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189 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the function(s) of skeletal muscle? |
- Produce movement - Maintain posture and body position - Stabilise joints - Generate heat - Glycaemic control - Enhance blood and lymph movement - Intramuscular injection site (IM) |
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Which two regulatory proteins block the myosin heads from binding to the actin filaments within the sarcomere? |
Troponin and Tropomysin |
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Why would knowing the blood level of cardiac troponin help to determine wether a patient has had a myocardial infarction? |
Cardiac troponin is only found in the heart, thus provides direct evidence that cardiac muscle cells have been damaged. |
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What is a neuromuscular junction? |
Site of communication between a nerve cell and muscle cell (synapse). |
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What is a neurotransmitter? Give an example. |
Released from the distal end of the nerve, crosses synaptic cleft and binds to its receptor which stimulates adjacent cell (nerve or muscle) i.e. Acetylcholine (Ach) or Dopamine |
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When acetylcholine binds to its receptor on the sarcolemma an electrolyte rushes into the sarcoplasm of the muscle cell which initiates the formation of a new action potential. What is this dominant electrolyte? (Figure 7.7) |
Sodium (Na+) |
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The enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks down Ach to stop continual stimulation of the muscle so it can relax. However, many insecticides contain toxins that interfere with the action of this enzyme. What signs would you expect to observe in a patient as result of insecticide poisoning? |
At would not be removed and would continue to stimulate the muscle causing persistent contractions (spastic paralysis). |
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An intramuscular injection delivers a medication into a skeletal muscle. Why deliver it here? |
Greater vascularity = Faster absorption Less sensitivity to irritation + viscous medications Larger dose (2-4mL) than submit (0.5-1mL) without discomfort |
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What is the purpose of active and passive limb exercises in a patient? |
- Maintain muscle mass - Leverage on bone to maintain bone density - Stimulates patient - Encourage venous and lymph flow - Joint mobility maintenance |
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Muscle Fiber |
A muscle cell |
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Sarcoplasm |
Muscle cell cytoplasm |
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Fasicle |
Bundle of nerve fibers |
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Sarcolemma |
Plasma membrane of the muscle cell |
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Tendon |
Cord of collagen fibres that attaches a muscle to bone |
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Sarcomere |
Contractile unit of a muscle cell |
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Ligament |
Cord of fibrous tissue that attaches bone to bone |
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Myofibril |
Long filamentous organelle with a striated appearance in the cytoplasm of muscle cells |
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Troponin and Tropomyosin |
Regulatory protein(s) involved in the interaction of actin and myosin |
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Epimysium |
Dense connective tissue around each muscle that is continuous with the tendon. |
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The nervous system of the body is made up of two sections. These are the _________________ and the __________________. |
Central nervous system and the Peripheral nervous system |
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The peripheral nervous system is divided into two divisions. These are the ________________ and the _____________ divisions. |
Sensory and Motor |
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The structural cell units of the nervous system that transmit electrical signals are the __________. |
Neurons |
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A sensory neuron carries signals towards the central nervous system. This is called an _______________. |
Afferent signal. |
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A motor neuron carries signals to the effector organ and is called an ____________. |
Efferent signal. |
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The motor division of the nervous system is divided into the _______________________ and the ____________________. |
Somatic and Autonomic Nervous System's. |
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The protective and supporting cells of the nervous system are called _____________________. |
Neuroglia |
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List the six (6) types of neuroglia that support and protect the nervous system. |
1) Astrocytes 2) Microglia 3) Ependymal 4) Oligodendrocytes 5) Satelitte 6) Schwann |
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Why do most brain tumours occur in the neuroglia and meninges of the CNS and not in the neruons> |
Neuroglia go through mitosis (cell division), neurons do not as they have no centrioles |
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What substance is found in the synaptic vesicles within the synaptic knob of a neuron? |
Neurotransmitter(s) |
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Name three (3) neurotransmitters. |
1) Acetylcholine (Ach) 2) Adrenaline 3) Seratonin |
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What role does the myelin sheath play? |
White fatty material protects and insulates some nerves. |
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What is an action potential (or nerve impulse)? |
An electrical event that once initiated spreads along the surface of a neutron towards the synaptic knob (influx of Na+). |
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Name the five (5) essential components of a reflex arc. |
1) Receptor 2) Sensory neuron 3) Integration centre (neurosoma) 4) Motor neuron 5) Effector |
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Which three (3) areas make up the brain stem? |
Mid brain, pons and Medulla oblongata. |
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Explain why trauma to the base of the brain is often more dangerous than to the front. |
Medulla oblongata = respiratory, cardiac + vasomotor centres. Reticular activating system (RAS) extends length of brain stem = consciousness |
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Through which structure does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulate? |
Ventricles of brain, subarachnoid space, central canal of spinal cord. Reabsorbed into venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. |
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What is the function of CSF? |
Buoyancy for the brain + protects nervous system from trauma. |
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Neurons |
Nerve cells that transmit information as electrical systems |
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Neuroglia |
Protective and supportive cells of the nervous system |
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Ependymal cell |
Ciliated support cell that lines the inside of cavities of brain and spinal cord; helps produce CSF |
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Astrocyte |
Most abundant support cell; covers brain surface, helps form blood-brain barrier |
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Ganglia |
Clusters of neurosoma (grey matter) within the CNS |
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Nuclei |
Clusters of neurosoma within the PNS |
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Microglia |
Support cell that engage in phagocytosis of pathogens and cell debris |
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Schwann |
Support cell that forms the myelin sheath around neurons in the PNS |
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Oligodendrocyte |
Octopus-shaped support cell that forms the myelin sheath around neurons in the CNS |
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What would be the most obvious effects from lesions to the occipital area? |
Visual Disturbances |
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What would be the most obvious effects from lesions to the temporal lobe? |
Hearing problems |
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A person can survive after destruction of one entire cerebral hemisphere but cannot survive after destruction of the hypothalamus. Why is this? |
Cerebral hemispheres have no vital functions, where as the hypothalamus, ANS, endocrine system, haemostats mechanisms such as temperature and osmolarity of blood. |
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Which two pairs of arteries supple blood to the brain? |
Internal carotid + Vertebral a. |
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Anterior and posterior blood supplies are united by small communicating arterial branches (anatomies) resulting in a complete circle of connecting blood vessels called the ________________. |
Circle of Willis |
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What is the optic disc (blind spot)? |
Area of Retina where optic nerve leaves the eye. No photoreceptors here, so when light is focused on this point that object disappears from our view. |
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What is the fovea? |
Centre of the macula. Has the Highest concentration of photoreceptors. |
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We as nurses often wear protective glasses to prevent the entrance of pathogens into our body. Though which duct in the eye can pathogens enter? |
Nasolacrimal Duct |
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Why do we block the nasolacrimal duct when administering eye drops? |
To stop the medication from draining away into the nasal cavity. |
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Why do upper respiratory tract infections often lead to problems with the middle ear? |
Pathogens can spread from nasopharynx to middle ear through auditory tube. |
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What would happen if the hair cells in your spina organ were damaged by intravenous antibiotics? |
Hearing loss |
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Which of the two ANS subdivisions enables us to deal with unusual stimuli (fight or flight)? |
Sympathetic nervous system |
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Function's of the E-divison |
Exercise, Excitement, Emergency and Embarrassment. |
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Which of the two ANS subdivisions conserve energy, calm the body and maintain daily necessary functions (housekeeping)? |
Parasympathetic nervous system |
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Functions of the D-dividion |
Digestion, Diuresis and Defaecation |
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T or F The taste cells in the taste buds are known as gustatory cells. |
True |
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T or F The semicircular canals are the organs of balance (equilibrium) |
True |
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T or F The inner ear contains the ossicles (malice, incus and stapes) |
False |
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T or F The photoreceptors of the eye are known as rod's and plates |
False |
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T or F The sympathetic nervous system is often referred to as the "fight or flight" system or E-division of the ANS |
True |
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T or F The effects of the parasympathetic or D-divsion of the ANS are more localised and specific than the sympathetic |
True |
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T or F The sympathetic nervous system stimulates digestion |
False |
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T or F Things we touch with the left hand are perceived only in the right cerebral hemisphere |
True |
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T or F Things we see in the left eye are perceived only in the right hemisphere |
False |
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T or F The middle ear is filled with air, but the membranous labyrinth of the cochlea and semi circular canals is filled with liquid (endolymph and perilymph) |
True |
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Define what a hormone is. |
Potent chemical substance liberated into the blood from endocrine cells which alter the metabolism of a target cell in a specific manner through binding to a receptor |
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Chemically hormones being to three (3) main groups, what are they? |
1) Steroid 2) Monoamines (amino acid) 3) Peptides (string of amino acids) |
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Define what a target cell (organ) is. |
Cell(s) containing receptors to a particular hormone |
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Why do steroid hormones typically require hours to days to show an effect? |
Need to synthesise a new protein inside the cell |
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What are tropic hormones? |
Stimulate target organs (endocrine glands or tissues) to secrete hormones |
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Name at least four (4) hormones that can influence blood glucose levels? |
- Insulin - Glycagon - Adrenalin - Thyroxine |
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How do insulin and glucagon work antagonistically in controlling blood glucose levels? |
Insulin stimulates transport of glucose into cells to reduce glucose levels. Glycagon stimulates breakdown of glycogen to increase BGL. |
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Why is insulin ( a peptide hormone) prescribed as a subcutaneous injection rather than an oral medication? |
Peptides are chemical digested by pepsin and denatured by hydrochloric acid in the stomach which would inactivate it. |
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Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) |
Development and secretion in the adrenal cortex |
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Growth hormone |
Stimulates protein anabolism and fat mobilisation |
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Parathyroid hormone |
secreted in response to low calcium |
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Melatonin |
Setting of circadian rhythms |
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Oxytonin |
Uterine contraction and milk injection |
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Leptin |
Negative feedback control for appetite (satiety) |
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Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) |
Development and secretion in the thyroid gland |
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Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) |
Promotes water retention in kidney tubules |
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Adrenalin |
Short-term stress ("fight or flight") |
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Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) |
reduces blood volume and pressure |
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Aldosterone |
Conservation of Na+ and elimination of K+ at kidney |
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Thyroxine |
Growth and metabolic rate (ATP and heat production) |
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Peptide YY |
Secreted by intestines, signals satiety |
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Grehlin |
Secreted by stomach signals hypothalamus to stimulate appetite |
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List in correct order the structures that an oral medication would pass through (10) |
Mouth, Pharynx, Oesophagus, Cardiac Sphincter, Stomach, Pyloric Sphincter, Duodenum, Jejumum, Ileum, Colon |
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When a medication is taken orally where is the most common site of absorption? |
Jejunum |
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What factors would influence the movement of a medication from the stomach to the jejunum? |
Presence of food in the stomach, types of food, gastroenteritis and constipation |
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What structural features of the jejunum facilitate absorption? |
- Large surface due to arcular folds, - Villi and microvilli, - Good blood supply |
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The portal vein takes the absorbed medication from the digestive tract to which organ and for what purpose? |
Liver - Biotransformation (metabolism) |
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What structure(s) within a hepatocyte is responsible for metabolising a medication? |
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum contains microsomal enzymes |
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Once the medication has been metabolised by the liver where does it go? |
Leaves via hepatic vein, and joins inferior vena cava, Thus general circulation Kidneys and bile |
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What alternative routes can we administer a medication to avoid the liver? |
Sublingual (SL), buccal Topical Inhalations Transdermal Intramuscular, Intravenous, Subcutaneous Rectal/Vaginal |
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What factors in the hypodermic facilitate a pain-free, slow and prolonged absorption of a medication? |
No nerve endings Fat (adipose) Less blood vessels |
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What advantages does an intramuscular injection have over a subcutaneous injection? |
Richer blood supply = more onset of action, Muscles can tolerate larger volume (2-4mL), Better for irrigating medications |
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Why can lipid soluble medications cross the plasma membrane and water soluble cannot? |
Plasma membrane is composed of phospholipids (fatty acids) and cholesterol |
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If a medication cannot cross the plasma membrane how can it exert its effect on the cell? |
Bind to a receptor on the plasma membrane which then initiates a cellular change i.e. ion channel, enzyme, secondary messenger's |
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Which structures within a cell are involved in protein synthesis? |
Ribosomes, RER, golgi apparatus, transport vesicles DNA (Chromosomes in nucleus). |
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What is lymph? |
Tissue that has entered the lymphatics (leaked plasma but with less plasma protein) |
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What are the three (3) functions of the lymphatic system? |
Fluid balance, Immune response + Absorption and transport |
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What factors assist the flow of lymph? |
- Milking actions of muscles - Valves - Pressure changes in thorax - Rapid flowing blood (subclavian veins) draws lymph into it |
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How could you as a nurse slow the flow of a patients lymph? Why would you do this? |
Immobilise, pressure dressing to limit the spread of infection or venum |
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What is the name of the terminal duct draining lymph from most of the body? |
Thoracic duct |
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Which portion of the body is drained by the right lymphatic duct? |
Right half of upper torso and head + Right arm |
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For each region state whether the lymph with drain into the right lymphatic duct of left throacic duct. Right Hand _____ Left Breast _____ Right Leg _____ Right Breast _____ |
Right Hand - RL Left Breast - LT Right Leg - LT Right Breast - RL |
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What external assess in terms of accumulating fluid in your patient which could be due to a blocked vessel? |
Oedema (excess fluid in tissue), FBC Weight Gain |
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What are the major functions of the lymph nodes? |
Remove debris and pathogens from lymph site for activation of immune response. |
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Name three (3) anatomical areas of the body where lymph nodes are densely clustered and lie close to the surface of the skin. |
Axilla (Arm pit), Cervical (Groin) + Inguinal (Neck) |
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Name some cell types found within the lymphatic system. |
Lymphocytes, macrophages, dendritic, natural killer and Reticular cells + T-Cells |
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Differentiate between a bacteria and a virus. |
Bacteria are cellular microorganisms capable of reproduction (asexual). Virus needs a host to reproduce (parasitic). |
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When can our microbiota become pathogenic? |
When it enters another region. Immunosupressents + Antibiotics. |
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What is a biofilm? |
Organised and layered systems of bacteria attached to each other and on a surface work as a group. |
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Do antibiotics effect viruses? |
No - Antibiotics effect bacterial ribosomes, cell walls and bacterial reproduction |
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Name other lymphatic tissues and organs in the body |
Lymph nodes. Peyers patches in small intestine, appendix/opening to exterior - nose, mouth, vagina, urethra, anus. |
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What is a pathogen? |
Disease Causing. Could be bacterial, viral, prions + some eukaryotes (algae, fungi, protozoa) |
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How could a patients first and or second line of defences be compromised? |
Skin broken or damaged, mucous membranes compromised, immunosupresents, steroids, Antibiotics (normal microbiota) |
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What is the function of a mild fever (pyrexia) in a patient? |
Pathogens prefer 37 C Thus raising body temp, inhibits pathogen reproduction. Fever promotes interferon activity and speeds up repair. |
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What are the physiological events that lead to a typical inflammatory response of redness, swelling, heat and pain? |
Inflammatory chemicals released from inguinal cells and mast cells which cause: Blood vessels to dilate (redness and heat) which become leaky allowing fluid (compromised) into the tissue (swelling and pain) |
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Why is the application of a cold pack to an area of inflammation soothing for the patient? |
Vasoconstriction - Less swelling Slow down chemical reaction - reduce pain |
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What is the role(s) of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in the immune response? |
Upon antigen challenge, B cells with correct receptor produce plasma cells (antibodies) and memory cells. _____ Destroy extracellular foreign particles |
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What is the primary and secondary humoral response? |
Primary - Formation of plasma and memory cells on first exposure to pathogen. Secondary - Rapid formation of many plasma cells from memory cells on second exposure to antigen. |
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Antibodies do not destroy antigens they inactivate and tag them for destruction. What are the three (3) main defensive mechanisms used by antibodies? |
Neutralisation, Agglutination + Activation of complement |
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What is the role(s) of the T lymphocytes (T cells) in the immune response? |
Destroy intracellular foreign antigens and tutor cells |
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What are the two main types of T-Cells? |
Cytotoxic and Helper |
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How do cytotoxic or killer T cells destroy infected and cancer cells? |
Insert toxic chemicals into cell (interferons, perforins + ganzymes) |
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What is the role of the helper T cells? |
Active in humoral + cellular immunity Secrete cytokines (interleukins) that coordinate immune response |
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What is the function of the antigen presenting cells (ACPs)? |
Engulf forgien particles (phagocytosis) - display antigen fragments of foreign particles on plasma membrane. Enter lymphatics and present to T-cells. |
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Determine maleness/femaleness |
Sex chromosomes |
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Genetic Makeup (DNA sequences) |
Genotype |
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Expression of a genetic trait (showing) |
Phenotype |
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Genes for the same trait that may have different expressions |
Alleles |
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Individual who has identical alleles for a particular trait |
Homozygote |
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Situation in which an individual has different alleles making up his genotype for a particular trait |
Heterozygote |
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More potent gene allele; masks the expression of the less potent allele |
Dominant |
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Less potent gene allele, only expressed in homozygote individuals |
Recessive |
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Why are men more likely than women to have red-green colour blindness and haemophilia? |
Women have two X chromosomes, men only have one. Therefore, men tend to express any allele that is present on their single X chromosome. |
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List the three (3) male reproductive accessory organs (glands). |
1) Seminal glands 2) Prostate x 1 3) Bulbo-urethral glands |
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What are the two (2) principles functions of the testes? |
1) Produce semen 2) Produce hormones (Testosterone + Inhibin) |
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Why do the testes have a rich blood supply? |
Nutrients for spermatogenesis, Temperature regulation, Release hormones into blood (LH + FSH) |
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What is the function of the dartos and cremaster muscles? |
Dartos - Causes wrinkling of the scrotal skin to decrease surface area Cremaster - Pulls testes closer to body for warmth |
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Where in the testes does spermatogenesis take place? |
Seminiferous Tubules |
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Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates: Spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules |
(FSH) Follicle stimulating hormone |
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Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates: Testosterone production by the interstitial cells |
(LH) Luteinising Hormone |
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Why do you think a pregnant woman could feel the need to urinate frequently? |
Yes, Pressure of enlarged uterus on bladder |
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What is the perineum? |
Diamond shaped region between the thighs, bordered by the pubic symphysis, ischial tubercosities ad the coccyx |
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Which if the uterine layers sloughs off during menstruation? |
Stratum functionalism of the endometrium |
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Structure that produces sperm and testosterone |
Testes |
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Coiled tubules that sits on top of the testes |
Epididymis |
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Tightly coiled tubules that produce sperm |
Seminiferous |
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Cells that secrete testosterone |
Interstitial |
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Cells that maintain the blood-testes barrier |
Sustentacular (Nurse Cells) |
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Composed of a head, body and tail |
Sperm |
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Elevates testes to maintain their correct temperature |
Cremaster Muscle |
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Piece of skin that is circumcised |
Prepuce |
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Erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra |
Corpus Spongiosum |
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Erectile tissue that makes up most of the penis |
Corpus Cavernosa |
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If the prostate enlarges what does this do to the flow of urine from the bladder? |
Dysuria, Urinary Retention |
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How is the prostate gland examined? |
Digital Examination |
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What is a corpus lute and what does it produce? |
Ruptured Graafian follicle reforms to the corpus luteum which produces progesterone + oestrogen |
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The cellular products of spermatogenesis are FOUR _______________. The final product of oogenesis is ONE ________________ and three _________________. |
Sperm, Ovum or Egg and Polar bodies. |
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How would taking a contraceptive pill high in oestrogen and progesterone influence a women's ovarian and menstrual cycle? |
High levels of oestrogen and progesterone would switch off FSH + LH from anterior pituitary, hence ovarian cycle ceases. |
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What does this relationship suggest about the role of body fat in menstruation? |
Adipose tissue releases the hormonal leptin. When leptin is low, the nervous system shuts off the ovarian cycle. |
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Amenorrhea (Defined): |
Females that are underweight often cease have menstrual cycles. |
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Umbilical Vein |
Oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus |
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Ductus Venosus |
Bypass the liver, join inferior vena cava |
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Foramen Ovule |
Hole Between RA + LA (bypass lungs) |
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Ductus arteriosus |
From pulmonary trunck to aorta |
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Umbilical a. |
Waste laden. Blood to placenta. |
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Could a sperm or micro organisms enter the pelvic cavity? |
Yes, because there is no anatomical continuity between the ovary and the uterine tube entrance. |
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T or F Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the anterior pituitary to release Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinising Hormone (LH) |
True |
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T or F FSH and LH stimulate development of the ovarian follicles (ovaries) |
True |
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T or F The maturing ovarian follicle produces oestrogen and progesterone |
True |
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T or F Oestrogen stimulates mitosis and regrowth of blood vessels in endometrium during the secretory phase of menstrual cycle (uterus) |
False |
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T or F An increased level of oestrogen around day 14 of the ovarian cycle initiates a surge of LH from the anterior pituitary |
True |
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T or F LH surge causes completion of meiosis II and ovulation of secondary oocyte |
False |
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T or F Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum which is primarily responsible for thickening of endometrium in proliferative phase of menstrual cycle (uterus) |
False |
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T or F High levels of progesterone and oestrogen inhibit anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH so no further follicles can mature |
True |
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T or F If fertilisation and pregnancy does not occur the concentration of oestrogen and progesterone increases and the pituitary is no longer inhibited to release FSH |
False |
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T or F If fertilisation does occur human chorionic gonadotrophin from the blastocyst stimulates corpus lute to continue producing oestrogen and progesterone to sustain the pregnancy |
True |
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Vaccination relies on the injection of dead or disabled (attenuated) pathogens that stimulate the immune system but do not make the person ill. Is this an example of active or passive immunity? |
Active B cell with correct receptor |
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Regarding a patients immune system, what would be the consequences of taking immunosuppressant drugs? |
Higher risk of infection and cancer risk |
