic & hydrophilic
What is a micelle? Where does it go and how does it get broken down?
Glob of fat; Liver; Lipase
Venous blood is more (acidic/basic) than arterial blood.
Acidic
Red blood cells are produced thru erythropoiesis by what hormone that is produced by the kidneys?
Erythropoeitin
What % of red blood cells are replaced everyday?
3%
Red blood cells lack what 2 organelles? They must also have what 3 vitamins?
Nucleus and Mitochondria; B12, Iron, Folate
A decrease in RBC concentration is known as _____.
Anemia
The ____ is where RBC go to die.
Spleen
What occurs when your body has too much unconjugated bilirubin? How much would cause this?
Jaundice; 5-20 mg
How do you overcome Jaundice?
Phototherapy
If arterial CO2 pressure is greater than or equal to CO2 pressure in the tissues then what will happen?
1) CO2 + H2O > H2CO3

2) O2 unloading is decreased; Lactic acid build up


*Both acidify the tissue

What makes oncotic pressure?
Plasma proteins
Where do plasma proteins originate?
Liver
When capillary pressure is greater than oncotic pressure we ____ volume, whereas when its lower than oncotic pressure we ____ volume.
Filter, Reabsorb
Platelet #, Coagulation/Anticoagulation proteins, and vessel walls are the components of ____ ____.
Virchow's Triad
What two terms refer to the blood's ability to clot?
Thrombotic and Hemorrhagic
______ is the hormone secreted by the liver that is required for platelet development.
Thrombopoeitin
Quiet breathing is known as _____, and is approximately ___-___ breathes/min
Eupnea; 10-12
How many lobes do each of the lungs have?
Right- 3

Left- 2

Each alveolar sac is serviced by a ____ _____ and must stay inflated at all times
Capillary bed
The alveolar pressure being lower than the intracellular pressure flips the __________ gradient and will result in a collapsed lung
Trans-pulmonary
A collapsed lung or ________ is the result of a rib puncture and spontaneous sac rupture
Pneumothorax
The stretching of the lung is known as ________.
Compliance
Define compliance
The ability to inspire
Lung recoil is known as ______ and is the event of expiring air
Elastance
Boyle's Law states p1v1=p2v2, what does this mean?
As pressure rises velocity falls or vice versa. They must remain in balance
_____ is the calculation of how much air you can breathe in or out

Spirometry

The central pattern generator controls the ____ and _____ of breathing
Rate and depth
Acid and _____ are the main stimulants of breathing
CO2
How does the body force CO2 to leave
By bringing oxygen into the cell
Too much residual volume leads to _________, i.e. Smoker's lung
Emphysema
Majority of circulating WBC are _________.
Neutrophils
What are the 4 types of nonspecific defense cells? Where are they derived from?
Neutrophils, Monocytes (microphages), Basophils, Eosinophils; Myeloid
The lymphoid cell line produces specifically what two cells?
B-lymphocytes

T-lymphocytes

___________ is the term used to describe the body's response to tissue damage
Inflammation
Once a cell ruptures it is known as ______. What does it then release?
Necrotic; Antigen
Antigens are recognized by ____ and _____ cells which then release ______.
Microphages; mast; histamine
What are the two actions of histamine?
1) Increase Capillary permeability, which increasing filtration

2)Removes waste debris and filters it out through lymph node drainage

Cellular isolation by neutrophils is called a _______.
Granuloma
When neutrophils phagocytize antigens then place it on each of their receptors they become ____ ______ ______ (APC).
Antigen Presenting Cell
What are the signs of inflammation?
Swelling (adema), Redness, Heat, and Pain
What type of immunity comes from lymphocytes?
Antibody mediated immunity
What happens if a cell binds or fails to bind to Self antigen? (Self AG Challenge)
Doesn't bind= released into circulation

Binds= Destroyed through Apoptosis

A B-cell + its foreign soluble antigen= ____-___ ____ and is signal 1 of Activation
Antibody-Antigen Complex
B-cells can only become fully activated through help from a ____-___ cell? What's special about these cells?
T-helper cells; All have CD4 receptors
There are 2 ways T-helpers can be activated. Give them
1) MHC II from Antigen Presenting Cell (APC) to TCR

2) B-cells MHC II to it TCR

Once T-helpers are activated they secrete ____ which creates signal #____ and fully activate B cells.
Cytokine; 2
Fully activated B-cells begin to ______ and _____.
Differentiate and Expand
B cell expansion is known as _____ expansion
Clonal
B cells differentiate to create ______ _______.
Plasma cells
Plasma cells secrete ______ that reach places cells cannot go
Antibodies
The phagocytic system is enhanced in what two ways?
Opsinin System

Neutralizing System

Cytotoxic cells recognize ______ and T-helpers recognize ______.
MHC I; MHC II
Which T-cells get the Self Antigen challenge?

Foreign Antigen?

Cytotoxic cells; Helper T cells
Killer T cell activation, if TCR binds to Self Ag it creates a ____ bond and ______. If it binds to Foreign Ag then it creates a _____ bond and _____.
Weak/Moves On

Strong/ Kills

HIV/AIDS attacks our __-_______ cells. How?
T-helper; Causes out Killer T cells to see them as foreign and kill